Exam Questions Flashcards
(254 cards)
1
Q
What does DNA helicase do?
A
catalyses the breakage of hydrogen bonds between bases to separate DNA strands
2
Q
Give an example of an intrahepatic cause of jaundice
A
alcoholic liver disease
viral hepatitis
3
Q
What blood type should be used for a transfusion if the blood type is not known?
A
O negative- ‘universal donor’
4
Q
In which layer of the skin are melanocytes?
A
stratum basale
5
Q
What do melanocytes do?
A
synthesise melanin which absorbs UV light
6
Q
What does LH do in males?
A
stimulates release of testosterone from leydig cells
7
Q
What structures are part of the rotator cuff?
A
subscapularis
teres minor
supraspinatus
infraspinatus
8
Q
What does the zona fasciculata do?
A
cortisol
9
Q
What does the zona glomerulosa produce?
A
aldosterone
10
Q
Where is noradrenaline produced?
A
adrenal medulla
11
Q
What does the zona reticularis produce?
A
DHEA
12
Q
Compression of what nerve will give a hoarse/ crackly voice?
A
recurrent laryngeal nerve
13
Q
What is the precursor and enzyme for lysis of clots?
A
plasminogen (precursor)
plasmin (enzyme)
14
Q
What substance makes up the skin?
A
type 1 collagen
15
Q
What is cartilage made from?
A
type 2 collagen
16
Q
What is basement membrane made of?
A
type 4 collagen
17
Q
What makes up the placenta?
A
type 5 collagen
18
Q
What substance makes up the spleen?
A
type 3 collagen
19
Q
What are type 1 hypersensitivity reactions mediated by?
A
IgE
20
Q
What does IgE do during type 1 hypersensitivity reactions?
A
causes histamine to be released from mast cells causing the allergic response
21
Q
What reactions are T helper cells involved in?
A
type 4 hypersensitivity reactions
22
Q
Which hypersensitivity reactions is IgG involved in?
A
type 2 and type 3 reactions
23
Q
Where is IgA found and what does it do?
A
found in mucous, saliva, tears
protects against pathogens
24
Q
What kind of hypersensitivity reaction is autoimmune conditions?
A
type 2
25
What are type 4 hypersensitivity reactions?
delayed type reactions- e.g. TB/ sarcoidosis
26
What do mucous cells secrete?
mucin
27
What are ADLs and IADLs and examples
ADL- activities of daily life
e.g. going to the toilet
IADL- instrumental activities of daily living
e.g. going to the supermarkets, using public transport, managing medications
28
What is the correct order of the vessels for the blood supply to the kidney?
```
renal artery
segmental artery
interlobular artery
arcuate artery
afferent arteriole
glomerular capillary
efferent arteriole
peritubular capillary
```
29
What are the vitamin K clotting factors?
2, 7, 9, 10 (remember 1972)
30
What are the stages of the transtheoretical model of behaviour?
```
precontemplation
contemplation
preparation
action
maintenance
```
31
What structures pass through the carpal tunnel?
median nerve + 9 tendons
(tendon of flexor policus longus, 4 tendons of flexor digitorium profundus, 4 tendons of flexor digitorium superficialis)
32
What are the borders of the carpal tunnel?
flexor retinaculum and arch of carpal bones
33
What type of neurotransmitters are GABA and glutamate?
GABA- inhibitory
| glutamate- excitatory
34
What is the threshold voltage for an action potential?
approx -55mV
35
What joins plasma membranes of pre and post electrical synaptic neurons?
gap junctions
36
What is the connective tissue between muscle fibres of the myocardium?
endomysiums
37
What is the appearance of the myocardium?
striated appearance
single, central nucleus per cell
intercalated discs
38
What is the function of the hippocampus?
converts short term memory to long term memory
39
What nerve innervates the triceps brachii?
radial nerve
40
What is the function of the thalamus?
relay station for sensory inputs
41
What is the function of the hypothalamus?
regulates autonomic nervous system
42
When is renin secreted?
in response to decreased perfusion in the kidneys
43
Describe the action of angiotensin 1
liver produces angiotensin
it is then cleaved by angiotensinogen into angiotensin 1
ACE converts angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2
this acts to retain water and sodium which elevates blood volume and increases blood pressure
44
How many types of pneumocytes are there? What do they do?
2 types
type 1: line alveolar wall
type 2: secrete surfactant
45
What is Barretts oesophagus?
a change from stratified squamous to simple columnar
46
What vertebral levels do the kidneys sit between?
T12 - L3
47
Which kidney is lower and why?
right kidney, due to presence of liver
48
Where do you find baroreceptors?
carotid sinus and arch of aorta
49
What is the lifespan of an erythrocyte?
120 days
50
Injury to what nerve causes inability to abduct?
axillary nerve
51
What is the nerve supply to the deltoid muscle?
axillary nerve
52
What is the lifespan of a platelet?
7-10 days
53
What is the main abductor of the arm?
deltoid muscle
54
What proportion of body weight is made of ECF?
20% of total body weight
55
What % of body weight is made of ICF?
40%
56
What % of total body weight is water?
60%
57
What are the intraperitoneal organs?
```
stomach
spleen
liver
first 3cm duodenum
jejunum
ileum
transverse colon
sigmoid colon
tail of pancreas
```
58
Which organs are retroperitoneal?
rest of pancreas and duodenum
ascending colon
descending colon
kidneys
59
What enzyme converts purines to xanthine to uric acid?
xanthine oxidase
60
How long do basophils live?
1-2 days
61
Which white blood cell releases histamine?
basophils
62
Which white blood cells have a granular histological appearance?
basophils
63
How do you calculate relative risk?
risk in one group/ risk in all other groups
64
From what point in gestation is surfactant produced?
34 weeks
65
What can be an effect of surfactant deficiency in a foetus?
respiratory distress syndrome
non-compliant lungs
loss of lung volume
66
What are the stages of lung development
embryonic (0-5 weeks)
pseudoglandular (5-17 weeks)
canalicular (16-25 weeks)
alveolar (25 weeks to term)
67
What supplies oxygenated and deoxygenated blood to the foetus?
oxygenated: umbilical vein
deoxygenated: umbilical artery
68
Where is the foramen ovale in the heart?
between left and right atrium
69
In what direction is blood shunted in a foetus?
right to left
70
What does an artery have but a vein lacks?
external elastic lamina
71
What are the symptoms of a cerebellar stroke/ lesion?
```
problems coordinating movement
balance problems
vertigo
nausea
vomiting due to prominent headache
```
72
Where is 1,25 dihydrocyvitamin D3 synthesised?
kidneys
73
Which cells detect low NaCl concentration? What do they stimulate release of as a result?
macula densa- stimulate release of renin
74
What is the equation for inspiratory capacity?
inspiratory reserve volume + tidal volume
75
Which cells release renin?
granular
76
What do goblet cells secrete?
mucus
77
What does a cross-sectional study do?
looks at an association at only one point in time
78
What are the advantages/ disadvantages of a cross-sectional study?
advantages: quick feedback, is cheap, representative of current population, no risk of drop out
disadvantages: is not representative over periods of time, no cause and effect, potentially biased if groups not randomly selected
79
What is gluconeogenesis?
synthesising glucose from non-carbohydrate sources
80
What substance is used in gluconeogensis and how us it produced?
glycerol
produced from breakdown of adipocytes
81
What structures are in the spermatic cord?
vas defrens, testicular artery, processus vaginalis, pampiniform nucleus
82
Where does glycolysis occur?
cytosol of cells
83
What are the products of glycolysis?
```
2 pyruvate
2 ATP
2NADH
2 H+
2 H2O
```
84
Where does the Kreb's cycle take place?
mitochondrial matrix in aerobic conditions
85
What is the formula for anaerobic respiration?
glucose + 2ADP + 2Pi --> 2 lactate + 2ATP + 2H2O
86
What is another name for the common peroneal nerve?
fibular nerve
87
What nerve supplies the anterior compartment of the leg? A lesion on this nerve will cause what?
deep fibular nerve
| unable to dorsiflex foot (aka 'foot drop')
88
What nerve is most commonly damaged by a fracture to the fibula and why?
common peroneal as it wraps around head of fibula
89
What germ layer is the CNS formed from?
ectoderm
90
How do you describe the ethical theory of utilitarianism?
an act is evaluated solely in terms of its consequences
91
How do you describe morality?
concern with the distinction between good and evil or right and wrong
92
Describe deontology
features of the act themselves determine the worthiness
93
Describe beneficence
providing maximum benefits and balancing the benefits against the risks
94
Describe virtue ethics
focuses on the kind of person who is acting, are they expressing good character?
95
Which bone has a disorganised structure, is made quickly in development and is temporary? What is it replaced with?
woven bone
| replaced with lamellar bone
96
What regulates erythropoiesis?
erythropoietin
97
Where is erythropoietin produced?
kidneys
98
Where is calcitriol produced and what does it do?
produced in kidneys
| regulates calcium homeostasis
99
Where is cortisol produced? What stimulates it?
adrenal glands, stimulated by stress
100
What kind of innervation causes bronchoconstriction?
parasympathetic
101
What muscles cause bronchoconstriction?
smooth muscle
102
Which arteries supply the pancreas?
superior + inferior pancreatoduodenal arteries form an arcade
also pancreatic branches from splenic artery
103
Which female structure has the same embryological precursor to the scrotum? What is it?
labia majora
| the genital swellings
104
What does the genital tubercle become?
either penis or clitoris
105
Define specificity
proportion of people without disease who are currently excluded by screening test
106
What is the visual field defect of a pituitary tumour and why?
bitemporal hemianopia
pituitary sits close to optic chiasm where nasal fibres cross, so you get loss of peripheral vision in both eyes
107
Describe the appearance of an osteoblast
uninucleate cuboidal-shaped cells
108
What do osteoblasts produce?
type 1 collagen
109
In what form do osteoblasts form new bone?
in the form of osteoid
110
Where is the sinoatrial node located?
wall of right atrium
111
Where is the atrioventricular node?
in the atrioventricular septum
112
A lesion on what nerve gives a 'down and out' eye appearance? What other symptoms will it give?
occulomotor
ptosis, fixed and dilated pupil
113
What is ptosis?
drooping of the eyelid
114
Why does an CN III lesion cause ptosis?
because CN III innervates levator palpabrae superioris which elevates the eyelid
115
What supplies serratus anterior?
long thoracic nerve
116
What muscle is affected in 'winging of the scapula'?
serratus anterior
117
What nerve innervates rhomboid major?
dorsal scapula nerve
118
What innervates the trapezius muscle?
accessory nerve
119
Why is creatinine used as a marker for filtration rate in the nephron?
because it isn't reabsorbed or secreted anywhere along the nephron
120
What are the two main hormones that control rate of water secretion and where do they act
aldosterone- acts on distal tubule
| ADH/ vasopressin- acts on collecting duct
121
What can be used to stain iron blue?
Perls' stain
122
What type of inheritance is the concern with consanguinity?
autosomal recessive
123
How many codons for one amino acid?
each codon specifies only one amino acid
124
What type of structure does collagen IV have?
non-fibrillar
125
What is the CNS derived from?
ectoderm
126
Which part of the GI tract absorbs the most fluid?
jejunum
127
What is freely filtered by the glomerulus?
glucose
128
What is the chance that the child of a patient with CF will be an asymptomatic carrier?
2 in 3
129
What is the effect of stimulation of the carotid sinus?
reduce blood pressure
130
What embryological structure gives rise to the aortic root?
truncus arteriorsus
131
Which ion in the monocyte is responsible for the plateau phase of cardiac action potential
calcium
132
Which component of an ECG is associated with onset of ventricular systole?
QRS complex
133
What is the calculation for mean arterial pressure?
diastolic pressure + 1/3 pulse pressure
134
What is functional residual capacity?
the volume of gas left in the lungs at the end of normal exhalation
135
What is the purpose of coughing?
to move material from the vocal cords to the pharynx
136
How are type 1 pneumocytes joined?
tight junctions
137
What is vital capacity?
maximum volume of air that can be expelled during a forced maximal exhalation
138
What is the main driver to breathing?
central carbon dioxide chemoreceptors
139
What provides the greatest stimulus to increase breathing rate?
high concentration of brain carbon dioxide
140
Which mechanism is primarily responsible for the process of expiration?
elastic recoil of the lung
141
At what point in the capillary is Hb saturated?
25% of the way through
142
What types of molecules are secreted by the exocrine pancreas?
digestive enzymes, fluids and bicarbonate
143
What is retinol the same as?
vitamin A
144
Where is bile reabsorbed?
terminal ileum
145
What does the colon do?
water and electrolyte reabsorption
146
What causes parietal cells to secrete acid? does this act directly?
gastrin, acts directly
147
What does pepsin do?
hydrolyses bonds between aromatic amino acids
148
What is an example of a trace metal?
manganese
149
What is the sensory input for swallowing?
cranial nerves 9 and 10
150
What is the prevention paradox?
a large number of people at a small risk may give rise to more cases of disease than the small number at high risk
151
Smoking, being overweight, consuming too much alcohol, poor diet are all examples of what?
modifiable risk factors
152
A drug administered late or not at all is what kind of error?
omission
153
What is absolute risk?
probability of an individual developing a particular disease in a particular time period
154
What is equity?
notion of how fair a given allocation of resources is
155
What is inverse care law?
access o health care tends not to be proportionate to the actual need for care in the population served
156
What does loss of hair cells at apex of cochlear cause?
low frequency hearing loss
157
Which nerve is responsible for referred pain of gallbladder to the right shoulder?
phrenic
158
Where do first order neurones for sense of smell synapse?
olfactory bulb
159
What supplies external vesicle sphincter?
pudendal nerve
160
What type of membrane does the plasma membrane of neurons have?
excitable
161
Where are microglial cells found?
in meninges, brain parenchyma and vasculature
162
What system do microglial cells belong to?
CNS
163
A right-handed person has a blockage of their right middle cerebral artery- which of the following would likely result from the occlusion?
paralysis or weakness, and sensory loss on the left hand side of the body
164
Where does awareness of pain happen?
prefrontal cortex
165
Where are C-cells located?
thyroid gland
166
What is the primary physiological change that results in menopause?
reduced production of oestradiol and inhibit B by the ovary
167
Which hormone is produced to support early days of pregnancy?
progesterone
168
What does Type B spermatogonium develop into?
primary spermatocytes
169
What process transforms spermatids into spermatozoa?
spermiogenesis
170
What is the primary event in the switch from storage to voiding?
relaxation of urethral sphincter
171
What will persistent hypoxia due in a newborn?
cause the ductus arteriosus to remain open
172
What is the general function of aldosterone?
reduces sodium and water loss through urine
173
What is a cause of metabolic alkalosis?
vomiting
174
What causes oedema?
reduced reabsorption of tissue fluid due to low plasma osmotic pressure
175
What effect does aldosterone have on transporter proteins in the distal convoluted tubule?
increase in sodium-potassium exchange transporters
176
How is uric acid formed?
breakdown of purines
177
What innervates muscle spindle cells?
gamma motor neurones
178
What do muscle spindle cells do?
detect the amount and rate of change of muscle length
179
What feature allows you to determine you are looking at cardiac muscle?
intercalated disc
180
What is the main physiological function of the synovial membrane?
secretes important components of synovial fluid
181
What hormone is produced in response to an elevated calcium concentration?
calcitonin
182
What does the anterior cruciate ligament do?
stops forward movement of tibia
183
Which bone of the foot supports ALL the body weight?
talus
184
In what tissue is 25-hydroxycholecalciferol converted to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol?
kidney
185
Where is rRNA synthesised?
nucleolus
186
Where is design exclusively found?
muscle cells
187
What is the notochord derived from?
mesoderm
188
During which week of foetal development does the primitive streak usually appear?
week 3
189
What is the function of topoisomerase?
unwinds strands of DNA by relieving supercoils
190
What type of collagen is bone?
type 1
191
What do desmosomes do?
join the intermediate filaments of neighbour cells
192
What type of filament is tubulin?
microtubule filament
193
What is penetrance?
proportion of people with a gene/ genotype who show the expected phenotype
194
What level is the angle of Louis?
T4
195
What is found at the angle of Louis?
carina of trachea, loop of left recurrent laryngeal nerve
196
Where does the sino-atrial node lie?
crista terminalis in right atrium
197
Where does the right recurrent laryngeal nerve loop?
right subclavian artery
198
Where does the left recurrent laryngeal nerve loop?
around arch of aorta
199
Which type of vessels provides most TPR to the flow of blood?
arterioles
200
How do you calculate TPR?
TPR= MAP/CO
201
What does the trunks arteriosus form?
ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk
202
In which of the cardiac layers can purkinje fibres be found?
endocardium
203
In which type of cell is a perinuclear hof most easily and frequently seen?
plasma cell
204
What is the innervation of the cricothyroid muscle?
superior laryngeal
205
What are all intrinsic muscles (except cricothyroid) of the larynx innervated by?
branches of the vagus nerve
206
What is respiratory epithelium?
pseudo stratified columnar
207
What structure allows transmission and equilibrium of air pressure between the alveoli?
pores of kohn
208
What is a generator potential?
graded, non-propagated potential changes seen in sensory end organs
209
What antibody mediates allergic reactions?
IgE
210
What type of respiratory failure is commonly caused by pulmonary embolism?
type 1
211
The trachea is a continuation of what structure?
larynx
212
How does the muscle layers of the stomach differ from the rest of the GI tract?
rest of GI tract has only circular and longitudinal, stomach has circular, longitudinal and oblique
213
How is glucose absorbed into the cell?
through a sodium dependent carrier system
214
What two molecules transport copper around the body?
most- ceruloplasmin
| some- albumin
215
How many ml of pure alcohol in 1 UK unit?
10ml
216
Which vitamins are not stored in the liver?
C and B
217
Which cells secrete glucagon?
alpha cells
218
Which cells secrete insulin?
beta cells
219
What does ghrenlin do?
increase hunger (decrease hunger)
220
What substance causes urine being yellow?
urobilin
221
What level is the root of the inferior mesenteric artery?
L3/L4
222
What level is the root of the coeliac trunk?
T12
223
Which blood vessel supplies 70-80% of the blood to the liver?
hepatic portal vein
224
What causes vertical diplopia and what is an example of this?
trochlear nerve lesion (importer action of superior oblique)
double vision while looking down stairs, for example
225
What is the most likely cause of bilateral hemianopia?
pituitary tumour
226
Which secondary vesicle forms the 3rd ventricle?
diencephalon
227
What type of fibres are transmitted between the two cerebral hemispheres?
commissural fibres
228
What are two examples of commissural fibres?
corpus callosum
| interthalamic adhesion
229
What composes the lentiform nucleus?
putamen and globus pallidus
230
What composes the neostriatum?
putamen and substantia nigra
231
What test is used to test the accessory nerve?
turning the head against resistance
232
What muscle of the neck is innervated by the accessory nerve?
sternocleidomastoid
233
What does the vas deferens pass over at the posterior aspect of the bladder?
ureters
234
What proteins do thyroid hormones bind to in the blood?
albumin
| thyroglobulin
235
Where does fertilisation of the oocyte occur?
ampulla of Fallopian tube
236
Where is the only place in the body where you can find a double layer of stratified columnar cells?
conductive of eyelid
237
What is the typical range that a menstrual cycle can last?
21-35 days
238
In what cells do you find Reinke's crystalloids?
Leydig cells
239
How do you separate leydig cells from other cells?
they have Reinke crystalloids
240
Which hormone causes Leydig cells to produce testosterone?
LH
241
At which vertebral level does the abdominal aorta bifurcate in the common iliac arteries?
L4
242
Where is erythropoietin (EPO) made?
interstitial cells of the renal cortex
243
How many cells makes up a morula?
16
244
What type of epithelium is found in the vas deferens?
pseudostratified columnar epithelia with stereo cilia
245
Which hormone stretches the pubic symphysis during birth?
relaxin
246
What type of bone is most numerous in the body?
long bones
247
What innervates the deltoid muscle and what is its function?
axillary nerve
| abduction of arm at shoulder
248
Which muscle is the strongest supinator of the forearm when the elbow is flexed 90 degrees?
biceps brachii
249
What nerve is damaged in a humeral shaft fracture and what can it cause?
radial nerve
causes a wrist drop
250
What is the order of the brachial plexus
roots trunks divisions cords branches
| read that damn cadaver book
251
What muscles make up the rotator cuff?
supraspinatus
infraspinatus
subscapularis
teres minor
252
What nerve is compressed in tarsal tunnel syndrome?
tibial nerve
253
What nerve causes carpal tunnel syndrome?
median nerve
254
What structures make up the carpal tunnel?
flexor digitorium superficialis tendons (4)
median nerve
flexor pollicis longus tendon
flexor digitorium profundus tendons (4)
