EXAM RATIONALE Flashcards by Bspharm 2025

Which of the following statements about partial agonists are true?

I. A partial agonist binds to the same receptor as a full agonist but produces a weaker response.
II. Partial agonists can act as antagonists in the presence of full agonists.
III. A partial agonist produces a maximal response even when all receptors are occupied.
IV. Partial agonists have higher affinity for receptors than full agonists.

A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, II, and III
D. I, II, III, and IV
E. None of the above

A. I and II

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Which of the following statements about non-competitive antagonists are true?

I. Allosteric antagonists are non-competitive antagonists. They bind to a different site on the
receptor than the agonist.
Il. Non-competitive antagonists reduce the maximum effect an agonist can achieve.
Ill. Non-competitive antagonists can be overcome by increasing the concentration of the agonist.
IV. Non-competitive antagonists can alter the receptor’s function without blocking the agonist
binding site.

A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, II, and IV
D. I, II, III, and IV
E. None of the above

C. I, II, and IV

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Which of the following statements about the implications of the Therapeutic Index (TI) are true?
I. A low Therapeutic Index means that the drug has a narrow margin of safety.
Il. Drugs with a high Therapeutic INdex require more careful monitoring.
Ill. The Therapeutic Index helps determine the appropriate dosage range for a drug.
IV. TI is a useful parameter for comparing the safety profiles of different drugs.

A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. I, lII, and IV
D. III, III, and IV
E. None of the above

C. I, lII, and IV

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Which of the following statements about Gs coupled receptors is correct, except:

A. Gs-coupled receptors stimulate adenylyl cyclase activity.
B. Gs-coupled receptors increase intracellular cAMP levels.
C. Gs-coupled receptors increase intracellular cAMP levels.
D. Gs-coupled receptors inhibit phospholipase C activity.
E. None of the above.

C. Gs-coupled receptors increase intracellular cAMP levels.

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Gs-coupled receptors are associated with all of the following signaling events, except:

A. Activation of phospholipase C
B. Increase in intracellular calcium levels through IP3
C. Inhibition of adenylyl cyclase
D. Production of diacylglycerol (DAG)
E. None of the above

C. Inhibition of adenylyl cyclase

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Which of the following statements about physiologic antagonism is correct, except:

A. Physiologic antagonism involves two drugs acting on different receptors to produce opposing effects.
B. Physiologic antagonism results in a neutralization of the effects of both drugs.
C. Physiologic antagonism requires the drugs to have similar chemical structures.
D. Physiologic antagonism can occur with drugs that have different mechanisms of action.
E. None of the above

C. Physiologic antagonism requires the drugs to have similar chemical structures.

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What ion is primarily associated with the GABAa receptor?

A. Sodium ion (Na+)
B. Potassium ion (K+)
C. Chloride ion (Cl-)
D. Calcium ion (Ca2+)
E. Magnesium ion (Mg2+)

C. Chloride ion (Cl-)

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What is the primary function of tyrosine kinase activity in cell signaling?
A. To bind to extracellular ligands
B. To catalyze the transfer of phosphate groups to tyrosine residues on target proteins
C. To inhibit protein synthesis
D. To regulate ion channel activity
E. To degrade cellular waste products

B. To catalyze the transfer of phosphate groups to tyrosine residues on target proteins

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What does tachyphylaxis refer to in pharmacology?

A. Increased sensitivity to a drug over time
B. Rapid decrease in response to a drug after repeated administration
C. Delayed onset of drug effects
D. Permanent loss of drug effectiveness
E. Enhanced effect of a drug after a long duration

B. Rapid decrease in response to a drug after repeated administration

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What does a lower EC50 value indicate about a drug’s potency?

A. Lower potency
B. Higher potency
C. No effect on potency
D. Slower onset of action
E. Greater therapeutic index

B. Higher potency

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What is the primary mechanism of action of a competitive antagonist?

A. Binding irreversibly to the receptor
B. Binding to a different site than the agonist
C. Competing with the agonist for the same receptor binding site
D. Blocking the receptor without competing the agonist
E. Increasing the degradation of the agonist

C. Competing with the agonist for the same receptor binding site

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Sarah, a 35-year-old woman with asthma, has been using a short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA)
inhaler to manage her symptoms. She recently experienced tremors, palpitations, and muscle
weakness. Sarah is concerned about these new symptoms and visits her healthcare provider for
advice. Which of the following side effects could Sarah be experiencing due to her use of a
short-acting beta-2 agonist?

I. Tremors
II. Palpitations
III. Hypokalemia – muscle weakness
IV. Hyperkalemia – muscle spasms

A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, II, and III
D. I, III, and IV
E. II, III, and IV

C. I, II, and III

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Sarah, a 35-year-old woman with asthma, has been using a short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA)
inhaler to manage her symptoms. She recently experienced tremors, palpitations, and muscle
weakness. Sarah is concerned about these new symptoms and visits her healthcare provider for
advice. Sarah’s healthcare provider decides to monitor her for potential side effects of the
short-acting beta2-agonist. Which of the following side effects should be included in the monitoring plan?

I. Blood pressure changes
II. Heart rate irregularities
III. Electrolyte imbalances (e.g. hypokalemia)
IV. Liver enzyme levels

A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, II, and III
D. II, III, and IV
E. I, III, and IV

C. I, II, and III

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Which of the following statements about clonidine rebound hypertension are true?

I. Clonidine rebound hypertension occurs when clonidine is abruptly withdrawn.
Il. Symptoms of rebound hypertension include a sudden increase in blood pressure.
Ill. Clonidine rebound hypertension can be managed by reinstituting the missed dose of clonidine right away.
IV. Rebound hypertension is commonly caused by an overdose of clonidine.

A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, II, and III
D. I, III, and IV
E. II, III, and IV

C. I, II, and III

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Which of the following are potential benefits of using partial agonist beta blockers?
I. They can reduce the risk of bradycardia compared to
II. full antagonists.
Ill. They provide some level of beta receptor activation at rest.
IV. They completely inhibit beta receptor activity during exercise.
V. They may have a lower risk of inducing bronchoconstriction in patients with asthma.

A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, II, and IV
D. I, II, III, and IV
E. II, III, and IV

C. I, II, and IV

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Which of the following are examples of partial agonist beta blockers?

I. Acebutolol
II. Pindolol
III. Metoprolol
IV. Propranolol

A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, II, and IV
D. III, and IV
E. I, III, and IV

A. I and II

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What is a potential risk associated with the use of partial beta-blockers in patients undergoing
hypoglycemic therapy?

A. Exacerbation of hypoglycemic unawareness due to blunted adrenergic symptoms
B. Increased insulin sensitivity leading to severe hyperglycemia
C. Suppression of glucagon secretion, causing hyperglycemic episodes
D. Elevated risk of lactic acidosis due to impaired mitochondrial function
E. Enhanced weight gain through inhibition of lipolysis

A. Exacerbation of hypoglycemic unawareness due to blunted adrenergic symptoms

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All of the following are mechanisms of action for indirect-acting sympathomimetic agonists,
except:

A. Increasing the release of stored catecholamines.
B. Inhibiting the reuptake of catecholamines.
C. Blocking the action of monoamine oxidase.
D. Binding to adrenergic receptors.
E. Enhancing the effects of endogenous neurotransmitters.

D. Binding to adrenergic receptors.

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All of the following are effects of alpha -1 receptors on the urinary bladder, except:

A. Contraction of the internal urethral sphincter
B. Increase in bladder outlet resistance
C. Relaxation of the detrusor muscle
D. Promotion of urinary retention
E. Increased tone of the bladder neck

C. Relaxation of the detrusor muscle

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Which of the following is not a therapeutic approach for treating nausea and vomiting related to
the Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone (CTZ)?

A. Using D2 antagonists
B. Administering 5-HT3 antagonists
C. Reinforcing D2 receptor activation
D. Blocking signals to the vomiting center
E. Reducing CTZ sensitivity to emetic substances

C. Reinforcing D2 receptor activation

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All of the following are D2 receptor agonists used in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease, except:

A. Bromocriptine
B. Pergolide
C. Ropinirole
D. Haloperidol
E. Pramipexole

D. Haloperidol

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Mr. Johnson, a 70-year-old man with BPH, is experiencing increased urinary retention after
starting an alpha-1 selective agonist for nasal congestion. He reports a weak urine stream and
frequent nocturia. What is the best course of action to address Mr. Johnson’s symptoms?

A. Increase the dose of the alpha-1 selective agonist
B. Discontinue the alpha-1 selective agonist and consult a healthcare provider
C. Recommend over-the-counter diuretics
D. Encourage increased fluid intake
E. Suggest pelvic floor exercises

B. Discontinue the alpha-1 selective agonist and consult a healthcare provider

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What active metabolite is methyldopa converted into within the central nervous system (CNS)?

A. Norepinephrine
B. Dopamine
C. Alpha-Methylnorepinephrine
D. Epinephrine
E. Serotonin

C. Alpha-Methylnorepinephrine

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What is the primary function of presynaptic alpha-2 receptors in the central nervous system
(CNS)?

A. Increase norepinephrine release
B. Inhibit norepinephrine release
C. Stimulate dopamine release
D. Block acetylcholine release
E. Enhance serotonin release

B. Inhibit norepinephrine release

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Which of the following is a clinical application of beta-2 receptor agonists related to their effect on uterine smooth muscle? A. Inducing labor B. Relaxing bronchial smooth muscle C. Treating preterm labor D. Managing hypertension E. Reducing inflammation

C. Treating preterm labor

What is the primary metabolite produced from the breakdown of norepinephrine (NE) and epinephrine (EPI) by MAO and COMT? A. 5-Hydroxyindoleacetic acid B. Homovanillic acid C. 3-Methoxy-4-Hydroxymandelic acid D. Serotonin E. Dopamine

C. 3-Methoxy-4-Hydroxymandelic acid

What is the primary effect of norepinephrine on blood vessels? A. Vasodilation B. Vasoconstriction C. Increased permeability D. Reduced blood flow E. Inhibition of vessel contraction

B. Vasoconstriction

What is the primary mechanism of action of tocolytics like ritodrine, isoxsuprine, and terbutaline in treating preterm labor? A. Inhibiting the synthesis of prostaglandins B. Blocking calcium channels in the uterus C. Activating beta-2 adrenergic receptors in uterine smooth muscle D. Increasing the release of oxytocin E. Reducing the levels of progesterone

C. Activating beta-2 adrenergic receptors in uterine smooth muscle

Which beta blocker is known for its high cardioselectivity and also has nitric oxide-mediated vasodilatory effects? A. Propranolol B. Metoprolol C. Carvedilol D. Nebivolol E. Labetalol

D. Nebivolol

Mr. Johnson, a 62-year-old man with COPD, has been managing his hypertension with ancardioselective beta blocker. During a routine check-up, his physician asks about any new respiratory symptoms. Mr. Johnson reports no issues. Why might Mr. Johnson's physician have chosen a cardioselective beta blocker for his treatment? A. Cardioselective beta blockers have no effect on respiratory function. B. Cardioselective beta blockers are less likely to cause bronchospasm compared to non-selective beta blockers. C. Cardioselective beta blockers are more effective in treating hypertension than non-selective beta blockers. D. Cardioselective beta blockers increase heart rate. E. Cardioselective beta blockers reduce the risk of weight gain.

B. Cardioselective beta blockers are less likely to cause bronchospasm compared to non-selective beta blockers.

Mrs. Green, a 65-year-old woman, presents with excessive salivation, sweating, and bradycardia. She mentions that she has been using a plant extract known for its cholinergic effects to manage her glaucoma. Upon examination, her doctor suspects the symptoms are due to the cholinergic alkaloid in the extract. Which cholinergic alkaloid is most likely responsible for Mrs. Green's symptoms? A. Atropine B. Pilocarpine C. Nicotine D. Scopolamine E. Hyoscyamine

B. Pilocarpine

Which of the following are examples of centrally-acting anticholinesterases? I. Donepezil II. Rivastigmine III. Neostigmine IV. Galantamin A. I and III B. II and IV C. I, II, and IV D. All of the above E. None of the above

C. I, II, and IV

Which of the following is not a mechanism of action of pralidoxime (PAM) and diacetyl monoxime (DAM) in organophosphate toxicity? A. Reactivation of acetylcholinesterase B. Binding to organophosphate-inactivated acetylcholinesterase C. Inhibition of cholinergic receptors D. Reversal of organophosphate-induced inhibition of acetylcholinesterase E. None of the above

C. Inhibition of cholinergic receptors

Which of the following is not a recommended treatment for malignant hyperthermia? A. Dantrolene B. Bromocriptine C. Cooling measures D. Epinephrine E. None of the above

D. Epinephrine

Muscarinic 3 receptor activation leads to all of the following effects except: A. Bronchoconstriction B. Increased glandular secretion C. Vasodilation D. Increased heart rate E. None of the above

D. Increased heart rate

All of the following organocarbamates are primarily used to treat myasthenia gravis except: A. Pyridostigmine B. Neostigmine C. Ambenonium D. Physostigmine E. None of the above

D. Physostigmine

Anticholinesterase drugs can cause the following except: A. Increased salivation B. Muscle cramps C. Tachycardia D. Miosis (pupil constriction) E. None of the above

C. Tachycardia

All of the following statements about non-depolarizing, reversible, competitive nicotinic antagonists are true except: A. They block acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction. B. They cause muscle paralysis by depolarizing the muscle membrane. C. They are used as muscle relaxants in anesthesia. D. Atracurium is an example E. None of the above

B. They cause muscle paralysis by depolarizing the muscle membrane.

Bethanechol is primarily used to treat which of the following conditions? A. Urinary retention B. Urinary incontinence C. Overactive bladder D. Urinary tract infection E. Interstitial cystitis

A. Urinary retention

Which of the following drugs is a purely muscarinic agent? A. Nicotine B. Atropine C. Pilocarpine D. Lobeline E. Arecoline

C. Pilocarpine

Which drug is a muscarinic agonist used to treat glaucoma? A. Atropine B. Scopolamine C. Pilocarpine D. Ipratropium E. Tiotropium

C. Pilocarpine

Which of the following drugs is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor? A. Atropine B. Donepezil C. Albuterol D. Ipratropium E. Epinephrine

B. Donepezil

Which of the following medications can be used to manage mild to moderate atropine overdose? A. Atropine B. Epinephrine C. Neostigmine D. Albuterol E. Ipratropium

C. Neostigmine

What is the mechanism of action of atropine? A. Beta receptor blockade B. Muscarinic receptor antagonism C. Alpha receptor stimulation D. Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase E. Serotonin receptor antagonism

B. Muscarinic receptor antagonism

Scopolamine is known to cause which of the following effects? A. Hyperactivity B. Dreamless sleep C. Hallucinations D. Tachycardia E. Weight gain

C. Hallucinations

Which muscarinic antagonist is commonly used to manage parkinsonism? A. Atropine B. Scopolamine C. Benztropine D. Ipratropium E. Tiotropium

C. Benztropine

Which of the following muscarinic antagonists is used as bronchodilator? A. Atropine B. Ipratropium C. Scopolamine D. Benztropine E. Pilocarpine

B. Ipratropium

Which of the following describes the action of succinylcholine? A. Depolarizing, irreversible, non-competitive nicotinic antagonist B. Non-depolarizing, reversible, competitive nicotinic antagonist C. CNS acting anticholinesterase D. CNS acting anticholinergic E. Muscarinic agonist

A. Depolarizing, irreversible, non-competitive nicotinic antagonist

High potency first-generation antipsychotics (FGA) are characterized by which of the following? I. Higher risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) II. Lower risk of sedation Ill. Lower risk of anticholinergic side effects IV. Greater affinity for dopamine receptors A. I and III B. II and IV C. I, II, III, and IV D. II and III E. None of the above

C. I, II, III, and IV

Which of the following are differences between first-generation antipsychotics (FGA) and second-generation antipsychotics (SGA) in terms of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)? I. FGA have a higher likelihood of causing EPS compared to SGA. Il. SGA are less likely to cause EPS compared to FGA. Ill. EPS include symptoms such as tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia. IV. Both FGA and SGA can cause EPS, but the risk is generally higher with FGA. A. I and II B. III and IV C. I, II, and IB D. All of the above E. None of the above

D. All of the above

Mr. Lee, a 45-year-old man, presents to the emergency room with severe muscle spasms and twisting movements of his neck. He has been taking an antipsychotic medication for his schizophrenia. The attending physician diagnoses him with acute dystonia. Which of the following treatments would be most appropriate for Mr. Lee's acute dystonia? A. Haloperidol B. Diphenhydramine IV C. Lorazepam D. Metoclopramide E. Omeprazole

B. Diphenhydramine IV

Mr. Anderson, a 55-year-old man, presents with severe muscle rigidity, fever, and altered consciousness after starting an antipsychotic medication. The physician diagnoses him with neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) and decides to initiate treatment. Which of the following treatments is appropriate for Mr. Anderson's condition? A. Bromocriptine B. Dantrolene C. Haloperidol D. Metoclopramide E. Both A and B

E. Both A and B

All of the following are low potency antipsychotics except: A. Chlorpromazine B. Chlorprothixene C. Fluphenazine D. Mesoridazine E. Promazine

C. Fluphenazine

All of the following are true about haloperidol except: A. High risk of extrapyramidal symptoms B. Primarily used as an antiemetic C. Cardiotoxic D. Used to treat schizophrenia E. Butyrophenone class

B. Primarily used as an antiemetic

Clozapine is associated with all of the following side effects except: A. Weight gain B. Diabetes C. Orthostatic hypotension D. Hyperprolactinemia E. Agranulocytosis

D. Hyperprolactinemia

What is the primary mechanism of action of first-generation antipsychotics (FGA)? A. Inhibition of serotonin receptors B. Blockade of dopamine D2 receptors C. Activation of GABA receptors D. Stimulation of adrenergic receptors E. Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase

B. Blockade of dopamine D2 receptors

Which of the following antipsychotics is associated with a high risk of QT prolongation? A. Risperidone B. Quetiapine C. Thioridazine D. Olanzapine E. Aripiprazole

C. Thioridazine

Chlorpromazine is known to have which of the following effects? A. Hyperprolactinemia B. Decreased seizure threshold C. Weight loss D. Insomnia E. Tachycardia

A. Hyperprolactinemia

Sarah, a 35-year-old woman, has been struggling with depression and is prescribed imipramine. She mentions that her young daughter, Emily, has also started experiencing bed-wetting at night. Could imipramine be a potential treatment option for Emily's bedwetting? Why or why not? A. Yes, because imipramine is effective in treating enuresis (bed-wetting) in children. B. No, because imipramine is only used for adults. C. Yes, but only if Emily also has symptoms of depression. D. No, because imipramine is not indicated for children. E. Yes, because imipramine is a muscle relaxant.

A. Yes, because imipramine is effective in treating enuresis (bed-wetting) in children.

Valproic acid is preferred in the acute phase of illness for all of the following reasons except: A. Effective for mixed states B. High risk of agranulocytosis C. Rapid onset of action D. Effective for rapid cycling E. Broad therapeutic range

B. High risk of agranulocytosis

Mr. Green, a 45-year-old man, is being treated for depression with a tetracyclic antidepressant. He has been experiencing increased appetite and weight gain as side effects of the medication. Which of the following tetracyclic antidepressants is Mr. Green most likely taking? A. Nortriptyline B. Doxepin C. Mirtazapine D. Fluoxetine

C. Mirtazapine

Which of the following is a common side effect associated with tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)? A. Weight loss B. Insomnia C. Orthostatic hypotension D. Increased appetite E. Psychomotor agitation

C. Orthostatic hypotension

Which of the following is a mechanism of action of bupropion? A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibition B. Norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibition C. Monoamine oxidase inhibition D. GABA receptor activation E. Histamine receptor antagonism

B. Norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibition

Which of the following is a potential risk associated with abrupt discontinuation of SSRIs? A. Seizures B. Hypertensive crisis C. Withdrawal syndrome D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome E. Serotonin syndrome

C. Withdrawal syndrome

All of the following are SSRIs except: A. Fluoxetine B. Sertraline C. Paroxetine D. Venlafaxine E. Citalopram

D. Venlafaxine

Which of the following is a characteristic effect of serotonin? A. Increased appetite B. Vasoconstriction C. Decreased gastrointestinal motility D. Sedation E. Bronchodilation

B. Vasoconstriction

Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of sumatriptan? A. Hypertension B. Coronary artery disease C. Migraine D. Depression E. Asthma

B. Coronary artery disease

Which of the following is a potential adverse effect associated with long-term use of high-dose aspirin? A. Liver failure B. Kidney damage C. Pulmonary fibrosis D. Hearing loss E. Increased risk of infection

D. Hearing loss

What is the primary mechanism of action of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)? A. Blocking histamine receptors B. Inhibiting cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes C. Stimulating prostaglandin synthesis D. Activating opioid receptors E. Enhancing GABA activity

B. Inhibiting cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes

Which of the following is a selective COX-2 inhibitor? A. Ibuprofen B. Naproxen C. Celecoxib D. Aspirin E. Ketorolac

C. Celecoxib

All of the following are true about acetaminophen except: A. It has anti-inflammatory properties. B. It is an analgesic. C. It is an antipyretic. D. It is safe in pregnancy when used as directed. E. Overdose can cause hepatotoxicity.

A. It has anti-inflammatory properties.

What is the mechanism of action of local anesthetics like lidocaine? A. Activation of sodium channels B. Blockade of potassium channels C. Inhibition of sodium channels D. Enhancement of GABA activity E. Stimulation of acetylcholine receptors

C. Inhibition of sodium channels

Which of the following is a potential risk associated with the use of succinylcholine? A. Malignant hyperthermia B. Bradycardia C. Hypotension D. Decreased intraocular pressure E. Bronchospasm

A. Malignant hyperthermia

Which of the following is an example of an osmotic diuretic? A. Furosemide B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Spironolactone D. Mannitol E. Amiloride

D. Mannitol

Which of the following diuretics is known for its potassium-sparing effect? A. Furosemide B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Spironolactone D. Mannitol E. Acetazolamide

C. Spironolactone

Which of the following is a potential adverse effect of loop diuretics like furosemide? A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hyperuricemia D. Metabolic acidosis E. Hyponatremia

C. Hyperuricemia

Where in the nephron does furosemide exert its primary action? A. Proximal convoluted tubule B. Distal convoluted tubule C. Loop of Henle D. Glomerulus E. Descending limb of the loop of Henle

C. Loop of Henle

Mr. Brown, a 65-year-old man with heart failure, is on a diuretic therapy. He is experiencing hyperkalemia, and his medication is known to conserve potassium and block aldosterone receptors. Which diuretic is Mr. Brown most likely taking? A. Amiloride B. Spironolactone C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Furosemide E. Torsemide

B. Spironolactone

Which of the following are characteristics of left-sided heart failure? I. Pulmonary congestion II. Dyspnea III. Peripheral edema IV. Orthopnea A. I and II B. II and IV C. I, II, and IV D. I and IV E. All of the above

C. I, II, and IV

Which of the following statements accurately describe systolic heart failure? I. The muscle in the left ventricle is unable to contract or shorten Il. It is termed “systolic failure or HFrEF” Ill. Ejection fraction is usually reduced IV. The heart muscle becomes thick and stiff A. I and II B. II and III C. I, II, and III D. All of the above E. None of the above

A. I and II

The Michaelis-Menten equation is used to describe: A. Zero-order kinetics B. First-order kinetics C. Nonlinear pharmacokinetics D. Protein binding

C. Nonlinear pharmacokinetics

Nonlinear pharmacokinetics occurs when: A. Drug concentration is proportional to dose B. Drug elimination follows first-order kinetics C. Metabolic pathways become saturated D. Drug absorption is rapid

C. Metabolic pathways become saturated

P-glycoprotein (P-gp) affects drug absorption by: A. Increasing drug dissolution B. Facilitating drug absorption C. Limiting drug bioavailability D. Enhancing drug distribution

C. Limiting drug bioavailability

Efflux transporters such as P-glycoprotein are primarily located in: A. Liver and kidney B. Brain and blood-brain barrier C. Intestinal epithelial cells D. All of the above

C. Intestinal epithelial cells

First-pass metabolism can significantly reduce the: A. Drug's half-life B. Drug's bioavailability C. Drug's clearance rate D. Drug's volume of distribution

B. Drug's bioavailability

Enterohepatic recycling can cause: A. Increased drug absorption B. Prolonged drug half-life C. Decreased drug bioavailability D. Rapid drug elimination

B. Prolonged drug half-life

A drug with a narrow therapeutic index requires: A. Frequent monitoring of plasma levels B. Less frequent dosing C. High doses to be effective D. Rapid elimination

A. Frequent monitoring of plasma levels

Therapeutic drug monitoring is especially important for drugs with: A. Wide therapeutic index B. High first-pass metabolism C. Low bioavailability D. Narrow therapeutic index

D. Narrow therapeutic index

Pharmacogenomics is the study of: A. Drug absorption in different populations B. Drug interactions with proteins C. Genetic factors affecting drug response D. Environmental factors affecting drug metabolism

C. Genetic factors affecting drug response

Genetic polymorphisms in CYP450 enzymes can lead to: A. Uniform drug response B. Variability in drug metabolism C. Consistent drug absorption D. No effect on drug pharmacokinetics

B. Variability in drug metabolism

Poor metabolizers of a drug may experience: A. Increased drug clearance B. Decreased drug efficacy C. Increased risk of adverse effects D. Rapid drug metabolism

C. Increased risk of adverse effects

Ultrarapid metabolizers of a drug may require: A. Higher drug doses B. Lower drug doses C. No dose adjustment D. Increased monitoring of plasma levels

A. Higher drug doses

In vitro-in vivo correlation (IVIVC) is used to: A. Predict drug stability B. Establish bioequivalence C. Relate in vitro drug dissolution to in vivo bioavailability D. Determine drug toxicity

C. Relate in vitro drug dissolution to in vivo bioavailability

The Biopharmaceutics Classification System (BCS) classifies drugs based on: A. Solubility and permeability B. Bioavailability and metabolism C. Absorption and distribution D. Elimination and clearance

A. Solubility and permeability

A BCS Class IV drug is characterized by: A. High solubility and high permeability B. Low solubility and low permeability C. High solubility and low permeability D. Low solubility and high permeability

B. Low solubility and low permeability

Prodrug strategies are used to: A. Improve drug solubility B. Enhance drug stability C. Increase drug bioavailability D. All of the above

C. Increase drug bioavailability

Controlled-release formulations are designed to: A. Rapidly release drug B. Maintain constant drug levels C. Increase dosing frequency D. Reduce drug half-life

B. Maintain constant drug levels

A drug is a weak acid with a pKa of 4.5. At a physiological pH of 7.4, what will be the predominant form of the drug? A. Ionized B. Unionized C. Equal amounts of ionized and unionized D. Completely metabolized

A. Ionized

If a drug has a half-life of 4 hours, how long will it take for 75% of the drug to be eliminated? A. 4 hours B. 8 hours C. 12 hours D. 16 hours

C. 12 hours

A loading dose is given to: A. Maintain steady-state levels B. Reduce drug metabolism C. Achieve therapeutic drug concentration quickly D. Delay drug clearance

C. Achieve therapeutic drug concentration quickly

EXAM RATIONALE Flashcards

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