PRACTICE QUESTIONS Flashcards by Bspharm 2025

Which of the following drugs are classified as
glycoprotein IIb and IIIa inhibitors?

i. Cilostazol
ii. Eptifibatide
iii. Tirofiban
iv. Dipyridamole

A. i and ii
B. ii and iii
C. i, ii, and iii
D. ii and iv
E. All of the above

B. ii and iii

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The mechanism of action of clopidogrel includes all of the following except:

A. Block ADP receptors on platelets
B. Prevent ADP-induced platelet aggregation
C. Inhibit thromboxane synthesis
D. Reduce risk of thrombotic events
E. Decrease platelet adhesion

C. Inhibit thromboxane synthesis

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Mrs. Evans, a 45-year-old woman with peripheral artery disease, is prescribed a phosphodiesterase inhibitor to improve her walking distance and reduce her symptoms of intermittent claudication. Which medication is Mrs. Evans most likely prescribed?

A. Cilostazol
B. Clopidogrel
C. Aspirin
D. Eptifibatide
E. Tirofiban

A. Cilostazol

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Which of the following statements describe the
mechanism of action of aspirin?

i. Inhibits cyclooxygenase (COX) enzyme
ii. Prevents the formation of thromboxane A2 (TXA2)
iii. Reduces platelet aggregation
iv. Increases prostaglandin production

A. i and ii
B. ii and iii
C. i, ii, and iii
D. ii and iv
E. All of the above

C. i, ii, and iii

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Ms. Smith, a 60-year-old woman on aspirin therapy, requires emergency
surgery. Her healthcare provider needs to manage her risk of bleeding during
the procedure. What is the recommended action for managing aspirin therapy before Ms. Smith’s emergency surgery?

A. Administer platelet transfusion
B. Increase aspirin dose
C. Continue aspirin without changes
D. Discontinue aspirin 7-10 days before surgery
E. Reduce aspirin dose gradually

A. Administer platelet transfusion

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Which of the following are uses of ADP inhibitors?

i. Prevention of thrombotic events in patients with acute coronary syndrome
ii. Secondary prevention of myocardial infarction
iii. Prevention of stroke
iv. Treatment of deep vein thrombosis

A. i and ii
B. ii and iii
C. i, ii, and iii
D. i and iii
E. All of the above

C. i, ii, and iii

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Which of the following are side effects specifically associated with Ticlopidine?

i. Neutropenia
ii. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)
iii. Diarrhea
iv. Agranulocytosis

A. i and ii
B. ii and iii
C. i, ii, and iii
D. i and iii
E. All of the above

E. All of the above

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Which of the following are true statements about Clopidogrel and CYP2C19?

i. Clopidogrel is a prodrug
ii. CYP2C19 is necessary for the activation of
Clopidogrel
iii. Poor metabolizers of CYP2C19 may have reduced
therapeutic effects of Clopidogrel
iv. Clopidogrel is unaffected by CYP2C19
polymorphisms

A. i and ii
B. ii and iii
C. i, ii, and iii
D. i and iii
E. All of the above

C. i, ii, and iii

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Mr. Johnson, a 55-year-old man undergoing
percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), is
administered a glycoprotein IIb and IIIa inhibitor to prevent platelet aggregation and thrombus
formation during the procedure. Which medication is Mr. Johnson most likely receiving?

A. Abciximab
B. Clopidogrel
C. Ticagrelor
D. Aspirin
E. Warfarin

A. Abciximab

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All of the following are key components of the
intrinsic pathway in the coagulation cascade except:

A. Factor XII
B. Factor XI
C. Factor IX
D. Factor VII
E. Factor VIII

D. Factor VII

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Which of the following factors is involved in the
common pathway of the coagulation cascade?

A. Factor X
B. Factor VII
C. Tissue factor (TF)
D. Factor XII
E. Factor XI

A. Factor X

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Which of the following is also known as Factor II in the coagulation cascade?

A. Prothrombin
B. Fibrinogen
C. Antihemophilic factor
D. Stuart-Prower factor
E. Proconvertin

A. Prothrombin

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Which of the following is also known as Factor VII in the coagulation cascade?

A. Proconvertin
B. Stuart-Prower factor
C. Prothrombin
D. Fibrinogen
E. Proaccelerin

A. Proconvertin

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Which of the following molecules play a role in
platelet adhesion?

i. von Willebrand factor (vWF)
ii. Glycoprotein Ib (GpIb)
iii. Fibrinogen
iv. Thrombin

A. i and ii
B. ii and iii
C. i, ii, and iv
D. ii and iv
E. All of the above

A. i and ii

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Which of the following molecules are involved in
platelet activation?

i. Adenosine diphosphate (ADP)
ii. Thromboxane A2 (TXA2)
iii. Serotonin
iv. Calcium ions (Ca2+)

A. i and ii
B. ii and iii
C. i, ii, and iv
D. i and iii
E. All of the above

E. All of the above

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Which of the following are platelet pro-aggregants?

i. Thromboxane A2 (TXA2)
ii. Adenosine diphosphate (ADP)
iii. Serotonin
iv. Prostacyclin (PGI2)

A. i and ii
B. ii and iii
C. i, ii, and iii
D. ii and iv
E. All of the above

C. i, ii, and iii

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Which of the following hormones are regulated by the hypothalamus?

i. Growth hormone (GH)
ii. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
iii. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
iv. Epinephrine

A. i and ii
B. ii, iii, and iv
C. i, ii, and iii
D. ii and iv
E. All of the above

C. i, ii, and iii

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Which of the following are hormones produced by the thyroid gland?

i. T3 (Triiodothyronine)
ii. T4 (Thyroxine)
iii. Calcitonin
iv. Glucagon

A. i and ii
B. i, ii, and iii
C. ii, iii, and iv
D. i and iii
E. All of the above

B. i, ii, and iii

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A 40-year-old woman presents with symptoms of decreased metabolic rate, fatigue, and unexplained weight gain. Laboratory results indicate decreased levels of T3 and T4, accompanied by an elevated TSH level. Which endocrine gland is primarily malfunctioning, and which hormone(s) are deficient in this condition?

A. Adrenal gland; aldosterone
B. Pituitary gland; growth hormone
C. Thyroid gland; T3 and T4
D. Pancreas; glucagon
E. Hypothalamus; thyrotropin-releasing hormone

C. Thyroid gland; T3 and T4

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A patient presents with symptoms consistent with hypercalcemia, including fatigue, digestive issues, and bone pain. Laboratory tests reveal elevated levels of parathyroid hormone (PTH). Which of the following hormones are produced by the anterior pituitary gland?

i. Growth hormone (GH)
ii. Prolactin
iii. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
iv. Oxytocin

A. i and ii
B. i, ii, and iii
C. ii, iii, and iv
D. i and iii
E. All of the above

B. i, ii, and iii

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A patient presents with galactorrhea and
hypogonadism due to hyperprolactinemia. Which drug would be most appropriate to treat this condition, and what is its mechanism of action?

A. Bromocriptine; D2 receptor agonist
B. Octreotide; somatostatin analog
C. Somatropin; stimulates IGF-1 production
D. Insulin; regulates blood sugar levels
E. Vasopressin; regulates water balance

A. Bromocriptine; D2 receptor agonist

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A 60-year-old patient with a history of cirrhosis
presents with bleeding esophageal varices. The
healthcare provider prescribes a somatostatin
analog. Which drug is being used, and what is its
primary effect?

A. Octreotide; vasoconstriction
B. Bromocriptine; reduces prolactin levels
C. Somatropin; promotes growth
D. Insulin; lowers blood sugar levels
E. Corticotropin; increases cortisol secretion

A. Octreotide; vasoconstriction

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Which of the following are functions of oxytocin?

i. Stimulates uterine contractions (oxytosis)
ii. Causes milk ejection (let-down)
iii. Regulates water reabsorption in the kidney
iv. Promotes vasoconstriction

A. i and ii
B. ii and iii
C. i, ii, and iii
D. ii and iv
E. All of the above

A. i and ii

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A 45-year-old man presents with symptoms of
polydipsia, polyuria, and nocturia. Further testing reveals decreased ADH secretion. What is the likely diagnosis, and what is the treatment?

A. Central diabetes insipidus; treated with vasopressin or desmopressin
B. SIADH; treated with demeclocycline
C. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus; treated with thiazide diuretics
D. Addison’s disease; treated with cortisol
E. Cushing’s syndrome; treated with spironolactone

A. Central diabetes insipidus; treated with vasopressin or desmopressin

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A patient presents with symptoms of fatigue, cold intolerance, and weight gain. Laboratory tests reveal altered levels of thyroid hormones and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). Which of the following are characteristic features of primary hypothyroidism? i. Elevated levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) due to feedback mechanisms ii. Reduced levels of triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4) resulting from thyroid gland dysfunction iii. Decreased metabolic rate leading to symptoms like dry skin and constipation iv. Enhanced production of thyroid hormones as a compensatory response A. i and ii B. ii, iii, and iv C. i, ii, and iii D. i and iii E. All of the above

C. i, ii, and iii

Which of the following are functions of cortisol? i. Regulation of blood sugar levels ii. Anti-inflammatory effects iii. Promotion of protein synthesis iv. Maintenance of blood pressure A. i and ii B. i, ii, and iv C. ii, iii, and iv D. ii and iv E. All of the above

B. i, ii, and iv

A 30-year-old man with hyperthyroidism is experiencing a thyroid storm. Which treatment is most appropriate for this condition, and why? A. PTU; inhibits thyroid hormone synthesis and T4 to T3 conversion B. Methimazole; long-term maintenance for hyperthyroidism C. Levothyroxine; restores thyroid hormone levels D. Liothyronine; boosts T3 levels rapidly E. Radioiodine; destroys overactive thyroid tissue

A. PTU; inhibits thyroid hormone synthesis and T4 to T3 conversion

Which of the following are associated with Addison disease? i. Primary adrenocortical insufficiency ii. Low cortisol levels iii. Adrenal cortex dysfunction iv. Elevated blood glucose levels A. i and ii B. ii, iii, and iv C. i, ii, and iii D. i and iii E. All of the above

C. i, ii, and iii

Which of the following are characteristics of Type 1 diabetes? i. Insulin-dependent ii. Destruction of beta cells in the pancreas iii. Typically affects individuals below 30 years old iv. Decreased receptor sensitivity to insulin A. i and ii B. ii, iii, and iv C. i, ii, and iii D. i and iii E. All of the above

C. i, ii, and iii

Which of the following are features of rapid-acting insulins? i. Onset time of 15-30 minutes ii. Duration of action of 3-4 hours iii. Includes Insulin Lispro iv. Long-acting properties A. i and ii B. ii, iii, and iv C. i, ii, and iii D. i and iii E. All of the above

C. i, ii, and iii

Which of the following are functions of metformin? i. Reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis ii. Improves insulin sensitivity iii. Stimulates insulin release from beta cells iv. Initial drug of choice for type 2 diabetes A. i and ii B. i, ii, and iv C. ii, iii, and iv D. ii and iv E. All of the above

B. i, ii, and iv

All of the following are diagnostic criteria for diabetes except: A. Fasting blood sugar levels > 126 mg/dL B. HbA1C level ≥ 6.5% C. Oral glucose tolerance test > 200 mg/dL D. Random blood sugar levels ≤ 100 mg/dL E. Pre-diabetes HbA1C range from 5.7% to 6.4%

D. Random blood sugar levels ≤ 100 mg/dL

Which diagnostic test measures long-term blood glucose control? A. HbA1C test B. Fasting blood sugar C. Oral glucose tolerance test D. Random blood sugar test E. Insulin tolerance test

A. HbA1C test

What is the onset time for rapid-acting insulin, such as Insulin Lispro? A. 15-30 minutes B. 1-4 hours C. 30-60 minutes D. 10-24 hours E. 5-10 minutes

A. 15-30 minutes

A 12-year-old patient presents with fatigue, excessive thirst, frequent urination, and unintended weight loss. Laboratory results show a fasting blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL and undetectable insulin levels. What is the likely diagnosis, and what treatment is recommended? A. Type 1 diabetes; treated with insulin therapy B. Type 2 diabetes; treated with metformin C. Gestational diabetes; treated with diet modification D. Cushing syndrome; treated with ketoconazole E. Pre-diabetes; treated with lifestyle modifications

A. Type 1 diabetes; treated with insulin therapy

A 45-year-old obese man is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. He is started on metformin as the first-line therapy. What is the mechanism of action of metformin in this patient? A. Reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis and improves insulin sensitivity B. Stimulates insulin release from beta cells of the pancreas C. Inhibits glucose absorption in the intestines D. Reduces gastric emptying and increases satiety E. Decreases glucagon secretion during meals

A. Reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis and improves insulin sensitivity

Which of the following are features of long-acting insulins? i. Onset time of 1-4 hours ii. Duration of action lasting 10-24 hours iii. Includes Insulin Glargine iv. Used primarily for post-meal glucose control A. i and ii B. ii and iii C. i, ii, and iii D. i and iii E. All of the above

C. i, ii, and iii

Which HbA1C level is diagnostic for diabetes? A. ≥ 6.5% B. ≥ 5.7% C. ≥ 7.5% D. ≥ 5.4% E. ≥ 6.0%

A. ≥ 6.5%

All of the following occur during Stage 2 (Excitement) of general anesthesia except: A. Increased involuntary muscle movement B. Increased heart rate C. Increased blood pressure D. Complete loss of consciousness E. Depression of inhibitory CNS neurons

D. Complete loss of consciousness

All of the following are effects of general anesthesia except: A. Loss of sensation throughout the body B. Reduction in muscle rigidity C. Full unconsciousness D. Enhanced voluntary movements E. Elimination of pain response

D. Enhanced voluntary movements

All of the following are examples of inhalation anesthetic agents except: A. Halothane B. Propofol C. Nitrous Oxide D. Xenon E. Sevoflurane

B. Propofol

All of the following are mechanisms of action for local anesthetics except: A. Block voltage-gated sodium channels B. Pass through neuronal cell membranes C. Prevent initiation of action potentials D. Stimulate potassium channel activity E. Stop conduction of action potentials

D. Stimulate potassium channel activity

All of the following are side effects of Propofol except: A. Respiratory depression B. Hallucinations C. Hypotension D. Loss of consciousness E. Bradycardia

B. Hallucinations

All of the following are features of Dexmedetomidine except: A. Selective action on alpha-2 adrenergic receptors B. Causes respiratory depression C. Provides light sedation D. Reduces neurotransmitter release E. Decreases pain signals

B. Causes respiratory depression

All of the following are volatile halogenated agents except: A. Enflurane B. Isoflurane C. Xenon D. Sevoflurane E. Desflurane

C. Xenon

Which stage of general anesthesia is ideal for surgery? A. Stage 1: Induction B. Stage 2: Excitement C. Stage 3: Surgical Anesthesia D. Stage 4: Medullary Paralysis E. None of the above

C. Stage 3: Surgical Anesthesia

Which neurotransmitter receptor is the primary target of intravenous anesthetics? A. GABA-A receptor B. NMDA receptor C. Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor D. Serotonin receptor E. Histamine receptor

A. GABA-A receptor

What is the primary site of action for inhalation anesthetics like Nitrous Oxide? A. NMDA receptor B. GABA-A receptor C. Dopamine receptor D. Potassium channels E. Sodium channels

A. NMDA receptor

What is a common side effect of Ketamine? A. Hallucinations B. Respiratory depression C. Arrhythmias D. Seizures E. Bradycardia

A. Hallucinations

What is the main mechanism of Dexmedetomidine? A. Selective action on alpha-2 adrenergic receptors B. Blocking NMDA receptors C. Activating GABA-A receptors D. Enhancing serotonin receptor activity E. Increasing sodium flow across cell membranes

A. Selective action on alpha-2 adrenergic receptors

What type of anesthesia numbs a specific area without causing loss of consciousness? A. Local anesthesia B. General anesthesia C. Sedation D. Regional anesthesia E. Dissociative anesthesia

A. Local anesthesia

Which stage of general anesthesia involves respiratory and cardiovascular failure if not reversed? A. Stage 4: Medullary Paralysis B. Stage 3: Surgical Anesthesia C. Stage 2: Excitement D. Stage 1: Induction E. None of the above

A. Stage 4: Medullary Paralysis

What enzyme does Aspirin irreversibly inactivate? A. COX-2 B. Lipoxygenase C. COX-1 D. Thromboxane synthase E. Cyclooxygenase

E. Cyclooxygenase

Which specific prostaglandin is responsible for platelet aggregation? A. PGE1 B. PGI2 C. TXA2 D. LTC4 E. LTD4

C. TXA2

Alprostadil is a prostaglandin E1 agonist used in various medical conditions. Which of the following conditions is least likely to be directly treated with alprostadil? A. Erectile dysfunction due to neurogenic causes B. Maintaining patency of the ductus arteriosus in neonates with congenital heart defects C. Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn (PPHN) D. Vasodilation in systemic and pulmonary vessels E. Congenital heart defects requiring increased systemic blood flow

C. Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn (PPHN)

Which of the following statements accurately describe the metabolism of paracetamol through the oxidation pathway? i. Oxidation is mediated by the enzyme CYP1A2. ii. Oxidation leads to the formation of the toxic metabolite NAPQI. iii. NAPQI is detoxified by conjugation with glutathione. iv. NAPQI is ultimately converted to a mercapturic acid derivative. A. i and ii B. ii and iii C. i, ii, iii, and iv D. iii and iv E. ii and iv

C. i, ii, iii, and iv

Which of the following functions are associated with COX-1 and COX-2? i. COX-1 is involved in cytoprotection and vasodilation. ii. COX-2 is involved in the synthesis of pro-inflammatory prostaglandins. iii. COX-1 is an inducible enzyme. iv. COX-2 is involved in the synthesis of PGI2 and PGE2 in endothelial cells. A. i and ii B. i and iv C. i, ii, and iv D. ii and iv E. All of the above

C. i, ii, and iv

Latanoprost is used to treat which of the following conditions except: A. Open-angle glaucoma B. Ocular hypertension C. Cataract D. Elevated intraocular pressure E. None of the above

C. Cataract

Latanoprost mimics which prostaglandin analog? A. PGE1 B. PGE2 C. PGF2-alpha D. PGI2 E. TXA2

C. PGF2-alpha

NSAID-induced bronchial asthma is associated with an increase in which of the following? A. Prostaglandins B. Thromboxanes C. Leukotrienes D. Serotonin E. Histamine

C. Leukotrienes

Which of the following NSAIDs is associated with the highest risk of NSAID-induced gastritis? A. Ibuprofen B. Naproxen C. Celecoxib D. Piroxicam E. Meloxicam

D. Piroxicam

Tommy, a 7-year-old boy, was given aspirin for a fever following a viral infection. A few days later, he developed confusion, vomiting, and lethargy. Laboratory tests reveal elevated liver enzymes and hyperammonemia. What is the most likely diagnosis for Tommy's condition? A. Meningitis B. Reye’s syndrome C. Hepatitis D. Encephalitis E. Pneumonia

B. Reye’s syndrome

Selective COX-2 inhibitors are associated with increased risk of all of the following except: A. Cardiovascular events B. Stroke C. Myocardial infarction D. Gastrointestinal bleeding E. None of the above

D. Gastrointestinal bleeding

All of the following are examples of endogenous opioids except: A. Endorphins B. Enkephalins C. Dynorphins D. Hydrocodone E. None of the above

D. Hydrocodone

Which opioid antagonist is used in emergency settings to reverse respiratory depression? A. Naloxone B. Methadone C. Buprenorphine D. Fentanyl E. Hydromorphone

A. Naloxone

All of the following are mechanisms through which naloxone reverses opioid effects except: A. Blocking opioid receptors B. Displacing opioids from receptors C. Preventing opioids from attaching to receptors D. Permanently inactivating opioid receptors E. Restoring normal breathing in an overdose

D. Permanently inactivating opioid receptors

All of the following are characteristics of fentanyl except: A. Acts as a μ-opioid receptor agonist B. Used for severe pain management C. Causes histamine release D. Rapid onset of action E. High potency compared to morphine

C. Causes histamine release

All of the following are types of opioid receptors except: A. Mu (μ) B. Kappa (κ) C. Sigma (σ) D. Delta (δ) E. None of the above

C. Sigma (σ)

What is the primary neurotransmitter involved in activating NMDA and AMPA receptors during pain transmission? A. Glutamate B. Substance P C. CGRP D. Dopamine E. Enkephalins

A. Glutamate

Which synthetic opioid acts as both a μ-agonist and an NMDA receptor antagonist? A. Methadone B. Fentanyl C. Hydromorphone D. Oxymorphone E. Meperidine

A. Methadone

All of the following are side effects of Meperidine except: A. Tachycardia B. Constipation C. Respiratory depression D. Bradycardia E. Nausea

D. Bradycardia

All of the following are mechanisms of action of naloxone except: A. Displaces opioids from receptors B. Blocks opioid receptor activity C. Prevents opioids from reattaching to receptors D. Enhances opioid-induced euphoria E. Reverses respiratory depression

D. Enhances opioid-induced euphoria

Which of the following are uses of intravenous corticosteroids in asthma management? i. Prevention or treatment of late asthmatic phase ii. Management of Status asthmaticus iii. Long-term maintenance therapy iv. Acute relief of bronchospasm A. i and ii B. ii and iii C. i, ii, and iv D. ii and iv E. All of the above

A. i and ii

Mr. Johnson, a 55-year-old man with severe asthma, is admitted to the hospital with an acute exacerbation. He is started on intravenous corticosteroid to reduce airway inflammation. Which medication is Mr. Johnson most likely receiving for the treatment of his severe asthma exacerbation? A. Methylprednisolone B. Prednisone C. Fluticasone D. Budesonide E. Salmeterol

A. Methylprednisolone

Which of the following drugs are classified as inhaled corticosteroids (ICS)? i. Beclomethasone ii. Budesonide iii. Fluticasone iv. Prednisone A. i and ii B. ii and iii C. i, ii, and iii D. ii and iv E. All of the above

C. i, ii, and iii

Which of the following are common side effects of inhaled corticosteroids? i. Oral candidiasis ii. Hoarseness iii. Throat irritation iv. Hyperglycemia A. i and ii B. ii and iii C. i, ii, and iii D. ii and iv E. All of the above

C. i, ii, and iii

Which of the following side effects are associated with long-term use of systemic glucocorticoids? i. Osteoporosis ii. Hypertension iii. Hyperglycemia iv. Increased risk of infections A. i and ii B. ii and iii C. i, ii, and iii D. ii and iv E. All of the above

E. All of the above

Which of the following is a common side effect of inhaled corticosteroids? A. Oral candidiasis B. Hyperglycemia C. Hypertension D. Bradycardia E. Hypoglycemia

A. Oral candidiasis

Mr. Brown, a 50-year-old man diagnosed with allergic rhinitis, experiences significant relief from nasal congestion, sneezing, and overall allergy symptoms after starting a new medication prescribed by his doctor. Which type of medication is Mr. Brown most likely using? A. Montelukast B. Fluticasone C. Salmeterol D. Albuterol E. Cromolyn sodium

B. Fluticasone

Mr. Brown, a 50-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), is prescribed a medication as part of his maintenance therapy. He reports fewer exacerbations and improved overall respiratory function. Which type of medication is Mr. Brown most likely using, and what effect is it having on his condition? A. Cromolyn sodium; reduction in airway inflammation and fewer exacerbations B. Tiotropium; improved lung function and reduced symptoms C. Salmeterol; relief of acute bronchospasm D. Fluticasone; reduction in airway inflammation E. Salbutamol; relief of acute bronchospasm

B. Tiotropium; improved lung function and reduced symptoms

Which of the following drugs is classified as a mast cell stabilizer used in the treatment of asthma and COPD? A. Cromolyn sodium B. Montelukast C. Fluticasone D. Albuterol E. Tiotropium

A. Cromolyn sodium

Mechanisms associated with the action of mast cell stabilizers in asthma and COPD management include all of the following except: A. Inhibition of mast cell degranulation B. Prevention of histamine release C. Reduction of airway inflammation D. Bronchodilation E. Inhibition of leukotriene synthesis

D. Bronchodilation

Which of the following drugs are classified as cholinergic antagonists used in the treatment of asthma and COPD? i. Ipratropium ii. Tiotropium iii. Glycopyrrolate iv. Salmeterol A. i and ii B. ii and iii C. i, ii, and iii D. i and iii E. All of the above

C. i, ii, and iii

Which of the following mechanisms are associated with the action of cholinergic antagonists in asthma and COPD management? i. Inhibition of muscarinic receptors ii. Bronchodilation iii. Reduction of mucus secretion iv. Suppression of inflammation A. i and ii B. ii and iii C. i, ii, and iii D. ii and iv E. All of the above

C. i, ii, and iii

All of the following drugs are classified as methylxanthines used in the treatment of asthma and COPD except: A. Theophylline B. Aminophylline C. Doxofylline D. Pentoxifylline E. Aclidinium

E. Aclidinium

Methylxanthines are used as: i. Alternative relievers for severe asthma ii. Primary treatment for COPD iii. Alternative controllers for persistent asthma iv. First-line treatment for acute bronchitis A. i and ii B. ii and iii C. i and iii D. ii and iv E. All of the above

C. i and iii

The mechanism of action of Methylxanthines includes: i. Phosphodiesterase inhibition ii. Decreasing cAMP levels iii. Increasing cAMP levels iv. Inhibiting phospholipase A2 A. i and ii B. i and iii C. ii and iii D. ii and iv E. All of the above

B. i and iii

Theophylline, a medication used in respiratory conditions, is characterized by which of the following properties? i. Exhibits a narrow therapeutic index, necessitating precise dosing to avoid toxicity. ii. Possesses a wide therapeutic index, allowing for more flexibility in dosing without significant risk of adverse effects. iii. Produces central nervous system stimulant effects, which can lead to increased alertness and, in high doses, seizures. iv. Displays cardiac stimulant effects, potentially causing increased heart rate and enhancing cardiac output. A. i and ii B. i, iii, and iv C. ii, iii, and iv D. ii and iv E. All of the above

B. i, iii, and iv

A 40-year-old patient presents with confusion, agitation, and seizures after taking a medication for asthma. The attending physician suspects a drug-related side effect. Which medication could be responsible, and what are its side effects? A. Theophylline; CNS stimulant effects such as confusion, agitation, and seizures B. Salmeterol; tremors and tachycardia C. Montelukast; mood changes and depression D. Ipratropium; dry mouth and blurred vision E. Prednisone; weight gain and hyperglycemia

A. Theophylline; CNS stimulant effects such as confusion, agitation, and seizures

Which signaling molecule regulates energy balance and reduces appetite? A. Leptin B. Ghrelin C. Insulin D. Glucagon E. Melatonin

A. Leptin

What class of drug does Orlistat belong to? A. Gastrointestinal lipase inhibitor B. GLP-1 receptor agonist C. Sympathomimetic amine D. Melanocortin receptor agonist E. GIP receptor agonist

A. Gastrointestinal lipase inhibitor

What is the mechanism of action of Orlistat? A. Inhibits pancreatic lipase to reduce fat absorption B. Blocks norepinephrine reuptake to suppress appetite C. Enhances insulin secretion in response to meals D. Activates MC4R to regulate energy balance E. Delays gastric emptying to prolong fullness

A. Inhibits pancreatic lipase to reduce fat absorption

Which drug enhances norepinephrine levels to suppress appetite? A. Phentermine B. Orlistat C. Liraglutide D. Semaglutide E. Setmelanotide

A. Phentermine

What is the primary function of Topiramate in Phentermine-Topiramate? A. Enhances GABA activity and modulates glutamate B. Stimulates norepinephrine release C. Inhibits pancreatic lipase D. Binds to MC4R to suppress hunger E. Slows gastric emptying

A. Enhances GABA activity and modulates glutamate

Which drug combination reduces the rewarding effects of food and suppresses appetite? A. Naltrexone-Bupropion B. Phentermine-Topiramate C. Liraglutide-Semaglutide D. Orlistat-Tirzepatide E. Setmelanotide-Bupropion

A. Naltrexone-Bupropion

What is the primary purpose of GLP-1 receptor agonists like Liraglutide? A. Stimulate insulin secretion and enhance satiety signaling B. Block norepinephrine release in the hypothalamus C. Increase protein oxidation D. Reduce triglyceride breakdown E. Promote glucagon secretion

A. Stimulate insulin secretion and enhance satiety signaling

Which drug offers dual agonism of GLP-1 and GIP receptors? A. Tirzepatide B. Orlistat C. Naltrexone D. Phentermine E. Setmelanotide

A. Tirzepatide

Which hormone is released during fasting and stimulates hunger? A. Ghrelin B. Leptin C. Insulin D. Glucagon E. Cortisol

A. Ghrelin

What is the primary therapeutic purpose of Semaglutide? A. Weight loss and glycemic control B. Reduction of norepinephrine reuptake C. Activation of melanocortin receptors D. Blocking pancreatic lipase activity E. Promoting ghrelin secretion

A. Weight loss and glycemic control

Which of the following statements about clonidine rebound hypertension are true? I. Clonidine rebound hypertension occurs when clonidine is abruptly withdrawn. ii. Symptoms of rebound hypertension include a sudden increase in blood pressure. iii. Clonidine rebound hypertension can be managed by reinstituting the missed dose of clonidine right away. iv. Rebound hypertension is commonly caused by an overdose of clonidine. Options: A. i and ii B. ii and iii C. i, ii, and iii D. i, ii, and iv E. ii, iii, and iv

C. i, ii, and iii

Which of the following are potential benefits of using partial agonist beta blockers? I. They can reduce the risk of bradycardia compared to full antagonists. ii. They provide some level of beta receptor activation at rest. iii. They completely inhibit beta receptor activity during exercise. iv. They may have a lower risk of inducing bronchoconstriction in patients with asthma. Options: A. i and ii B. ii and iii C. i, ii, and iv D. i, ii, iii, and iv E. ii, ill, and iv

C. i, ii, and iv

Sarah, a 35-year-old woman, has been struggling with depression and is prescribed imipramine. She mentions that her young daughter, Emily, has also started experiencing bed-wetting at night. Could imipramine be a potential treatment option for Emily's bed-wetting? Why or why not? A. Yes, because imipramine is effective in treating enuresis (bed-wetting) in children. B. No, because imipramine is only used for adults. C. Yes, but only if Emily also has symptoms of depression. D. No, because imipramine is not indicated for children. E. Yes, because imipramine is a muscle relaxant.

A. Yes, because imipramine is effective in treating enuresis (bed-wetting) in children.

Which of the following neurotransmitters are affected by tricyclic antidepressants (TCA)? (Select one) A. Dopamine B. Serotonin C. Norepinephrine D. Both B and C E. All of the above

D. Both B and C

ACE inhibitors can lead to an increase in bradykinin levels, causing which of the following effects? i. Enhanced vasodilation ii. Hyperkalemia iii. Cough iv. Angioedema

ALL TRUE

What is a common electrolyte disturbance caused by ACE inhibitors and ARBs? A. Hypernatremia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypokalemia E. Hypercalcemia

B. Hyperkalemia

Which of the following drugs belong to the benzothiazepine class of calcium channel blockers? A. Amlodipine B. Diltiazem C. Verapamil D. Both B and C E. None of the above

B. Diltiazem

Mr. Johnson, a 55-year-old man, is prescribed cimetidine for the treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). He is also taking ketoconazole for a fungal infection. After starting cimetidine, he notices that his fungal infection is not improving. Which interaction is most likely responsible for the reduced efficacy of ketoconazole in Mr. Johnson's case? A. Reduced absorption of ketoconazole due to increased gastric pH B. Increased metabolism of ketoconazole due to enzyme induction C. Competitive inhibition at the receptor site D. Reduced absorption of ketoconazole due to decreased gastric pH E. Increased metabolism of ketoconazole due to enzyme inhibition

A. Reduced absorption of ketoconazole due to increased gastric pH

Adverse effects that can result from prolonged acid suppression with PPls and H2 antagonists include all of the following except: A. Low vitamin B12 levels B. Reduced intrinsic factor activity C. Malabsorption of nutrients D. Increased risk of gastrointestinal infections E. Hyperkalemia

E. Hyperkalemia

Which of the following mechanisms contribute to the development of peptic ulcer disease? i. Increased gastric acid secretion ii. Decreased mucosal defense mechanisms ili. Delayed gastric emptying iv. Hypersecretion of bicarbonate A. i and ii B. i and iii C.i, ii, and iii D. ii and iv E. All of the above

A. i and ii

Which of the following medications is a common cause of peptic ulcer disease? A. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) B. Antihistamines C. Beta-blockers D. Diuretics E. Antidepressants

A. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

Which of the following is a noninvasive method to diagnose H. pylori infection? A. Urea breath test B. Rapid urease test C. Histology D. Culture E. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

A. Urea breath test

Case Study: Ms. Smith, a 60-year-old woman with a confirmed H. pylori infection, is allergic to penicillin. She is prescribed Triple Therapy. Which components are included in Ms. Smith's Triple Therapy regimen? A. Proton pump inhibitor (PPI), Amoxicillin, and Clarithromycin B. Beta-blocker, Amoxicillin, and Ciprofloxacin C. Diuretic, Metronidazole, and Azithromycin D. Proton pump inhibitor (PPI), Metronidazole, and Clarithromycin E. Antihistamine, Tetracycline, and Ciprofloxacin

D. Proton pump inhibitor (PPI), Metronidazole, and Clarithromycin

Mr. Brown, a 50-year-old man with a confirmed H. pylori infection resistant to clarithromycin, experiences relief from gastric symptoms after starting quadruple therapy. Which components are included in Mr. Brown's quadruple therapy regimen? A. Antihistamine, Tetracycline, and Ciprofloxacin B. Beta-blocker, Amoxicillin, and Ciprofloxacin C. Diuretic, Metronidazole, and Azithromycin D. Calcium channel blocker, Clarithromycin, and Vancomycin E. Bismuth Subsalicylate, Metronidazole, Tetracycline, and a Proton Pump Inhibitor (PPI)

E. Bismuth Subsalicylate, Metronidazole, Tetracycline, and a Proton Pump Inhibitor (PPI)

Which of the following are key steps involved in the activation of the proton pump (H+/K+ ATPase) in gastric parietal cells? i. Stimulation by gastrin Il. Stimulation by histamine iii. Activation by acetylcholine iv. Direct activation by proton pump inhibitors (PP|s) A. i and ii B. ii and iii C. i, ii, and iii D. Il and iv E. All of the above

C. i, ii, and iii

Mr. Brown, a 50-year-old man with a history of peptic ulcer disease, is taking a medication that blocks the H2 (histamine-2) receptors on gastric parietal cells to reduce gastric acid secretion. Which of the following medications is Mr. Brown most likely taking? A. Misoprostol B. Pantoprazole C. Sodium Bicarbonate D. Ranitidine E. Metoclopramide

D. Ranitidine

Gq coupled receptors are associated with all of the following signaling events, except: A. Activation of phospholipase C B. Increase in intracellular calcium levels through IP3 C.Inhibition of adenylyl cyclase D. Production of diacy|glycerol (DAG) E. None of the above

C.Inhibition of adenylyl cyclase

Which of the following statements about physiologic antagonism is correct, except: A. Physiologic antagonism involves two drugs acting on different receptors to produce opposing effects. B. Physiologic antagonism results in a neutralization of the effects of both drugs. C. Physiologic antagonism requires the drugs to have similar chemical structures. D. Physiologic antagonism can occur with drugs that have different mechanisms of action. E. None of the above

C. Physiologic antagonism requires the drugs to have similar chemical structures.

What ion is primarily associated with the GABAa receptor? A. Sodium ion (Na+) B. Potassium ion (K+) C. Chloride ion (CI-) D. Calcium ion (Ca2+) E. Magnesium ion (Mg2+)

D. Calcium ion (Ca2+)

What is the primary mechanism of action of a competitive antagonist? A. Binding irreversibly to the receptor B. Binding to a different site than the agonist C. Competing with the agonist for the same receptor binding site D. Blocking the receptor without competing with the agonist E. Increasing the degradation of the agonist(Mg2+)

C. Competing with the agonist for the same receptor binding site

What is a potential risk associated with the use of partial beta-blockers in patients undergoing hypoglycemic therapy? A. Exacerbation of hypoglycemic unawareness due to blunted adrenergic symptoms B. Increased insulin sensitivity leading to severe hyperglycemia C. Suppression of glucagon secretion, causing hyperglycemic episodes D. Elevated risk of lactic acidosis due to impaired mitochondrial function E. Enhanced weight gain through inhibition of lipolysis

A. Exacerbation of hypoglycemic unawareness due to blunted adrenergic symptoms

All of the following are mechanisms of action for indirect-acting sympathomimetic agonists, except: A. Increasing the release of stored catecholamines. B. Inhibiting the reuptake of catecholamines. C. Blocking the action of monoamine oxidase. D. Binding to adrenergic receptors. E. Enhancing the effects of endogenous neurotransmitters.

D. Binding to adrenergic receptors.

All of the following are D2 receptor agonists used in the treatment of Parkinson's disease, except: A. Bromocriptine B. Pergolide C. Ropinirole D. Haloperidol E. Pramipexole

D. Haloperidol

What active metabolite is methyldopa converted into within the central nervous system (CNS)? A. Norepinephrine B. Dopamine C. Alpha-Methyl norepinephrine D. Epinephrine E. Serotonin

C. Alpha-Methyl norepinephrine

What is the primary effect of norepinephrine on blood vessels? A. Vasodilation B. Vasoconstriction C. Increased permeability D. Reduced blood flow E. Inhibition of vessel contraction

B. Vasoconstriction

What is the primary function of presynaptic alpha-2 receptors in the central nervous system (CNS)? A. Increase norepinephrine release B. Inhibit norepinephrine release C. Stimulate dopamine release D. Block acetylcholine release E. Enhance serotonin release

B. Inhibit norepinephrine release

Mr. Johnson, a 62-year-old man with COPD, has been managing his hypertension with a cardioselective beta blocker. During a routine check-up, his physician asks about any new respiratory symptoms. Mr. Johnson reports no issues. Why might Mr. Johnson's physician has chosen a cardioselective beta blocker for his treatment? A. Cardioselective beta blockers have no effect on respiratory function. B. Cardioselective beta blockers are less likely to cause bronchospasm compared to non-selective beta blockers. C. Cardioselective beta blockers are more effective in treating hypertension than non-selective beta blockers. D. Cardioselective beta blockers increase heart rate. E. Cardioselective beta blockers reduce the risk of weight gain.

B. Cardioselective beta blockers are less likely to cause bronchospasm compared to non-selective beta blockers.

What is the primary mechanism of action of tocolytics like ritodrine, isoxsuprine, and terbutaline in treating preterm labor? A. Inhibiting the synthesis of prostaglandins B. Blocking calcium channels in the uterus C. Activating beta-2 adrenergic receptors in uterine smooth muscle D. Increasing the release of oxytocin E. Reducing the levels of progesterone

C. Activating beta-2 adrenergic receptors in uterine smooth muscle

What is the primary function of tyrosine kinase activity in cell signaling? A. To bind to extracellular ligands B. To catalyze the transfer of phosphate groups to tyrosine residues on target proteins C. To inhibit protein synthesis D. To regulate ion channel activity E. To degrade cellular waste products

B. To catalyze the transfer of phosphate groups to tyrosine residues on target proteins

Chlorpromazine is known to have which of the following effects? A. Hyperprolactinemia B. Decreased seizure threshold C. Weight loss D. Insomnia E. Tachycardia

B. Decreased seizure threshold

What does a lower EC50 value indicate about a drug's potency? A. Lower potency B. Higher potency C. No effect on potency D. Slower onset of action E. Greater therapeutic index

B. Higher potency

PRACTICE QUESTIONS Flashcards

(130 cards)