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Exam Review Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the 6 reasons for using preanesthetic medications?

A
  • Calm or sedate an excited, frightened, or vicious animal
  • Minimize adverse effects of concurrently administered drugs
  • Reduce required dose of administered agents
  • Produce smoother anesthetic inductions and recoveries
  • Decrease pain and discomfort before, during and after surgery
  • Produce muscle relaxation

None

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2
Q

What is the primary neurotransmitter for anticholinergics?

A

Acetylcholine

None

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3
Q

What effects do anticholinergics have on the cardiovascular system?

A
  • Prevent bradycardia
  • Causes tachycardia
  • Reduction of secretions (resp/GI/salivary)
  • Mydriasis (more common in cats)
  • Bronchodilation (risk of hypoxemia)

None

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4
Q

List the side effects of anticholinergics.

A
  • Arrhythmias (especially when giving IV)
  • AV blocks and sinus tachycardia
  • Thickening of secretions (resp/salivary)
  • Inhibition of intestinal peristalsis in horses

None

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5
Q

What is the onset time and duration of atropine when given IV?

A

Onset within 1 minute; lasts for 1 hour

None

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6
Q

What is the peak effect time for glycopyrrolate when given IM?

A

30-45 minutes

None

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7
Q

True or False: Acepromazine has a reversal agent.

A

False

None

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8
Q

What are the general risks associated with tranquilizers and sedatives?

A
  • Don’t leave patient unattended
  • Brachycephalic dogs may experience respiratory distress
  • Unusual behavior can include aggression

None

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9
Q

What are the effects of benzodiazepines on the CNS?

A
  • Anxiety
  • Calming
  • Significant sedation when combined with an opioid

None

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10
Q

What is the primary use of alpha 2 agonists?

A

Sedation, mild analgesia, and muscle relaxation

None

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11
Q

What are the adverse effects of alpha 2 agonists?

A
  • Behavior changes (agitation, aggression)
  • High doses may cause ataxia and falling
  • Profound cardiovascular depression
  • Respiratory effects (dyspnea)
  • Increased urination
  • GI effects (gas, colic)

None

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12
Q

What type of drugs are opioids classified as?

A
  • Agonists (e.g., morphine, hydromorphone)
  • Partial agonists (e.g., buprenorphine)
  • Agonist-antagonists (e.g., butorphanol)

None

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13
Q

What is neuroleptanalgesia?

A

A combination of an opioid and a tranquilizer for profound sedation and analgesia

Examples include hydromorphone and acepromazine.

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14
Q

What are the two classifications of barbiturates based on duration of action?

A
  • Ultra short
  • Short
  • Intermediate
  • Long acting

Examples include thiopental (ultra short) and phenobarbital (long acting).

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15
Q

What is the effect of propofol?

A
  • Decreases respiratory rate
  • Causes transient hypotension
  • Provides muscle relaxation

None

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16
Q

What is the storage requirement for propofol?

A

Refrigerate unused portions and discard within 24 hours

Contains egg, soybean oil, and glycerol.

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17
Q

What is a dissociative anesthetic?

A

A drug that induces a trance-like state, causing immobility and unawareness of surroundings

Examples include ketamine and tiletamine.

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18
Q

What are the effects of ketamine on the CNS?

A
  • Cataleptoid state
  • No response to stimuli
  • Muscle rigidity

None

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19
Q

What is the primary use of guaifenesin?

A

Muscle relaxation in large animals

Not an anesthetic or analgesic.

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20
Q

What type of drug is Guaifenesin?

A

Non-controlled muscle relaxant used in large animals

It is not an anesthetic or analgesic and is given IV in a dextrose solution.

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21
Q

What is the function of inhalation anesthetic agents?

A

Require the use of a vaporizer to convert liquid to gas for administration

Agents include Isoflurane, Sevoflurane, Halothane, and Methoxyflurane.

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22
Q

Define vapor pressure in the context of inhalation anesthetics.

A

Amount of pressure exerted by a gas form of a substance when gas and liquid states are equal

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23
Q

What does the blood gas partition coefficient indicate?

A

How soluble the drug is in blood vs alveolar gas, affecting induction and recovery speed

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24
Q

What is MAC in anesthesiology?

A

Lowest concentration at which 50% of patients show no response to a painful stimulus

It measures the potency of anesthetic agents.

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25
What is the MAC value for light anesthesia?
1 x MAC
26
What is the MAC value for moderate anesthesia?
1.5 x MAC
27
What is the MAC value for deep anesthesia?
2 x MAC
28
What is a characteristic of Isoflurane?
Extremely low blood gas partition coefficient (1.46) ## Footnote It allows for rapid induction and better control of depth.
29
What are the CNS effects of Isoflurane?
Dose-related, reversible depression and hypothermia
30
What are the adverse cardiovascular effects of Isoflurane?
Hypotension and decreased tissue perfusion
31
What is Sevoflurane?
2nd most common inhalant anesthetic with similar characteristics to Isoflurane ## Footnote It is less potent than Isoflurane.
32
What is Doxapram used for?
Stimulating respirations and speeding recovery in emergencies ## Footnote Commonly used in neonates after dystocia or c-section.
33
What is an advantage of local anesthesia?
Low toxicity ## Footnote Other advantages include low cost, excellent pain control, and minimal recovery time.
34
What is a disadvantage of local anesthesia?
Potential for self-inflicted injury
35
What is EMLA cream?
Contains lidocaine and prilocaine used for topical anesthesia ## Footnote Desensitizes intact skin when coated and covered with dressing.
36
What is the method of infiltration anesthesia?
Injection of local anesthetic in proximity to a nerve to desensitize a specific area
37
What is regional anesthesia?
Injection into major nerve plexus or proximity to spinal cord to block large areas
38
What is epidural anesthesia used for?
Blocking sensation and motor control of hind end ## Footnote Common applications include tail amputation and perianal surgery.
39
What are the types of ventilation?
Controlled ventilation, assisted ventilation, positive pressure ventilation (PPV)
40
What is tidal volume?
Total amount of air that passes in or out of the lungs in a single breath
41
What does respiratory minute volume measure?
Amount of air moving in and out of the lungs in a minute ## Footnote Calculated as average tidal volume x respiratory rate.
42
What is hypercarbia?
Condition where CO2 is not being eliminated as rapidly as normal, leading to respiratory acidosis
43
What is atelectasis?
Partial collapse of alveoli in some lung sections due to insufficient expansion
44
What are some patients at increased risk under anesthesia?
* Prolonged anesthesia (>90 minutes) * Obese animals * Use of neuromuscular blocking agents * Preexisting lung disease * Recent head trauma * Surgery on chest or diaphragm * Species such as horses and adult ruminants
45
What is manual ventilation commonly referred to as?
Bagging
46
What is the purpose of neuromuscular blocking agents?
Muscle paralyzing agents that work at the neuromuscular junction ## Footnote They should never be given to conscious animals.
47
What are the four steps of the pain pathway?
* Transduction * Transmission * Modulation * Perception
48
What is primary hyperalgesia?
Area close to the site of tissue injury becomes painful to even normal stimulus
49
What is windup in terms of pain perception?
Central nervous hypersensitivity where neurons in the spinal cord are sensitized
50
What are some clinical signs of pain?
* Hypertension * Tachycardia * Pale mucosa * Tachypnea * Changes in behavior * Changes in gait * Vocalization
51
What is multimodal therapy in pain management?
Use of several different drugs that target different receptors to decrease side effects
52
What are opioids used for in pain management?
Inhibition of perception in the brain and central sensitization in the spinal cord
53
What is morphine commonly used for?
Part of injectable premeds with tranquilizer to control pain
54
What is the risk associated with giving fentanyl?
Profound sedation, bradycardia, and respiratory depression
55
What is the main advantage of butorphanol?
Good cough suppressant and less respiratory depression compared to other opioids
56
What is buprenorphine?
Partial mu agonist opioid used for analgesia ## Footnote It has a longer duration and lower risk of side effects compared to full agonists.
57
What are salivary secretions primarily used for?
Not great as sole analgesic, used mostly in premed ## Footnote Salivary secretions have limited effectiveness as an analgesic.
58
What type of drug is BUTORPHANOL?
Mixed agonist-antagonist ## Footnote BUTORPHANOL is known for its cough suppressant properties and is often used as a premed.
59
What is the duration of action for BUTORPHANOL?
Short (1 hour) ## Footnote BUTORPHANOL has a relatively short duration compared to other analgesics.
60
List some common applications of BUTORPHANOL.
* Post-operative analgesia for mild to moderate visceral pain * Can be given IV, IM, SQ or PO * Less sedation, dysphoria, and respiratory depression * Less effect on CVS * Rare panting, vomiting, and hypotension ## Footnote BUTORPHANOL is versatile in administration and usage.
61
What is BUPRENORPHINE classified as?
Partial mu agonist ## Footnote BUPRENORPHINE provides some analgesia but less than pure agonists.
62
What is the duration of action for BUPRENORPHINE?
6-12 hours ## Footnote BUPRENORPHINE has a longer duration compared to many other analgesics.
63
What are some NSAIDs mentioned?
* Aspirin * Rimadyl * Deramax * Ketoprofen * Onsior * Metacam ## Footnote These NSAIDs are effective for musculoskeletal pain and have various modes of action.
64
What is the mode of action for NSAIDs?
Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis ## Footnote Prostaglandins are mediators of pain and inflammation.
65
What are the benefits of NSAIDs?
* Effective analgesia for musculoskeletal pain * Onset in 30-60 min * Potent anti-inflammatory effects * Anti-pyretic in cats ## Footnote NSAIDs are commonly used for pain management and inflammation.
66
What are the disadvantages of NSAIDs?
* Not suitable for unhealthy animals * Can cause GI ulcerations * Potential for toxicity * Caution in dehydrated or hypotensive patients * Do NOT use in certain conditions (e.g., liver/renal disease) ## Footnote NSAIDs have specific contraindications that must be considered.
67
What is multimodal therapy in pain management?
Using more than one type of analgesic to relieve pain ## Footnote This approach targets different mechanisms of pain for enhanced effect.
68
What is an example of multimodal therapy?
MLK: Morphine/Lidocaine/Ketamine ## Footnote This combination can be administered as an IV infusion during and after surgery.
69
What does the '5 freedoms' refer to in animal care?
* Freedom from hunger and thirst * Freedom from discomfort * Freedom from disease * Freedom from injury * Freedom from pain ## Footnote These freedoms are essential for ensuring animal welfare.
70
What is TIVA in veterinary anesthesia?
Total intravenous anesthesia ## Footnote TIVA is used for short procedures on healthy patients and involves specific drug protocols.
71
What is a common anesthetic protocol example for horses?
* Premed with xylazine and opioid IM or IV * Induction with ketamine and diazepam IV * Maintenance on isoflurane or Triple drip ## Footnote This protocol outlines a standard approach to equine anesthesia.
72
Why is anesthetizing horses challenging?
* Anesthetic depth changes quickly * Complications are more common * Need for an arterial line for procedures >1 hour * Recovery requires a padded room ## Footnote Horses present unique challenges in anesthesia due to their size and physiology.
73
What is hypoventilation in the context of horse anesthesia?
Common occurrence that may require a ventilator ## Footnote Hypoventilation can lead to serious complications during anesthesia.
74
Differentiate between hypoxemia and hypoxia.
* Hypoxemia: Decrease in O2 partial pressure in blood * Hypoxia: Reduced level of tissue O2 ## Footnote Understanding these terms is crucial for diagnosing and managing respiratory issues.
75
What is porcine stress syndrome?
Also known as malignant hyperthermia ## Footnote This condition is associated with inhalant anesthetics and has specific signs and treatments.

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