Examen II Flashcards
(135 cards)
1
Q
The holistic, integrated, and results and goal-oriented process of planning, recruiting, selecting, developing, managing, and compensating employees defines which of the following?
A.
Talent management
B.
Job selection
C.
Position analysis
D.
Job enlargement
E.
Process chart
A
Talent management
2
Q
Employers often use which of the following to automate their processes for recruiting, selecting, developing, and retaining a high-quality, diverse workforce of employees?
Part 1
A.
Performance appraisal
B.
Recruiting
C.
Job analysis
D.
Staffing
E.
Talent management software
A
E. Talent management software
3
Q
Which of the following shows the title of each supervisor’s position and, by means of connecting lines, who is accountable to whom, who has authority for each area, and who is expected to communicate with whom?
A.
Organization chart
B.
Job specification
C.
Job analysis
D.
Job requirements matrix
E.
Process chart
A
A. Organization chart
4
Q
In job analysis, which of the following describes the physical working conditions, work schedule, incentives, and the number of people with whom the employee would normally interact with?
A.
Responsibilities and duties
B.
Job summary
C.
Job context
D.
Performance standards
E.
Working conditions
A
C. Job context
5
Q
The open-ended question “How would you describe your job?” would most likely be used in which type of job analysis method?
A.
Observation
B.
Participant diary
C.
Structured interview
D.
Unstructured interview
E.
Questionnaire
A
D. Unstructured interview
6
Q
Which job analysis technique would work best when the job consists mainly of physical activities?
A.
Interviews
B.
Questionnaires
C.
Participant diaries
D.
Participant logs
E.
Observation
A
E. Observation
Direct observation is especially useful for jobs that consist mainly of observable physical activities such as assembly-line workers and accounting clerks. Observation is usually not appropriate for attorneys, engineers, or other jobs that entail a great deal of mental activity.
7
Q
A brief description of the job would most likely be found in which section of the job description?
A.
Working conditions
B.
Standards of performance
C.
Job summary
D.
Responsibilities and duties
E.
Job identification
A
C. Job Summary
The job summary section of the job description summarizes the essence of the job, including only its major functions or activities.
8
Q
Talent management focuses on recruiting employees and planning, yet they do not work on compensation of employees.
A
False
Talent management integrates planning, recruiting, developing, managing, and compensating employees
9
Q
According to the text, which of the following is the one of the most important things for a company to get right in job postings so as to not unintentionally discourage some people from applying?
A.
Job identification
B.
Responsibilities and duties
C.
Job specification
D.
Standards of performance
E.
Working conditions
A
C. Job specification
The job specification lays out the job’s human requirements, in terms of required training and skill levels, for instance. In so doing it becomes a road map for the kinds of people the employer would consider for employment. The problem is that the job specificationlong dashand especially the human needs you identify, and the words used to describe themlong dashcan unintentionally discourage some people from applying.
10
Q
Amazing Industries has implemented a system that tracks applicants, performance, and compensation. Which of the following best describes Amazing Industries’ system?
A.
Talent management software
B.
Business process reengineering
C.
Job analysis
D.
Performance appraisal
E.
Workflow analysis
A
a. Talent management software
Many employers use talent management software systems to coordinate their talent-related activities including recruiting, employee performance management, and compensation management.
11
Q
Which is the first step in the talent management process?
Part 1
A.
Build a pool of job applicants.
B.
Appraise employees to assess how they are doing.
C.
Decide what positions to fill.
D.
Compensate employees.
E.
Train employees.
A
c. Decide what positions to fill.
The first step in the talent management process should be to decide what positions to fill through job analysis, personnel planning, and forecasting.
12
Q
Managers who take a talent management approach do which of the following?
Part 1
A.
Actively recruit, select, and motivate employees.
B.
Recruit employees and then develop training goals.
C.
Keep recruiting and training efforts separate.
D.
Develop separate profiles of required skills, knowledge, and behaviors for selection, training, appraisal, and compensation decisions.
E.
Separate recruiting and training goals from corporate goals.
A
a. Actively recruit, select, and motivate employees.
Talent management is the integrated and results-oriented process of recruiting, selecting, developing, motivating, and retain-ing employees
13
Q
Which of the following best describes the difference between the stepwise view of HR activities and the talent management approach to HR activites?
A.
The stepwise view of HR activities view the HR activities as steps; the talent management approach views HR activities not as steps but as part of a coordinated talent management effort.
B.
The stepwise view of HR activities result in employees with better technical skills; the talent management approach results in employees with better leadership skills.
C.
The stepwise view of HR activities result in employees with better leadership skills; the talent management approach results in employees with better technical skills.
D.
The stepwise view of HR activities view the steps in the staffing process as interrelated and integrated; the talent management approach views the steps as discrete and linear.
E.
The stepwise view of HR activities yield a larger pool of applicants; the talent management approach yields a higher quality pool of applicants.
A
a. The stepwise view of HR activities view the HR activities as steps; the talent management approach views HR activities not as steps but as part of a coordinated talent management effort.
Traditional approaches view the HR activities as steps; the talent management approach views HR activities not as steps but as part of a coordinated talent management effort.
14
Q
Which of the following occurs when employees are assigned additional activities at the same level of responsibility?
A.
Job rotation
B.
Job enrichment
C.
Job elimination
D.
Business process reengineering
E.
Job enlargement
A
e. Job enlargement
Job enlargement means assigning workers additional activities at the same level of responsibility.
15
Q
Which of the following shows the title of each supervisor’s position and, by means of connecting lines, who is accountable to whom, who has authority for each area, and who is expected to communicate with whom?
A.
Organization chart
B.
Job analysis
C.
Job specification
D.
Job requirements matrix
E.
Process chart
A
A. Organization chart
The organization chart displays titles, accountability, authority, and desired paths of communication.
16
Q
In job analysis, which of the following describes the physical working conditions, work schedule, incentives, and the number of people with whom the employee would normally interact with?
A.
Working conditions
B.
Job summary
C.
Performance standards
D.
Responsibilities and duties
E.
Job context
A
E. Job context
The job context standards section of the job description lists information about physical working conditions, work schedule, incentives, and the number of people with whom the employee would normally interact with.
17
Q
Most importantly, a job analysis produces the information necessary for writing which of the following?
A.
Job rotation
B.
Task statement
C.
Employee appraisals
D.
Job descriptions
E.
Job enrichment
A
D. job descriptions
A job analysis produces the information necessary for writing job descriptions and job specifications.
18
Q
Renata is working as the assistant in the human resource department while attending school. Until now her duties have been mostly clerical. Renata’s manager would like her to take on some of the recruiting responsibilities such as screening candidates through phone calls and resume reviews. Renata has experienced which of the following?
A.
Job specification
B.
Job enrichment
C.
Job enlargement
D.
Job rotation
E.
Business process reengineering
A
B. Job enrichment
Job enrichment redesigns the job so the worker has more opportunity for responsibility, achievement, growth, and recognition.
19
Q
Molly recently joined the customer service department and began by managing two small accounts. During her performance appraisal, Molly was told she is doing well and will now have three additional accounts to manage. Which of the following has Molly experienced?
A.
Job rotation
B.
Job specification
C.
Business process reengineering
D.
Job enlargement
E.
Job enrichment
A
D. job enlargement
Job enlargement means assigning workers additional activities at the same level of responsibility.
20
Q
On Mondays and Tuesdays Ty works on production line A, on Wednesdays and Thursdays he works on production line B, and on Fridays he works on production line C. Which of the following is Ty experiencing?
A.
Job rotation
B.
Job enrichment
C.
Job specification
D.
Job enlargement
E.
Business process reengineering
A
A. job rotation
Job rotation occurs when workers move at a specific interval from one job to another.
21
Q
Which of the following do managers use to determine whether the way a job relates to other jobs makes sense or whether the job should even exist?
A.
Performance appraisal
B.
Process chart
C.
Workflow analysis
D.
Organization chart
E.
Process reengineering
A
C. Workflow analysis
A workflow analysis shows how work moves from job to job in one identifiable work process (such as processing a mortgage application). It answers questions such as, “Does how this job relates to other jobs make sense?” or “Should this job even exist?”.
22
Q
The open-ended question “How would you describe your job?” would most likely be used in which type of job analysis method?
A.
Observation
B.
Unstructured interview
C.
Structured interview
D.
Participant diary
E.
Questionnaire
A
B. Unstructured interview
An unstructured interview uses questions that are not part of a specific checklist.
23
Q
Which job analysis technique would work best when the job consists mainly of physical activities?
A.
Observation
B.
Interviews
C.
Participant diaries
D.
Questionnaires
E.
Participant logs
A
A. Observation
Direct observation is especially useful for jobs that consist mainly of observable physical activities such as assembly-line workers and accounting clerks. Observation is usually not appropriate for attorneys, engineers, or other jobs that entail a great deal of mental activity.
24
Q
Which of the following is a disadvantage of using interviews to collect job information?
A.
It can occur quickly.
B.
It can reveal activities that occur only occasionally.
C.
It is simple.
D.
An employee might vent frustration.
E.
It could distort information.
A
E. It could distort information
Employees might exaggerate some responsibilities while minimizing others.
25
Fakhir manages a team of 40 administrative associates and needs to quickly gather information on what their job entails. Which method would be best for Fakhir to get the information he needs?
A.
Individual interviews
B.
A participant diary
C.
A questionnaire
D.
A group interview
E.
Observation
D. Group Interview
When a large number of employees are performing similar or identical work, a group interview can be a quick and inexpensive way to gather information.
26
When quantifying the worth of each job in a department for pay purposes, which is the best method of collecting information?
A.
Standard Occupational Classification
B.
Position analysis questionnaires
C.
Participant diaries
D.
Observations
E.
Interviews
B. Position analysis questionnaires
The more quantitative position analysis questionnaire method is the best method for quantifying each job's work for pay purposes.
27
Reactivity is a drawback of which method of collecting job analysis data?
A.
Questionnaires
B.
Interviews
C.
Observation
D.
Participant diaries
E.
Position analysis questionnaires
C. Observation
Reactivity occurs when a worker changes what he or she normally does because someone is watching.
28
A brief description of the job would most likely be found in which section of the job description?
A.
Working conditions
B.
Standards of performance
C.
Job summary
D.
Job identification
E.
Responsibilities and duties
C. Job summary
The job summary section of the job description summarizes the essence of the job, including only its major functions or activities.
29
Which of the following is described in the chapter as "the heart of the job description"?
A.
Working conditions
B.
Job identification
C.
Responsibilities and duties
D.
Standards of performance
E.
Job summary
C. Responsibilities and duties
The responsibilities and duties section of the job description is the heart of the job description. It should present a list of the job's responsibilities and duties.
30
"The administrative assistant answers phones, maintains appointment calendars, prepares and revises documents, and makes travel arrangements" would be found in which section of the job description?
A.
Job summary
B.
Working conditions
C.
Performance standards
D.
Responsibilities and duties
E.
Job identification
A. Job summary
The job summary section of the job description summarizes the essence of the job, including only its major functions or activities.
31
Where a job is located is noted in which section of the job description?
A.
Performance standards
B.
Responsibilities and duties
C.
Job summary
D.
Working conditions
E.
Job identification
E. Job Identification
The job identification section of the job description specifies the name of the job, the Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) status, the immediate supervisor's title, the job location, and the job grade.
32
In which section of the job description would an employee find information on noise levels and hot or cold temperatures in the workplace?
A.
Working conditions
B.
Responsibilities and duties
C.
Job identification
D.
Performance standards
E.
Job summary
A. Working conditions
The working conditions section of the job description lists any unusual, strenuous, or hazardous conditions such as noise level or heat.
33
The expectation "must complete 30 cycles per shift" would be found in which section of the job description?
A.
Working conditions
B.
Responsibilities and duties
C.
Job summary
D.
Performance standards
E.
Job identification
D. Performance standards
The Performance standards section of the job description lists the standards the company expects the employee to achieve for each of the job description's main duties and responsibilities.
34
According to a study by Development Dimensions International, which of the following is a trait that seems to predict the likelihood that a candidate will become an engaged employee?
A.
Years of service
B.
Sensory skills
C.
Previous training
D.
Emotional maturity
E.
Previous job performance
D. Emotional maturity
The traits identified include adaptability, passion for work, emotional maturity, positive disposition, self-advocacy, and achievement orientation.
35
According to the text, which of the following is the one of the most important things for a company to get right in job postings so as to not unintentionally discourage some people from applying?
A.
Job identification
B.
Responsibilities and duties
C.
Working conditions
D.
Standards of performance
E.
Job specification
E. Job specification
The job specification lays out the job's human requirements, in terms of required training and skill levels, for instance. In so doing it becomes a road map for the kinds of people the employer would consider for employment. The problem is that the job specificationlong dashand especially the human needs you identify, and the words used to describe themlong dashcan unintentionally discourage some people from applying.
36
Job specifications for a trained and experienced employee is likely to include which of the following?
A.
Personality
B.
Length of previous service
C.
Physical traits
D.
Interests
E.
Sensory skills
B. Length of previous service
Job specifications for trained and experienced employees tend to focus on factors such as length of previous service, quality of relevant training, and previous job performance.
37
Which of the following best describes a job's main duties, each duty's purpose, and the knowledge and skills someone must have to perform each duty?
A.
Job specifications
B.
Job description
C.
Task statement
D.
Job-requirements matrix
E.
Job analysis
D. Job-requirements matrix
Although most employers use job descriptions and specifications to summarize what their jobs entail, the job-requirements matrix is increasingly popular. The matrix summarizes a job's main duties, as well as each duty's purpose and the knowledge and skills someone must have to do each duty.
38
Which of the following shows managers what type of person they should recruit and what qualities the candidates should be tested for?
A.
Process chart
B.
Organization chart
C.
Job description
D.
Job summary
E.
Job specification
E. Job specification
The job specification summarizes the personal qualities, traits, skills, and background required for getting the job done.
39
Which of the following is NOT a step in creating a job specification based on statistical analysis?
A.
Test candidates.
B.
Select traits that predict performance.
C.
Analyze the relationship between traits and performance.
D.
Analyze the job and decide how to measure job performance.
E.
Observe employees on the job.
E, Observe employees on the job.
This is not one of the steps in creating a job specification based on statistical analysis.
40
The observable and measurable human behaviors that make performance possible are known as _______.
A.
task statements
B.
skill sets
C.
competencies
D.
proficiency levels
E.
observable behaviors
C. competencies
Competencies are observable and measurable human behaviors that make performance possible. To determine what a job's required competencies are, ask, "In order to perform this job competently, what should the employee be able to do?" Competencies are typically skills.
41
Which of the following would NOT be found in the proficiency-level section of a competency statement?
A.
Documentation of changing conditions and impact to risks and preventative action
B.
Description of implications of related internal and external business conditions
C.
Identification of knowledge and experience needed
D.
Description of systems used to monitor risks and report changes
E.
Identification of project risks and dependencies
c. Identification of knowledge and experience needed
This is found in the job profile, not a competency statement.
42
Which of the following is NOT an element of a competency statement?
A.
Proficiency level
B.
Description of observable behaviors
C.
Responsibilities and duties
D.
Competency description
E.
Competency name
C. Responsibilities and duties
Responsibilities and duties are part of the job description. This section lists the standards the company expects the employee to achieve for each of the job description's main duties and responsibilities.
43
Which of the following is NOT a behavioral competency?
A.
Consultation
B.
Business acumen
C.
Critical evaluation
D.
Technical expertise
E.
Ethical practice
D. Technical expertise
Technical expertise is NOT a behavioral competency.
44
The process of deciding what positions the company needs to fill and how to best fill them is known as _______.
A.
workforce planning
B.
succession planning
C.
trend analysis
D.
recruiting
E.
alternative staffing
A. workforce planning
Workforce planning is the process of deciding what positions the firm will have to fill and how to fill them. Its aim is to identify and address the gaps between the employer's workforce today and its projected workforce needs.
45
To build a good employment plan, managers need to use _______.
A.
recruiting yield pyramids
B.
college recruiting
C.
alternative staffing
D.
application service providers
E.
forecasts
E. forecasts
Like any good plans, employment plans are built on forecastslong dashbasic assumptions about the future.
46
Super Semiconductors needs to identify the gaps between its current workforce and what it believes it will need in the future. To do this, Super Semiconductors should perform which of the following?
A.
Recruiting
B.
Alternative staffing
C.
Workforce planning
D.
Succession planning
E.
Scatter plot
C. Workforce planning
Workforce planning is the process of deciding what positions the firm will have to fill and how to fill them. Its aim is to identify and address the gaps between the employer's workforce today and its projected workforce needs.
47
Braxton's departmental goal for the year is to manufacture 10,000 more windows than last year. He knows that each of his seven current employees can build 1,000 windows each year. Braxton should use a _______ to determine how many additional employees he will need to hire to meet the goal.
A.
skills inventory
B.
scatter plot
C.
ratio analysis
D.
recruiting yield pyramid
E.
trend analysis
C. Ratio analysis
Ratio analysis means making forecasts based on the historical ratio between some causal factor (like number of products made) and the number of employees required.
48
Which of the following is a mathematical process used to forecast whether current employees will be available to fill key positions?
A.
Trend analysis
B.
Scatter plot
C.
Markov analysis
D.
Position replacement card
E.
Succession planning
C. Markov analysis
The Markov analysis is a mathematical process used to forecast the availability of internal job candidates. It involves creating a matrix that shows the probabilities that employees in the chain of feeder positions for a key job will move from position to position and therefore be available to fill the key position.
49
The process of determining what your recruitment options are and then assessing which are best for the job in question is called _________.
A.
recruitment sourcing
B.
increasing government regulation
C.
predictive workforce monitoring
D.
workforce planning
E.
succession planning
A. recruitment sourcing
Recruitment sourcing involves determining what your recruitment options are (referrals, online ads, and so on) and then assessing which are best for the job in question. For assessing which source is best, most employers look at how many applicants the source generates.
50
Which of the following aids a company in increasing the effectiveness of its recruiting efforts by demonstrating to candidates why the company is a good place to work?
A.
Forecasting
B.
Branding
C.
Alternative staffing
D.
Succession planning
E.
Workforce planning
B. Branding
The employer's "brand" impacts recruiting success. Recruitment branding focuses on what it's like to work at the company, including company values and the work environment.
51
Which of the following helps a company to gauge which staffing issues need to be resolved?
A.
Trend analysis
B.
Recruiting yield pyramid
C.
Skills inventory system
D.
Ratio analysis
E.
Position replacement card
B. Recruiting yield pyramid
A recruiting yield pyramid shows the historical arithmetic relationships between recruitment leads and invitees, invitees and interviews, interviews and offers made, and offers made and offers accepted.
52
Daniel is a recruiter for the Happy Bounce franchise. When he meets with potential recruits, he emphasizes that the company encourages its employees to participate in community service events and even allows paid time off for the employees to do so. What is Daniel attempting in this scenario?
A.
Alternative staffing
B.
Workforce planning
C.
On-demand recruiting
D.
Recruitment branding
E.
Succession planning
D. Recruitment branding
Recruitment branding focuses on what it's like to work at the company, including company values and the work environment.
53
What is the process of finding applicants for the employer's open positions called?
A.
Workforce planning
B.
Employee recruiting
C.
Succession planning
D.
On-demand recruiting
E.
Alternative staffing
B. Employee recruiting
Employee recruiting means finding and/or attracting applicants for the company's open positions.
54
Melanie needs to hire employees for six open positions that she has in her department. Since she will be recruiting a lot of candidates, what should Melanie use to help her with the open positions she needs to address?
A.
Alternative staffing
B.
On-demand recruiting
C.
Succession planning
D.
Recruiting yield pyramid
E.
Workforce planning
D. Recruiting yield pyramid
The recruiting yield pyramid is the historical arithmetic relationships between recruitment leads and invi-tees, invitees and interviews, interviews and offers made, and offers made and offers accepted.
55
Using _______ is a common and inexpensive way to find internal job candidates.
A.
social media sites
B.
word of mouth
C.
job postings
D.
recruiters
E.
print ads
C. job postings
A common and inexpensive way employers find internal job candidates is through an internal job posting placed on company intranets or bulletin boards.
56
Which of the following is a potential disadvantage of hiring from within?
A.
Internal candidates may need less training.
B.
Internal candidates may be more committed to the organization.
C.
Internal candidates may have similar perspectives.
D.
Internal candidates may come in with higher salaries.
E.
Internal candidates may require less orientation.
C. Internal candidates may have similar perspectives.
Inbreeding, or hiring solely from within the company, is a disadvantage of hiring internally, especially if new perspectives are required.
57
Which of the following could be a potential drawback of hiring internally?
A.
New employees are more committed to the company than those promoted internally.
B.
Current employees require more orientation.
C.
Internal candidates often receive higher pay.
D.
The company will miss out on the talent of "stars" from other companies.
E.
Employees who are not hired may become disengaged.
E. Employees who are not hired may become disengaged.
Rejected insider applicants may become discontented; telling them why you rejected them and what remedial actions they might take is crucial.
58
What can a manager use to attract a pool of internal candidates?
A.
Customer referrals
B.
Promoting current employees
C.
Social media sites such as LinkedIn
D.
Job postings
E.
Alternative staffing firms
D. Job postings
By posting the available position, employees from within the organization can view and respond to it.
59
Which of the following is a potential advantage of hiring internally?
A.
Internal hiring provides new perspectives.
B.
Managers spend more time with employees, as they are often required to interview all internal candidates.
C.
Internal promotions will "beef up" the company's succession planning system.
D.
It is not necessary to formally respond to internal candidates that are not selected, saving time for managers.
E.
The candidates' strengths and weaknesses are known.
e. The candidates' strengths and weaknesses are known.
There is no substitute for already knowing a candidate's strengths and weaknesses.
60
Which of the following is a benefit of rehiring former employees?
A.
Former employees have a better attitude when they return.
B.
Department morale will increase when a former teammate returns.
C.
Former employees are already familiar with how you do things.
D.
Former employees can bring a new skill set to the department.
E.
Background investigations or other employment tests were already done and don't have to be repeated.
c. Former employees are already familiar with how you do things.
Former employees are known quantities (more or less) and are already familiar with how you do things.
61
Instituting plans to train current employees for new jobs would likely increase which of the following?
A.
Overtime requirements
B.
Employee dissatisfaction
C.
Need for new policies
D.
Amount of supervision required
E.
Employee engagement
E. Employee engagement
IBM assessed its skills gaps and instituted workforce plans to train current employees for new jobs, something that assumedly fostered employee engagement.
62
Which of the following policy types includes helping employees identify and develop their promotion potential?
A.
Social responsibility
B.
Corporate philanthropy
C.
External hiring
D.
Promotion-from-within
E.
Succession
D.
Promotion-from-within
. A promotion-from-within policy includes helping employees identify and develop their promotion potential. Plans aimed at developing and retaining employees and promoting from within foster engagement.
63
Which of the following policies includes helping employees identify and develop their promotion potential?
A.
Promotion-from-within
B.
External hiring
C.
Succession
D.
Social responsibility
E.
Corporate philanthropy
A. Promotion-from-within
A promotion-from-within policy includes helping employees identify and develop their promotion potential. Plans aimed at developing and retaining employees and promoting from within foster engagement.
64
What is a requirement of effective promotion from within?
A.
The education level of the workforce
B.
A coordinated system for accessing career records and posting job openings
C.
The seniority of the workforce
D.
Ensuring only qualified applicants apply
E.
Using a recruiter
B. A coordinated system for accessing career records and posting job openings
. Effective promotion from within requires providing the education and training needed to help employees identify and develop their promotion potential, career oriented appraisals in which the supervisor and employee jointly link the latter's past performance, career preferences, and developmental needs in a formal career plan, and a coordinated system for accessing career records and posting job openings, one that guarantees all eligible employee are informed of openings and considered for them.
65
Temporary employees are an example of which of the following?
A.
Alternative staffing
B.
Succession planning
C.
Applicant tracking
D.
College recruiting
E.
On-demand recruiting
A. Alternative staffing
Temporary employees are an example of alternative staffing, which is the use of nontraditional recruitment sources.
66
Super Semiconductors, Inc. has contracted its customer service function to a company located in India. Which of the following best describes this move?
A.
Staffing
B.
Offshoring
C.
Outsourcing
D.
Alternative staffing
E.
Recruiting
B. Offshoring
Offshoring means having outside vendors or employees abroad supply services that the company's own employees previously did in-house.
67
Which of the following is an advantage of online recruiting?
A.
It generates fewer responses.
B.
It generates quick responses.
C.
It costs more.
D.
It may exclude certain groups of candidates.
E.
It brings in a deluge of resumes.
B. It generates quick responses.
Online recruiting generates more responses and quicker responses, and it costs less than traditional recruiting.
68
An online ad should do which of the following?
A.
Require applicants to send resumes through email.
B.
Use abbreviations.
C.
Keep job descriptions for internal use only.
D.
Transfer newspaper ads to the web.
E.
Provide a way for applicants to gauge if the job is a good fit.
E. Provide a way for applicants to gauge if the job is a good fit.
Ideally, an ad should provide a way (such as a checklist of the job's human requirements) for potential applicants to gauge if the job is a good fit.
69
Amazing Industries needs to hire local, hourly employees for its local plant. Which of the following would most likely be the best place for Amazing Industries to advertise for these employees?
A.
Trade and professional journals
B.
The Wall Street Journal
C.
The local newspaper
D.
Chemical Engineering
E.
USA Today
C. The local newspaper
The local newspaper is often a good source for local hourly help, clerical employees, and lower-level administrative employees.
70
Employees of temporary staffing firms that work in an employer's company are typically considered employees of ______.
A.
the state employment office
B.
both the temporary staffing firm and the company
C.
the temporary staffing firm
D.
the company where they are performing work
E.
neither the temporary staffing firm nor the company
B. both the temporary staffing firm and the company
Employees of temporary staffing firms working in an employer's workplace are considered employees of both the agency and the employer.
71
Flextime programs that provide some schedule flexibility are generally promoted to help recruit _______ employees.
A.
older
B.
younger
C.
minority
D.
single-parent
E.
temporary
D. single-parent
Flextime programs provide employees some schedule flexibility (such as one-hour windows at the beginning or end of the day). Flextime programs is one way employers can make the workplace user friendly, which is an important part of attracting and keeping single parent employees.
72
Shorter work schedules, or "mini shifts," will help an employer to recruit which type of employee?
A.
Single parent
B.
Older
C.
Temporary
D.
Minority
E.
Younger
B. Older
About 32% of Americans age 65 to 69 were employed recently, as were 19% of all those over 65. It therefore makes sense for employers to encourage older workers to stay (or to come to work at the company). The big draw is to provide opportunities for flexible (and often shorter) work schedules. "Mini shifts" accommodate those interested in working less than full time.
73
Allowing for flexible (and often shorter) work schedules is a good way to recruit which type of employee?
A.
Disabled workers
B.
Minority employees
C.
Female employees
D.
Older employees
E.
Single parents
D. Older employees
One good way to encourage older employees to join the company is to allow for a shorter work schedule.
74
Which of the following strategies is essential to recruit more women?
A.
Utilize local and state agencies that provide placement services for them.
B.
The most effective strategy is top management driven.
C.
Train supervisors to be more understanding of the problems they face.
D.
Allow for a shorter work schedule.
E.
Understand the barriers that prevent them from applying.
B. The most effective strategy is top management driven.
The most effective strategy for recruiting women is driven by top management. The overall aim is to make it clear that the employer is the sort of place where women want to work.
75
A company's application forms must comply with _______.
A.
equal employment laws
B.
mandatory arbitration clauses
C.
employee recruitment policies
D.
alternative staffing guidelines
E.
biodata
A. equal employment laws
76
Which of the following should an employer NOT request on the application form?
A.
Name and phone number of emergency contact
B.
Record of convictions
C.
Agreement to arbitrate
D.
Membership in work-related societies or organizations
E.
Dates of graduation from high school and/or college
E.
Dates of graduation from high school and/or college
A question on dates of attendance and graduation is a potential violation of EEO law, since it may reveal the applicant's age.
77
Which is usually the first step in the prescreening process?
A.
Interview
B.
Application form
C.
Advertising in the local newspaper
D.
Job posting
E.
Internal recruiting
B. Application form
The application form is usually the first step in the prescreening process.
78
On an application form, which of the following types of information can employers ask about the applicant and still be in compliance with equal employment laws?
A.
Disability status
B.
Previous progress and growth
C.
Gender
D.
Age
E.
Minority status
B. Previous progress and growth
The application form provides four types of information: whether the applicant has the education and experience to do the job, the applicant's previous progress and growth, the applicant's stability based on previous work record, and a prediction of whether the candidate will succeed on the job.
79
According to one study, what type of biodata would best predict employee tenure and performance?
A.
Applicants who had longer tenure with previous employers
B.
Invasive data such as long-term goals and personality characteristics
C.
Invasive data such as marital status and family size
D.
Noninvasive biodata such as birth order and salary goals
E.
Data on age, race, or sex
A. Applicants who had longer tenure with previous employers
In one study, the researchers found that applicants who had longer tenure with previous employers were less likely to quit and also had higher performance within six months after hire.
80
When asking about a candidate's membership in clubs or organizations, what type of information might be revealed that could affect the interview outcome?
A.
The candidate's response might indicate a lack of focus or lack of commitment to a group.
B.
The candidate's response about involvement in clubs and organizations might indicate their ability to get along well with others.
C.
The candidate's response might provide insight as to race, religion, or other protected groups under the EEO.
D.
The candidate's response might provide insight as to how closely the candidate's personal goals are aligned with their professional goals.
E.
The candidate's response might indicate a philanthropic desire.
When asking about a candidate's membership in clubs or organizations, what type of information might be revealed that could affect the interview outcome?
Ask my instructor
C. The candidate's response might provide insight as to race, religion, or other protected groups under the EEO.
Some forms ask the applicant to list memberships in clubs, organizations, or societies. Employers should include instructions not to include organizations that would reveal race, religion, physical handicaps, marital status, or ancestry.
81
Matching the competencies of an applicant to the required knowledge, skills, and abilities required to perform the job is known as which of the following?
A.
Organization fit
B.
Corporate culture
C.
Position fit
D.
Person-job fit
E.
Person-organization fit
D. Person-job fit
Matching the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other competencies (KSACs) that are required for performing the job (based on job analysis) with the applicant's KSACs is known as persondashjob fit.
82
Jason was in a hurry to fill his open sales position, so he allowed his new employee to start before the background check was complete. The new employee burglarized a customer's home, and it was later discovered this was not the first time. Jason could be held liable for which of the following?
A.
Poor planning
B.
Negligent supervision
C.
Improper hiring
D.
Negligent hiring
E.
Unforeseeable circumstances
D. Neglignt hiring
Hiring workers with a criminal background or other such problems without proper safeguards can be determined to be negligent hiring. Courts will find employers liable when employees use their access to customers' homes to commit crimes.
83
Which of the following means matching the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other competencies (KSACs) that are required for performing the job (based on job analysis) with the applicant's KSACs?
A.
Engagement
B.
Negligent hiring
C.
Person-organization fit
D.
Person-job fit
E.
Selection
D. Person-job fit
Person-job fit means matching the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other competencies (KSACs) that are required for performing the job (based on job analysis) with the applicant's KSACs.
84
If a company hires an employee without proper safeguards, such as a background check, this is an example of ______.
A.
selection
B.
person-organization fit
C.
engagement
D.
person-job fit
E.
negligent hiring
E. Negligent hiring
Negligent hiring means hiring employees with criminal records or other problems who then use access to customers' homes (or similar opportunities) to commit crimes.
85
_______ answers the question, "Does this test measure what it's supposed to measure?"
A.
Reliability
B.
Alternate form estimate
C.
Trend analysis
D.
Validity
E.
Utility analysis
D. Validity
Test validity tells you whether the test is measuring what you think it is supposed to measure.
86
The consistency of a test is described as _______.
A.
criterion validity
B.
construct validity
C.
content validity
D.
alternate form estimate
E.
reliability
E. Reliability
Reliability refers to a test's consistency. It is the consistency of scores obtained by the same person when retested with the identical test or with an equivalent form of a test.
87
Superior Stereo Equipment wants to be sure that the employees who have high scores on selection tests perform well on the job. Which of the following is Superior Stereo Equipment interested in?
A.
Criterion validity
B.
Construct validity
C.
Internal comparison estimate
D.
Content validity
E.
Reliability
A. Criterion validity
. Criterion validity involves demonstrating statistically a relationship between scores on a selection procedure and job performance of a sample of workers.
88
Which concept demonstrates that the content of a selection procedure is representative of important aspects of performance on the job.
A.
Criterion validity
B.
Reliability
C.
Construct validity
D.
Validity generalization
E.
Content validity
E. Content validity
Content validity demonstrates that the content of a selection procedure is representative of important aspects of performance on the job.
89
Ming decided not to use the company's selection test in her department because the cost of the test exceeds the benefits she feels it provides. Ming's decision was based on which of the following?
A.
Construct validity
B.
Validity generalization
C.
Utility analysis
D.
Content validity
E.
Criterion validity
C. Utility analysis
Answering the question "Does it pay to use the test?" requires utility analysis. Utility analysis shows the degree to which use of a selection measure improves the quality of individuals selected over what would have happened if the measure had not been used.
90
When a company administers a test to a group of its employees and then gives them the same test a few days later and compares the scores, it is using the _______ reliability estimates method of measuring reliability.
A.
validity generalization
B.
internal comparison estimate
C.
criterion validity
D.
utility analysis
E.
test-retest
E. test-retest
Administering a test to a group of people, administering the same test several days later to the same group of people, and then correlating the first set of scores with the second is the test-retest method of determining reliability.
91
Which of the following does an IQ test measure?
A.
Motor and physical abilities
B.
Cognitive abilities
C.
Interests
D.
Achievement
E.
Personality
B.
Cognitive abilities
Cognitive tests include tests of general reasoning ability, or intelligence.
92
Imani is always on time and always prepared. Everyone knows she never misses a deadline. Which personality dimension is Imani displaying?
A.
Extroversion
B.
Emotional stability
C.
Openness to experience
D.
Conscientiousness
E.
Agreeableness
D. Conscientiousness
Conscientiousness is composed of achievement and dependability.
93
Sia has lots of energy and is always engaging with her coworkers. She is known as the "life of the party" and has never met someone that she doesn't consider a friend. Which of the personality dimensions does Sia exhibit?
A.
Conscientiousness
B.
Openness to experience
C.
Emotional stability/neuroticism
D.
Agreeableness
E.
Extroversion
E. Extroversion
Extroversion represents a tendency to be sociable, assertive, and active, and to experience positive effects such as energy and zeal.
94
Aaliyah wants to determine which occupation would be a good fit for her after graduation. Which of the following would help Aaliyah determine her preferred occupation?
A.
Analytics
B.
Interest inventory
C.
Achievement test
D.
Situational judgment tests
E.
Personality test
B. Interest Inventory
Interest inventory is a personal development and selec-tion device that compares the per-son's current interests with those of others now in various occupations so as to determine the preferred occupation for the individual.
95
Li's employees enjoy working for him, mostly because he is always open to listening to their ideas and he considers their suggestions for new ways of doing things. This often makes the whole team more efficient. Which of the following personality dimensions does Li demonstrate?
A.
Conscientiousness
B.
Extroversion
C.
Agreeableness
D.
Emotional stability/neuroticism
E.
Openness to experience
E. Openness to experience
Openness to experience is the disposition to be imaginative, nonconforming, unconventional, and autonomous.
96
Which of the following tests would best measure reaction time and dexterity for a race car driver?
A.
Test of physical abilities
B.
IQ test
C.
Achievement test
D.
Aptitude test
E.
Projective test
A. Test of physical abilities
Tests of motor and physical abilities testassess the ability of people to move and use their motor abilities. This includes finger dexterity, manual dexterity, and reaction time.
97
Which type of work simulation usually takes 2 to 3 days and includes a variety of tasks such as the in-basket, leaderless group discussion, presentations, and testing?
A.
Management assessment center
B.
Interest inventory
C.
Personality assessment
D.
Cognitive test
E.
Expectancy chart
A. Management assessment center
A management assessment center is a 2- to 3-day simulation in which 10dash12 candidates perform realistic management tasks (like making presentations) under the observation of experts who appraise each candidate's leadership potential.
98
Companies that perform a(n) _______ are more likely to have applicants turn down job offers but less likely to have employees that accept the offers leave the company.
A.
cognitive test
B.
interest inventory
C.
realistic job preview
D.
personality assessment
E.
written honesty test
C. realistic job preview
Applicants who receive realistic job previews are more likely to turn down job offers, but their employers are more likely to have less turnover.
99
Teresa is interviewing for the job of human resource manager. During the interview, the interviewer describes in detail a potential employee relations issue and asks Teresa how she would respond to the situation. Teresa's interviewer is using which of the following?
A.
Management assessment center
B.
Video-based situational testing
C.
Work sampling
D.
Projective test
E.
Situational judgment test
E. Situational judgment test
. Situational judgment tests are personnel tests "designed to assess an applicant's judgment regarding a situation encountered in the workplace."
100
In which of the following would you be likely to find an "in-basket" containing reports, memos, notes of incoming phone calls, e-mails, and other materials?
A.
Video-based situational testing
B.
Management assessment center
C.
Situational judgment test
D.
Work sampling
E.
Miniature job training and evaluation
B. Management assessment center
A typical management assessment center task is the in-basket, which includes reports, memos, notes of incoming phone calls, and e-mails that the candidate must sort and determine the appropriate action to take on each.
101
Sanjay takes extra time with each candidate that she interviews. She shows them what each job task consists of, where it will be performed, and what equipment employees will use to perform the task. Which of the following is Sanjay utilizing in her selection efforts?
A.
Miniature job training and evaluation
B.
Realistic job preview
C.
Video-based situational testing
D.
Situational judgment test
E.
Work sampling
B. Realistic job preview
`
Sometimes, a dose of realism makes the best screening tool. In general, applicants who receive realistic job previews are more likely to turn down job offers, but their employers are more likely to have less turnover.
102
Which of the following is NOT true regarding authorizing background checks in compliance with federal laws?
A.
Employers may withdraw job offers if a background check comes back unfavorable.
B.
Employers must certify that they will comply with federal and state legal requirements.
C.
Applicants are not entitled to copies of a background report.
D.
Employers must disclose to an applicant that they intend to do a background check.
E.
Employers must send a notice to an applicant that they are taking adverse action.
C.
Applicants are not entitled to copies of a background report.
Under federal law, the employer must provide copies of the report to the applicant or employee if adverse action (such as withdrawing a job offer) is contemplated.
103
Which of the following regulates background checks?
A.
Federal Privacy Act
B.
Family Education Rights and Privacy Act
C.
Employee Polygraph Protection Act
D.
Fair Credit Reporting Act
E.
Freedom of Information Act
D. Fair Credit Reporting Act
Various federal and state laws govern how employers acquire and use applicants' and employees' background information. At the federal level, the Fair Credit Reporting Act is the main directive.
104
Which of the following measures physiological changes in a person?
A.
Polygraph
B.
Analytics
C.
Situational judgment test
D.
Work sampling
E.
Miniature job training and evaluation
A. Polygraph
A polygraph or "lie detector" measures physiological changes such as increased perspiration. The assumption is that such changes reflect changes in emotional state that accompany lying.
105
One of the main reasons employers perform background checks is to _______.
A.
assess the applicant's use of social media
B.
verify that the applicant is eligible to work in the United States
C.
eliminate applicants
D.
comply with the FCRA
E.
uncover damaging information
E. uncover damaging information
The two main reasons to check backgrounds are to verify the applicant's information and to uncover damaging information.
106
Which of the following best defines graphology?
A.
Verification that the applicant meets the job's physical requirements
B.
The use of handwriting analysis to determine the writer's basic personality traits
C.
The ability to determine if a test measures something consistently
D.
A measurement of physiological changes like increased perspiration
E.
Psychological tests designed to predict job applicants' proneness to dishonesty and other forms of counterproductivity
b. The use of handwriting analysis to determine the writer's basic personality traits
Graphology is the use of handwriting analysis to determine the writer's basic personality traits.
107
All employers are required to do which of the following?
A.
Contact previous employers of the candidate for references.
B.
Verify that the applicant is eligible to work in the United States.
C.
Check for criminal records of applicants.
D.
Perform a drug test prior to hiring a candidate.
E.
Determine any limitations by sending new employees for a medical exam.
B. Verify that the applicant is eligible to work in the United States.
Employers must require all employees to verify that they are eligible to work in the United States. Employers must follow the procedures outlined in the I-9 Employment Eligibility Verification form.
108
In which type of interview is the procedure designed to predict future job performance based on applicant's oral responses to oral questions?
A.
Stress interview
B.
Serial interview
C.
Situational interview
D.
Mass interview
E.
Selection interview
E. Selection interview
In a selection interview, the procedure is designed to predict future job performance based on applicant's oral responses to oral questions.
109
In which type of interview would you most likely find several candidates in a room together?
A.
Mass interview
B.
Computerized selection interview
C.
Sequential interview
D.
Serial interview
E.
Stress interview
A. Mass Interview
. In a mass interview, a panel interviews several candidates simultaneously. The panel might pose a problem and then watch to see which candidate takes the lead in formulating an answer.
110
"What action would you take if one of your employees arrived late to work several days in a row?" is a question that is typical of which type of interview?
A.
Stress
B.
Directive
C.
Behavioral
D.
Nondirective
E.
Situational
E. Situational
In a situational interview, the candidate is asked what his or her behavior would be in a given situation.
111
Jia is interviewing for the plant superintendent position. During her interview with the plant manager she is asked, "Describe a time when you witnessed an employee not following safety procedures. What happened, and what did you do?" Jia is experiencing which type of interview?
A.
Directive
B.
Stress
C.
Situational
D.
Panel
E.
Behavioral
E. Behavioral
Behavioral interviews ask applicants to describe how they reacted to actual situations in the past.
112
During his interview for customer service manager, Zhan was told that he really didn't have the right amount of experience desired for someone in the position and likely wouldn't be able to handle the responsibility of being the manager. Which type of interview is Zhan experiencing?
A.
Directive
B.
Situational
C.
Mass
D.
Behavioral
E.
Stress
E. Stress
In a stress interview, the interviewer seeks to make the applicant uncomfortable with occasionally rude questions. The aim is supposedly to spot sensitive applicants and those with low (or high) stress tolerance.
113
Which type of interview uses multiple-choice responses to realistic scenarios?
A.
Serial interview
B.
Computerized selection interview
C.
Stress interview
D.
Mass interview
E.
Panel interview
B. Cmputerized Selection Interview
A computerized selection interview is one in which a job candidate's oral or keyed replies or both are obtained in response to computerized oral, visual, or written questions or situations or both. Some video-based computerized interviews also confront candidates with realistic scenarios (such as irate customers) to which they must respond, often online.
114
After his second interview of the day, Antonio was relieved that he had a terrific candidate. The first applicant had none of the required skills or qualities and was a terrible fit. The second applicant was so much better. Antonio might have committed which type of interview mistake?
A.
Not clarifying job requirements
B.
Nonverbal behavior
C.
Ingratiation
D.
Snap judgment
E.
Candidate-order error
E.
Candidate-order error
Candidate-order (contrast) error occurs when the order in which you see applicants affects how you rate them.
115
Which of the following is a candidate error, as opposed to an interviewer error?
A.
Pressure to hire
B.
Nonverbal behaviors and impression management
C.
Snap judgment
D.
Not clarifying what the job involves and requires
E.
Failing to test Internet connections when preparing for an online interview
E. Failing to test Internet connections when preparing for an online interview
t. As Career FAQs says, "Five minutes before the video interview is not a good time to realize that your Internet is down," Skype isn't working, or your pet rabbit has chewed through the microphone cord.
116
During the first five minutes of the interview, Sam determined that Hong was not right for the job. Which type of interview mistake has Sam committed?
A.
Not clarifying job requirements
B.
Candidate contrast error
C.
Nonverbal behavior
D.
Snap judgment
E.
Ingratiation
D. Snap Judgrment
. Probably the most widespread error is that interviewers tend to jump to conclusionslong dashmake snap judgmentslong dashabout candidates during the first few minutes of the interview (or even before the interview starts, based on test scores or résumé data).
117
Anaya was impressed with the candidate she just interviewed for the HR assistant position. The two of them seemed to share the same views on several subjects. Anaya should be cautious so she doesn't make which type of interview error?
A.
Candidate contrast error
B.
Snap judgment
C.
Ingratiation
D.
Not clarifying job requirements
E.
Nonverbal behavior
C. Ingratiation
Sensing that a perceived similarity in attitudes may influence how the interviewer rates them, some interviewees try to emphasize (or fabricate) such similarities. This is ingratiation.
118
The marketing department is so short staffed that it doesn't even have someone to conduct the interviews that are occurring this week. The director of marketing has asked some of his colleagues in operations and finance to meet and help interview the candidates. Which type of interview mistake might occur in this situation?
A.
Snap judgment
B.
Not clarifying job requirements
C.
Candidate contrast error
D.
Ingratiation
E.
Nonverbal behavior
B. Not clarifying job requirements
Interviewers who don't have an accurate picture of what the job entails and what sort of candidate is best for it usually make their decisions based on incorrect impressions or stereotypes of what a good applicant is.
119
An interviewee who makes eye contact throughout an interview and appears engaged in conversation will be successful at which of the following?
A.
Self-promotion
B.
Stress management
C.
Impression management
D.
Behavioral contrast
E.
Order management
C. Impression management
Impression management is built around the concept of trying to make the best possible first impression on an interviewer.
120
Which of the following is NOT a step in designing a structured situational interview?
A.
Apply for a job
B.
Create interview questions
C.
Appoint the interview panel
D.
Analyze the job
E.
Rate the job's main duties
A. Apply for a job
. Applying for the job is not part of the steps in designing a structured situational interviews. The steps are: analyze the job, rate the job's main duties, create interview questions, create benchmark answers, appoint the interview panel, and conduct interviews.
120
Sia is interviewing for a mechanic's job at the local Honda dealership. Which of the following questions would NOT be a good question for the interviewer to ask as part of a structured situational interview?
A.
What are the steps you would follow in changing the spark plugs on a Honda Civic?
B.
Which of our car models do you think is the best one we offer?
C.
Tell me about a time when you had to deal with a particularly obnoxious customer. What was the situation, and how did you handle it?
D.
What experience have you had actually repairing car transmissions?
E.
How many cars have you worked on in a course of one day?
B. Which of our car models do you think is the best one we offer?
The structured situational interview is a series of job-relevant questions with predetermined answers that interviewers ask of all applicants for the job. By asking a question about which car model the applicant prefers, this does not relate to the job duties or provide any type of job knowledge which is the goal of a structured situational interview.
121
Which of the following is a key to administering an effective interview?
A.
Create benchmark responses to interview questions.
B.
Use subjective ratings.
C.
Limit the structure of the interview.
D.
Avoid open-ended questions.
E.
Use self-evaluation questions.
A. Create benchmark responses to interview questions.
For each question, develop ideal (benchmark) answers for good (a 5 rating), marginal (a 3 rating), and poor (a 1 rating) answers.
122
In which type of interview are the same questions with predetermined answers asked of all candidates?
A.
Computerized selection interview
B.
Structured situational interview
C.
Mass interview
D.
Stress interview
E.
Behavioral interview
B.
Structured situational interview
A structured situational interview consists of a series of job-relevant questions with predetermined answers that interviewers ask of all applicants for the job.
123
Structured situational interviews are often performed as which of the following?
A.
Panel interview
B.
Mass interview
C.
Behavioral interview
D.
Stress interview
E.
Computerized selection interview
A. Panel Interview
Employers generally conduct structured situational interviews using a panel, rather than one-on-one. The panel usually consists of two to three members, preferably the same ones who wrote the questions and answers
124
Which interview question is situational?
A.
"How will you respond to the extra hours required if you were to receive this promotion?"
B.
"How would you respond to a customer who is requesting something that is against company policy?"
C.
"What past job experiences have taught you about idea collaboration strategies?"
D.
"What college courses prepared you most to work in this field?"
E.
"Which software programs do you have the most experience working with?"
B. "How would you respond to a customer who is requesting something that is against company policy?"
Situational questions concern hypothetical reactions to situations that may come up if an applicant receives the job.
125
What is the main goal of Toyota's total selection process?
A.
To focus on safety requirements and training
B.
To last at least two weeks
C.
To focus on completing benefits paperwork
D.
To engage new employees in the company's ideology
E.
To emphasize work rules
D. To engage new employees in the company's ideology
The main goal of Toyota's onboarding program is to engage new employees in the company's ideology of quality, teamwork, personal development, open communication, and mutual respect.
126
Which of the following is NOT one of the common themes apparent from Toyota's hiring process according to the chapter?
A.
Self-selection
B.
Problem-solving skills
C.
Value-based hiring
D.
Exhaustive screening process
E.
Statistical approach
E.
Statistical approach
The statistical approach quantifies all the evidence and perhaps uses a formula to predict job success. Four common themes are apparent from Toyota's process. First, value-based hiring means it clarifies its own values before it embarks on an employee selection program; high-engagement firms such as Toyota commit the time and effort for an exhaustive screening process; it seeks candidates whose values and skills match the needs of the firm; fourth, self-selection is important; n some firms this just means realistic previews.
127
When all of a candidate's attributes are considered based on fit for the employer's total job requirements, what type of recruitment is being practiced?
A.
Self-selection
B.
Profile-oriented
C.
Total selection
D.
Value-based hiring
E.
Values and skills match
C. Total selection
Many employers create a total selection program aimed at selecting candidates whose totality of attributes best fits the employer's total requirements.
128
Which of the following is the six phases of Toyota's hiring process in the correct order?
A.
An online application, a computer-based assessment, a work simulation assessment, a background check, a face-to-face interview, and job offer
B.
An online application, a computer-based assessment, a work simulation assessment, a face-to-face interview, a background check, and job offer
C.
An online application, a job offer, computer-based assessment, a work simulation assessment, a face-to-face interview, and a background check
D.
An online application, a background check, a computer-based assessment, a work simulation assessment, a face-to-face interview, and job offer
E.
A background check, an online application, a computer-based assessment, a work simulation assessment, a face-to-face interview, and job offer
B.
An online application, a computer-based assessment, a work simulation assessment, a face-to-face interview, a background check, and job offer
129
The ________ approach quantifies all the evidence and perhaps uses a formula to predict job success.
A.
hybrid
B.
structured
C.
unstructured
D.
judgmental
E.
statistical
E. Statistical Approach
The statistical approach quantifies all the evidence and perhaps uses a formula to predict job success.
130
Which of the following is the second step in the extension of the job offer?
A.
Having an attorney approve the offer
B.
Putting the offer in writing
C.
Extending a verbal offer
D.
Negotiating benefits and salary
E.
Completing all testing and physical exams
C. Extending a verbal offer
After all the interviews, background checks, and tests, the employer decides to whom to make an offer. The employer will base the details of the actual offer on, for instance, the candidate's apparent attractiveness as a prospective employee, the level of the position, and pay rates for similar positions. Next, the employer extends an actual job offer to the candidate verbally. Here the employer's point person (who might be the person to whom the new employee will report, or the human resource director, for instance) discusses the offer's main parameters. These include, for instance, pay rates, benefits, and actual job duties.
131
Bo has decided which employee to hire. He made his decision by considering and weighing all the information he has about each candidate. Bo used which approach in making his decision?
A.
Judgmental
B.
Statistical
C.
Unstructured
D.
Hybrid
E.
Structured
A. Judgmental
The judgmental approach subjectively weighs all the evidence about the candidates.
132
Which approach to deciding which candidate to hire is the LEAST defensible?
A.
Unstructured
B.
Statistical
C.
Hybrid
D.
Structured
E.
Judgmental
E. Judgmental
The judgmental approach subjectively weighs all the evidence about the candidate. The statistical and hybrid approaches are more defensible.
133
Which of the following would typically be found in a contract but not an offer letter?
A.
Benefits information
B.
Severance provisions
C.
A welcome sentence
D.
Contact person
E.
Closing statement
B. Severance provisions
The contract will describe grounds for termination or resignation, and severance provisions. The contract will almost always also include terms regarding confidentiality, nondisclosure requirements, and covenants not to compete.
134
Which of the following includes the specific duration of a position?
A.
Job offer letter
B.
Relocation provision
C.
List of job duties
D.
Job description
E.
Employment contract
E. Employment contract
In contrast to a letter of offer (which should always be "at will"), an employment contract may have a duration (such as three years).Therefore, the contract will also describe grounds for termination or resignation, and severance provisions.
