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Flashcards in Examlabs Deck (238):
1

The output is from a router in a large enterprise. From the output, determine the role of the
router.

A. A Core router.

B. The HQ Internet gateway router.

C. The WAN router at the central site.

D. Remote stub router at a remote site.

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D. Remote stub router at a remote site.

2

A network has been planned as shown. Which three statements accurately describe the
areas and devices in the network plan? (Choose three.)

A. Network Device A is a switch.

B. Network Device B is a switch.

C. Network Device A is a hub.

D. Network Device B is a hub.

E. Area 1 contains a Layer 2 device.

F. Area 2 contains a Layer 2 device.

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A. Network Device A is a switch.

D. Network Device B is a hub.

E. Area 1 contains a Layer 2 device.

3

Which two characteristics apply to Layer 2 switches? (Choose two.)

A. Increases the number of collision domains

B. Decreases the number of collision domains

C. Implements VLAN

D. Decreases the number of broadcast domains

E. Uses the IP address to make decisions for forwarding data packets

A. Increases the number of collision domains

C. Implements VLAN

4

A workstation has just resolved a browser URL to the IP address of a server. What protocol
will the workstation now use to determine the destination MAC address to be placed into
frames directed toward the server?

A. HTTP

B. DNS

C. DHCP

D. RARP

E. ARP

E. ARP

5

If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the source physical address be in the
frame when it reaches host B?

A. 10.168.10.99

B. 10.168.11.88

C. A1:A1:A1:A1:A1:A1

D. B2:B2:B2:B2:B2:B2

E. C3:C3:C3:C3:C3:C3

F. D4:D4:D4:D4:D4:D4

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E. C3:C3:C3:C3:C3:C3

6

On a Cisco switch, which protocol determines if an attached VoIP phone is from Cisco or
from another vendor?

A. RTP

B. TCP

C. CDP

D. UDP

C. CDP

7

SwitchA receives the frame with the addressing shown. According to the command output
also shown in the exhibit, how will SwitchA handle this frame?

A. It will drop the frame.

B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/6 only.

C. It will flood the frame out all ports.

D. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.

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B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/6 only.

8

Which two characteristics describe the access layer of the hierarchical network design
model? (Choose two.)

A. layer 3 support

B. port security

C. redundant components

D. VLANs

E. PoE

B. port security

D. VLANs

9

As packets travel from Mary to Robert, which three devices will use the destination MAC
address of the packet to determine a forwarding path? (Choose three.)

A. Hub1

B. Switch1

C. Router1

D. Switch2

E. Router2

F. Switch3

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B. Switch1

D. Switch2

F. Switch3

10

The exhibit is showing the topology and the MAC address table. Host A sends a data frame
to host D. What will the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?

A. The switch will add the source address and port to the MAC address table and forward the frame to host D.

B. The switch will discard the frame and send an error message back to host A.

C. The switch will flood the frame out of all ports except for port Fa0/3.

D. The switch will add the destination address of the frame to the MAC address table and forward the frame to host D.

question_answerVIEW ANSWER

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A. The switch will add the source address and port to the MAC address table and forward the frame to host D.

11

What are two common TCP applications? (Choose two.)

A. TFTP

B. SMTP

C. SNMP

D. FTP

E. DNS

B. SMTP

D. FTP

12

If the hubs in the graphic were replaced by switches, what would be virtually eliminated?

A. broadcast domains

B. repeater domains

C. Ethernet collisions

D. signal amplification

E. Ethernet broadcasts

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C. Ethernet collisions

13

To what type of port would a cable with a DB-60 connector attach?

A. Serial port

B. Console port

C. Ethernet port

D. Fibre optic port

A. Serial port

14

Host B sends a frame to Host C. What will the switch do with the frame?

A. Drop the frame

B. Send the frame out all ports except port 0/2

C. Return the frame to Host B

D. Send an ARP request for Host C

E. Send an ICMP Host Unreachable message to Host B

F. Record the destination MAC address in the switching table and send the frame directly to Host C

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B. Send the frame out all ports except port 0/2

15

Which statements accurately describe CDP? (Choose three.)

A. CDP is an IEEE standard protocol.

B. CDP is a Cisco proprietary protocol.

C. CDP is a datalink layer protocol.

D. CDP is a network layer protocol.

E. CDP can discover directly connected neighboring Cisco devices.

F. CDP can discover Cisco devices that are not directly connected.

B. CDP is a Cisco proprietary protocol.

C. CDP is a datalink layer protocol.

E. CDP can discover directly connected neighboring Cisco devices.

16

Which OSI layer header contains the address of a destination host that is on another
network?

A. application

B. session

C. transport

D. network

E. data link

F. physical

D. network

17

How does TCP differ from UDP? (Choose two.)

A. TCP provides best effort delivery.

B. TCP provides synchronized communication.

C. TCP segments are essentially datagrams.

D. TCP provides sequence numbering of packets.

E. TCP uses broadcast delivery.

B. TCP provides synchronized communication.

D. TCP provides sequence numbering of packets.

18

At which layer of the OSI model does the protocol that provides the information that is
displayed by the show cdp neighbors command operate?

A. application

B. transport

C. network

D. physical

E. data link

E. data link

19

Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets? (Choose two.)

A. They acknowledge receipt of TCP segments.

B. They guarantee datagram delivery.

C. TRACERT uses ICMP packets.

D. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.

E. They are encapsulated within UDP datagrams.

C. TRACERT uses ICMP packets.

D. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.

20

Which layer of the OSI model controls the reliability of communications between network
devices using flow control, sequencing and acknowledgments?

A. Physical

B. Data-link

C. Transport

D. Network

C. Transport

21

Which protocol uses a connection-oriented service to deliver files between end systems?

A. TFTP

B. DNS

C. FTP

D. SNMP

E. RIP

C. FTP

22

Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers?

A. Internet layer

B. transport layer

C. application layer

D. network access layer

D. network access layer

23

What must be configured to establish a successful connection from Host A to switch SW-A
through router RT-A?

A. VLAN 1 on RT-A

B. IP routing on SW-A

C. default gateway on SW-A

D. crossover cable connecting SW-A and RT-A

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C. default gateway on SW-A

24

Host A is sending a packet to Host B for the first time. What destination MAC address will
Host A use in the ARP request?

A. 192.168.0.1

B. 172.16.0.50

C. 00-17-94-61-18-b0

D. 00-19-d3-2d-c3-b2

E. ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff

F. 255.255.255.255

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E. ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff

25

Which of the following are types of flow control? (Choose three.)

A. buffering

B. cut-through

C. windowing

D. congestion avoidance

E. load balancing

A. buffering

C. windowing

D. congestion avoidance

26

Which transport layer protocol provides best-effort delivery service with no
acknowledgment receipt required?

A. HTTP

B. IP

C. TCP

D. Telnet

E. UDP

E. UDP

27

Mary is sending an instant message to Robert. The message will be broken into a series of packets that will traverse all network devices. What addresses will populate these packets as they are forwarded from Router1 to Router2?
 

Destination MAC / Source MAC / Destination IP / Source IP

A. 0000.00a1.2222 / 0000.00a1.3333 / 10.1.2.2 / 10.1.3.3

B. 0000.000c.0123 / 0000.000c.0124 / 10.1.2.2 / 10.1.3.3

C. 0000.000c.0123 / 0000.000c.0124 / 10.1.1.253 / 10.1.1.254

D. 0000.00a1.2222 / 0000.00a1.3333 / 10.1.2.253 / 10.1.1.254

E. 0000.000c.0456 / 0000.000c.0567 / 10.1.2.2 / 10.1.3.3

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B. 0000.000c.0123 / 0000.000c.0124 / 10.1.2.2 / 10.1.3.3

28

How does a switch differ from a hub?

A. A switch does not induce any latency into the frame transfer time.

B. A switch tracks MAC addresses of directly-connected devices.

C. A switch operates at a lower, more efficient layer of the OSI model.

D. A switch decreases the number of broadcast domains.

E. A switch decreases the number of collision domains.

B. A switch tracks MAC addresses of directly-connected devices.

29

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30

Which network device functions only at Layer 1 of the OSI model?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

E. Option E

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B. Option B

31

Which option describes how SwitchA will handle the frame just received?

A. It will drop the frame.

B. It will forward the frame out of port Fa0/3 only.

C. It will flood the frame out all ports.

D. It will flood the frame out of all the ports except Fa0/3.

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D. It will flood the frame out of all the ports except Fa0/3.

32

SwitchA receives the frame with the addressing shown in the exhibit. According to the
command output also shown in the exhibit, how will SwitchA handle this frame?

A. It will drop the frame.

B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/6 only.

C. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/3 only.

D. It will flood the frame out all ports.

E. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.

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E. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.

33

A network administrator is connecting PC hosts A and B directly through their Ethernet interfaces as shown in the graphic. Ping attempts between the hosts are unsuccessful. What can be done to provide connectivity between the hosts? (Choose two.)

A. A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.

B. A rollover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.

C. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.192

D. A default gateway needs to be set on each host.

E. The hosts must be reconfigured to use private IP addresses for direct connections of this type.

F. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.0

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A. A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.

F. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.0

34

A network device needs to be installed in the place of the icon labeled Network Device to accommodate a leased line attachment to the Internet. Which network device and interface configuration meets the minimum requirements for this installation?

A. a router with two Ethernet interfaces

B. a switch with two Ethernet interfaces

C. a router with one Ethernet and one serial interface

D. a switch with one Ethernet and one serial interface

E. a router with one Ethernet and one modem interface

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C. a router with one Ethernet and one serial interface

35

What kind of cable should be used to make each connection that is identified by th numbers shown?

A. 1 - Ethernet Crossover cable 2 - Ethernet straight-through cable 3 - Fiber Optic cable 4 - Rollover cable

B. 1 - Ethernet straight-through cable 2 - Ethernet straight-through cable 3 - Serial cable 4 - Rollover cable

C. 1 - Ethernet rollover cable 2 - Ethernet crossover cable 3 - Serial cable 4 - Null-modem cable

D. 1 - Ethernet straight-through cable 2 - Ethernet Crossover cable 3 - Serial cable 4 - Rollover cable

E. 1 - Ethernet straight-through cable 2 - Ethernet Crossover cable 3 - Serial cable 4 - Ethernet Straight-through cable

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B. 1 - Ethernet straight-through cable 2 - Ethernet straight-through cable 3 - Serial cable 4 - Rollover cable

36

HostX is transferring a file to the FTP server. Point A represents the frame as it goes
toward the Toronto router. What will the Layer 2 destination address be at this point?

A. abcd.1123.0045

B. 192.168.7.17

C. aabb.5555.2222

D. 192.168.1.1

E. abcd.2246.0035

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E. abcd.2246.0035

37

Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network?
(Choose three.)

A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.

B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.

C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.

D. In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media before transmitting.

E. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.

A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.

B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.

E. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.

38

Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? (Choose
two.)

A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.

B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.

C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.

D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.

E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.

F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.

B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.

E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.

39

The host in Kiev sends a request for an HTML document to the server in Minsk. What will
be the source IP address of the packet as it leaves the Kiev router?

A. 10.1.0.1

B. 10.1.0.5

C. 10.1.0.6

D. 10.1.0.14

E. 10.1.1.16

F. 10.1.2.8

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E. 10.1.1.16

40

What must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server?

A. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.

B. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.

C. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.

D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.

E. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.

F. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.

D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.

41

What two things can the technician determine by successfully pinging from this computer to
the IP address 172.16.236.1? (Choose two)

A. The network card on the computer is functioning correctly.

B. The default static route on the gateway router is correctly configured.

C. The correct default gateway IP address is configured on the computer.

D. The device with the IP address 172.16.236.1 is reachable over the network.

E. The default gateway at 172.16.236.1 is able to forward packets to the internet.

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A. The network card on the computer is functioning correctly.

D. The device with the IP address 172.16.236.1 is reachable over the network.

42

All devices attached to the network are shown. How many collision domains are present in
this network?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 6

D. 9

E. 15

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E. 15

43

What is the purpose of flow control?

A. To ensure data is retransmitted if an acknowledgement is not received.

B. To reassemble segments in the correct order at the destination device.

C. To provide a means for the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender.

D. To regulate the size of each segment.

C. To provide a means for the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender.

44

Which address type does a switch use to make selective forwarding decisions?

A. Source IP address

B. Destination IP address

C. Source and destination IP address

D. Source MAC address

E. Destination MAC address

E. Destination MAC address

45

What does a host on an Ethernet network do when it is creating a frame and it does not
have the destination address?

A. Drops the frame

B. Sends out a Layer 3 broadcast message

C. Sends a message to the router requesting the address

D. Sends out an ARP request with the destination IP address

D. Sends out an ARP request with the destination IP address

46

How many collision domains are shown?

A. one

B. two

C. three

D. four

E. six

F. twelve

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B. two

47

How many simultaneous Telnet sessions does a Cisco router support by default?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

F. 6

E. 5

48

The MAC address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch.
What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.)

A. The switch will not forward a frame with this destination MAC address.

B. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC Address Table.

C. The MAC address of ffff.ffff.ffff will be added to the MAC address table.

D. The frame will be forwarded out of all the active switch ports except for port fa0/0.

E. The frame will be forwarded out of fa0/0 and fa0/1 only.

F. The frame will be forwarded out of all the ports on the switch.

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B. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC Address Table.

D. The frame will be forwarded out of all the active switch ports except for port fa0/0.

49

The ports that are shown are the only active ports on the switch. The MAC address table is
shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch.
What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.)

A. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC address table.

B. The MAC address of 0000.00dd.dddd will be added to the MAC address table.

C. The frame will be forwarded out of port fa0/3 only.

D. The frame will be forwarded out of fa0/1, fa0/2, and fa0/3.

E. The frame will be forwarded out of all the active ports.

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A. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC address table.

D. The frame will be forwarded out of fa0/1, fa0/2, and fa0/3.

50

Which two options will help to solve the problem of a network that is suffering a broadcast
storm? (Choose two.)

A. a bridge

B. a router

C. a hub

D. a Layer 3 switch

E. an access point

B. a router

D. a Layer 3 switch

51

A switch receives a frame on one of its ports. There is no entry in the MAC address table
for the destination MAC address. What will the switch do with the frame?

A. drop the frame

B. forward it out of all ports except the one that received it

C. forward it out of all ports

D. store it until it learns the correct port

B. forward it out of all ports except the one that received it

52

A switch has 48 ports and 4 VLANs. How many collision and broadcast domains exist on the switch (collision, broadcast)?

A. 4, 48

B. 48, 4

C. 48, 1

D. 1, 48

E. 4, 1

B. 48, 4

53

An administrator is in the process of changing the configuration of a router. What command
will allow the administrator to check the changes that have been made prior to saving the
new configuration?

A. Router# show startup-config

B. Router# show current-config

C. Router# show running-config

D. Router# show memory

E. Router# show flash

F. Router# show processes

C. Router# show running-config

54

Which option is a valid IPv6 address?

A. 2001:0000:130F::099a::12a

B. 2002:7654:A1AD:61:81AF:CCC1

C. FEC0:ABCD:WXYZ:0067::2A4

D. 2004:1:25A4:886F::1

D. 2004:1:25A4:886F::1

55

Which address are OSPF hello packets addressed to on point-to-point networks?

A. 224.0.0.5

B. 172.16.0.1

C. 192.168.0.5

D. 223.0.0.1

E. 254.255.255.255

A. 224.0.0.5

56

Why are two OSPF designated routers identified on Core-Router?

A. Core-Router is connected to more than one multi-access network.

B. The router at 208.149.23.130 is a secondary DR in case the primary fails.

C. Two router IDs have the same OSPF priority and are therefore tied for DR election

D. The DR election is still underway and there are two contenders for the role.

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A. Core-Router is connected to more than one multi-access network.

57

The network is converged.After link-state advertisements are received from Router_A, what information will Router_E contain in its routing table for the subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96?

A. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, FastEthemet0/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0

B. 208.149.23.64[110/1] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0

C. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0

D. 208.149.23.64[110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial1/0

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A. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, FastEthemet0/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0

58

Which characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose three.)

A. provides common view of entire topology

B. exchanges routing tables with neighbors

C. calculates shortest path

D. utilizes event-triggered updates

E. utilizes frequent periodic updates

A. provides common view of entire topology

C. calculates shortest path

D. utilizes event-triggered updates

59

If CDP is enabled on all devices and interfaces, which devices will appear in the output of a
show cdp neighbors command issued from R2?

A. R2 and R3

B. R1 and R3

C. R3 and S2

D. R1, S1, S2, and R3

E. R1, S1, S2, R3, and S3

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C. R3 and S2

60

After the network has converged, what type of messaging, if any, occurs between R3 and R4?

A. No messages are exchanged

B. Hellos are sent every 10 seconds.

C. The full database from each router is sent every 30 seconds.

D. The routing table from each router is sent every 60 seconds.

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B. Hellos are sent every 10 seconds.

61

Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router
ID will OSPF use for this router?

A. 10.1.1.2

B. 10.154.154.1

C. 172.16.5.1

D. 192.168.5.3

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C. 172.16.5.1

62

Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three.)

A. It supports VLSM.

B. It is used to route between autonomous systems.

C. It confines network instability to one area of the network.

D. It increases routing overhead on the network.

E. It allows extensive control of routing updates.

F. It is simpler to configure than RIP v2.

A. It supports VLSM.

C. It confines network instability to one area of the network.

E. It allows extensive control of routing updates.

63

Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages
of using default routes? (Choose two)

A. They establish routes that will never go down.

B. They keep routing tables small.

C. They require a great deal of CPU power.

D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table

E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.

B. They keep routing tables small.

D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table

64

An administrator is working with the 192.168.4.0 network, which has been subnetted with a
/26 mask. Which two addresses can be assigned to hosts within the same subnet?
(Choose two.)

A. 192.168.4.61

B. 192.168.4.63

C. 192.168.4.67

D. 192.168.4.125

E. 192.168.4.128

F. 192.168.4.132

C. 192.168.4.67

D. 192.168.4.125

65

Given an IP address of 192.168.1.42 255.255.255.248, what is the subnet address?

A. 192.168.1.8/29

B. 192.168.1.32/27

C. 192.168.1.40/29

D. 192.168.1.16/28

E. 192.168.1.48/29

C. 192.168.1.40/29

66

Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)

A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.

B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.

C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.

D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.

E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.

B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.

C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.

67

What is the OSPF default frequency, in seconds, at which a Cisco router sends hello
packets on a multi-access network?

A. 10

B. 40

C. 30

D. 20

A. 10

68

The corporate router receives an IP packet with a source IP address of 192.168.214.20 and a destination address of 192.168.22.3. What will the router do with this packet?

A. It will encapsulate the packet as Frame Relay and forward it out interface Serial 0/0.117.

B. It will discard the packet and send an ICMP Destination Unreachable message out interface FastEthernet 0/0.

C. It will forward the packet out interface Serial 0/1 and send an ICMP Echo Reply message out interface serial 0/0.102.

D. It will change the IP packet to an ARP frame and forward it out FastEthernet 0/0.

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B. It will discard the packet and send an ICMP Destination Unreachable message out interface FastEthernet 0/0.

69

On a live network, which commands will verify the operational status of router interfaces?
(Choose two.)

A. Router# show interfaces

B. Router# show ip protocols

C. Router# debug interface

D. Router# show ip interface brief

E. Router# show start

A. Router# show interfaces

D. Router# show ip interface brief

70

Which statement about IPv6 is true?

A. Addresses are not hierarchical and are assigned at random.

B. Only one IPv6 address can exist on a given interface.

C. There are 2.7 billion addresses available.

D. Broadcasts have been eliminated and replaced with multicasts.

D. Broadcasts have been eliminated and replaced with multicasts.

71

If the router Cisco returns the given output and has not had its router ID set manually, what value will OSPF use as its router ID?

A. 192.168.1.1

B. 172.16.1.1

C. 1.1.1.1

D. 2.2.2.2

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D. 2.2.2.2

72

The network manager has requested a 300-workstation expansion of the network. The workstations are to be installed in a single broadcast domain, but each workstation must have its own collision domain. The expansion is to be as cost-effective as possible while still meeting the requirements. Which three items will adequately fulfill the request? (Choose three).

A. One IP subnet with a mask of 255.255.254.0

B. Two IP subnets with a mask of 255.255.255.0

C. Seven 48-port hubs

D. Seven 48-port switches

E. One router interface

F. Seven router interfaces

A. One IP subnet with a mask of 255.255.254.0

D. Seven 48-port switches

E. One router interface

73

What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the
routing table of a Cisco OSPF router?

A. 2

B. 8

C. 16

D. unlimited

B. 8

74

What is the subnet address for the IP address 172.19.20.23/28?

A. 172.19.20.0

B. 172.19.20.15

C. 172.19.20.16

D. 172.19.20.20

E. 172.19.20.32

C. 172.19.20.16

75

If an Ethernet port on a router was assigned an IP address of 172.16.112.1/20, what is the maximum number of hosts allowed on this subnet?

A. 1024

B. 2046

C. 4094

D. 4096

E. 8190

C. 4094

76

When running OSPF, what would cause router A not to form an adjacency with router B?

A. The loopback addresses are on different subnets.

B. The values of the dead timers on the routers are different.

C. Route summarization is enabled on both routers.

D. The process identifier on router A is different than the process identifier on router B.

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B. The values of the dead timers on the routers are different.

77

Which default gateway address should be assigned to HostA?

A. 192.168.1.1

B. 192.168.1.65

C. 192.168.1.66

D. 192.168.1.129

E. 10.1.1.1

F. 10.1.1.2

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B. 192.168.1.65

78

Which statement describes the process ID that is used to run OSPF on a router?

A. It is globally significant and is used to represent the AS number.

B. It is locally significant and is used to identify an instance of the OSPF database.

C. It is globally significant and is used to identify OSPF stub areas.

D. It is locally significant and must be the same throughout an area.

B. It is locally significant and is used to identify an instance of the OSPF database.

79

Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. This is a default route.

B. Adding the subnet mask is optional for the ip route command.

C. This will allow any host on the 172.16.1.0 network to reach all known destinations beyond RouterA.

D. This command is incorrect, it needs to specify the interface, such as s0/0/0 rather than an IP address.

E. The same command needs to be entered on RouterA so that hosts on the 172.16.1.0 network can reach network 10.0.0.0.

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A. This is a default route.

C. This will allow any host on the 172.16.1.0 network to reach all known destinations beyond RouterA.

80

Which of the following describe the process identifier that is used to run OSPF on a router?
(Choose two)

A. It is locally significant.

B. It is globally significant.

C. It is needed to identify a unique instance of an OSPF database.

D. It is an optional parameter required only if multiple OSPF processes are running on the router.

E. All routers in the same OSPF area must have the same process ID if they are to exchange routing information.

A. It is locally significant.

C. It is needed to identify a unique instance of an OSPF database.

81

Which two of these functions do routers perform on packets? (Choose two.)

A. Examine the Layer 2 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the next hops for the packets

B. Update the Layer 2 headers of outbound packets with the MAC addresses of the next hops

C. Examine the Layer 3 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the next hops for the packets

D. Examine the Layer 3 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the complete paths along which the packets will be routed to their ultimate destinations

E. Update the Layer 3 headers of outbound packets so that the packets are properly directed to valid next hops

F. Update the Layer 3 headers of outbound packets so that the packets are properly directed to their ultimate destinations

B. Update the Layer 2 headers of outbound packets with the MAC addresses of the next hops

C. Examine the Layer 3 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the next hops for the packets

82

The enterprise has decided to use the network address 172.16.0.0. The network
administrator needs to design a classful addressing scheme to accommodate the three subnets, with 30, 40, and 50 hosts, as shown. What subnet mask would accommodate this network?

A. 255.255.255.192

B. 255.255.255.224

C. 255.255.255.240

D. 255.255.255.248

E. 255.255.255.252

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A. 255.255.255.192

83

To allow or prevent load balancing to network 172.16.3.0/24, which of the following
commands could be used in R2? (Choose two.)

A. R2(config-if)#clock rate

B. R2(config-if)#bandwidth

C. R2(config-if)#ip ospf cost

D. R2(config-if)#ip ospf priority

E. R2(config-router)#distance ospf

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B. R2(config-if)#bandwidth

C. R2(config-if)#ip ospf cost

84

What is the simplest way to configure routing between the regional office network
10.89.0.0/20 and the corporate network?

A. router1(config)#ip route 10.89.0.0 255.255.240.0 10.89.16.2

B. router2(config)#ip route 10.89.3.0 255.255.0.0 10.89.16.2

C. router1(config)#ip route 10.89.0.0 255.255.240.0 10.89.16.1

D. router2(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.89.16.1

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D. router2(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.89.16.1

85

Which of the following IP addresses are valid Class B host addresses if a default Class B
mask is in use? (Choose two.)

A. 10.6.8.35

B. 133.6.5.4

C. 192.168.5.9

D. 127.0.0.1

E. 190.6.5.4

B. 133.6.5.4

E. 190.6.5.4

86

What is the subnet address of 172.16.159.159/22?

A. 172.16.0.0

B. 172.16.128.0

C. 172.16.156.0

D. 172.16.159.0

E. 172.16.159.128

F. 172.16.192.0

C. 172.16.156.0

87

Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?

A. Bandwidth

B. Bandwidth and Delay

C. Bandwidth, Delay, and MTU

D. Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay, and Load

A. Bandwidth

88

OSPF routing uses the concept of areas. What are the characteristics of OSPF areas?
(Choose Three.)

A. Each OSPF area requires a loopback interface to be configured.

B. Areas may be assigned any number from 0 to 65535.

C. Area 0 is called the backbone area.

D. Hierarchical OSPF networks do not require multiple areas.

E. Multiple OSPF areas must connect to area 0.

F. Single area OSPF networks must be configured in area 1.

B. Areas may be assigned any number from 0 to 65535.

C. Area 0 is called the backbone area.

E. Multiple OSPF areas must connect to area 0.

89

Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB?
(Choose two.)

A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.

B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.

C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.

D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.

E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.

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B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.

C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.

90

What OSPF command, when configured, will include all interfaces into area 0?

A. network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0

B. network 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0

C. network 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 area 0

D. network all-interfaces area 0

A. network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0

91

Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add
network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? (Choose two.)

A. Router(config)# router ospf 0

B. Router(config)# router ospf 1

C. Router(config)# router ospf area 0

D. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0

E. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

F. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

B. Router(config)# router ospf 1

E. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

92

PC1 pings PC2. What three things will CORE router do with the data that is received from PC1? (Choose three.)

A. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet0/1 of CORE router.

B. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet1/0 of CORE router.

C. CORE router will replace the destination IP address of the packets with the IP address of PC2.

D. CORE router will replace the MAC address of PC2 in the destination MAC address of the frames.

E. CORE router will put the IP address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the place of the source IP address in the packets.

F. CORE router will put the MAC address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the place of the source MAC address.

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B. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet1/0 of CORE router.

D. CORE router will replace the MAC address of PC2 in the destination MAC address of the frames.

F. CORE router will put the MAC address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the place of the source MAC address.

93

What is the network address for the host with IP address 192.168.23.61/28?

A. 192.168.23.0

B. 192.168.23.32

C. 192.168.23.48

D. 192.168.23.56

E. 192.168.23.60

C. 192.168.23.48

94

Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.)

A. Global addresses start with 2000::/3.

B. Link-local addresses start with FE00:/12.

C. Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10.

D. There is only one loopback address and it is ::1.

E. If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the interface.

A. Global addresses start with 2000::/3.

D. There is only one loopback address and it is ::1.

95

Which IOS command is used to initiate a login into a VTY port on a remote router?

A. router# login

B. router# telnet

C. router# trace

D. router# ping

E. router(config)# line vty 0 5

F. router(config-line)# login

B. router# telnet

96

An administrator must assign static IP addresses to the servers in a network. For network 192.168.20.24/29, the router is assigned the first usable host address while the sales server is given the last usable host address. Which of the following should be entered into the IP properties box for the sales server?

A. IP address: 192.168.20.14 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.9

B. IP address: 192.168.20.254 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.1

C. IP address: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25

D. IP address: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.17

E. IP address: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25

C. IP address: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25

97

Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?

A. ipv6 host

B. ipv6 unicast-routing

C. ipv6 local

D. ipv6 neighbor

B. ipv6 unicast-routing

98

What is the purpose of assigning an IP address to a switch?

A. provides local hosts with a default gateway address

B. allows remote management of the switch

C. allows the switch to respond to ARP requests between two hosts

D. ensures that hosts on the same LAN can communicate with each other

B. allows remote management of the switch

99

Which command can you use to manually assign a static IPV6 address to a router
interface?

A. ipv6 address PREFIX_1::1/64

B. ipv6 autoconfig 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64

C. ipv6 autoconfig

D. ipv6 address 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64

D. ipv6 address 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64

100

Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?

A. show ip ospf link-state

B. show ip ospf lsa database

C. show ip ospf neighbors

D. show ip ospf database

D. show ip ospf database

101

A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?

A. The OSPF area is not configured properly.

B. The priority on R1 should be set higher.

C. The cost on R1 should be set higher.

D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.

E. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network.

F. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.

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D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.

102

Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router? (Choose two.)
Router(config)# router ospf 1

A. All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID.

B. Only one process number can be used on the same router.

C. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes

D. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.

E. Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.

C. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes

D. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.

103

If the resume command is entered after the sequence that is shown in the exhibit, which router prompt will be displayed?

A. Router1>

B. Router1#

C. Router2>

D. Router2#

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C. Router2>

104

Which router command will configure an interface with the IP address 10.10.80.1/19?

A. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1/19

B. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.0.0

C. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.255.0

D. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.224.0

E. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.240.0

F. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.255.240

D. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.224.0

105

Which IP addresses are valid for hosts belonging to the 10.1.160.0/20 subnet? (Choos three.)

A. 10.1.168.0

B. 10.1.176.1

C. 10.1.174.255

D. 10.1.160.255

E. 10.1.160.0

F. 10.1.175.255

A. 10.1.168.0

C. 10.1.174.255

D. 10.1.160.255

106

Which one of the following IP addresses is the last valid host in the subnet using mask 255.255.255.224?

A. 192.168.2.63

B. 192.168.2.62

C. 192.168.2.61

D. 192.168.2.60

E. 192.168.2.32

B. 192.168.2.62

107

Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)

A. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.

B. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.

C. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0

D. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.

E. The network is not subnetted.

B. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.

D. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.

108

Given a Class C IP address subnetted with a /30 subnet mask, how many valid host IP addresses are available on each of the subnets?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 4

D. 8

E. 252

F. 254

B. 2

109

How many bits are contained in each field of an IPv6 address?

A. 24

B. 4

C. 8

D. 16

D. 16

110

R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible
reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)

A. All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1.

B. R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3.

C. A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being established.

D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3.

E. EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance.

F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.

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D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3.

F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.

111

Which IP address is a private address?

A. 12.0.0.1

B. 168.172.19.39

C. 172.20.14.36

D. 172.33.194.30

E. 192.169.42.34

C. 172.20.14.36

112

A network administrator is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF network. The networks attached to the new router do not appear in the routing tables of the other OSPF routers. Given the information in the partial configuration shown below, what configuration error is causing this problem?
Router(config)# router ospf 1
Router(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0

A. The process id is configured improperly.

B. The OSPF area is configured improperly.

C. The network wildcard mask is configured improperly.

D. The network number is configured improperly.

E. The AS is configured improperly.

F. The network subnet mask is configured improperly.

C. The network wildcard mask is configured improperly.

113

Which three approaches can be used while migrating from an IPv4 addressing scheme to an IPv6 scheme? (Choose three)

A. static mapping of IPv4 address to IPv6 addresses

B. configuring IPv4 tunnels between IPv6 islands

C. use DHCPv6 to map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses

D. use proxying and translation (NAT-PT) to translate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets

E. configure IPv6 directly

F. enable dual-stack routing

B. configuring IPv4 tunnels between IPv6 islands

D. use proxying and translation (NAT-PT) to translate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets

F. enable dual-stack routing

114

OSPF is configured using default classful addressing. With all routers and interfaces operational, how many networks will be in the routing table of R1 that are indicated to be learned by OSPF?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

E. 6

F. 7

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C. 4

115

The two routers have had their startup configurations cleared and have been restarted. At a minimum, what must the administrator do to enable CDP to exchange information between R1 and R2?

A. Configure the router with the cdp enable command.

B. Enter no shutdown commands on the R1 and R2 fa0/1 interfaces.

C. Configure IP addressing and no shutdown commands on both the R1 and R2 fa0/1 interfaces.

D. Configure IP addressing and no shutdown commands on either of the R1 or R2 fa0/1 interfaces.

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B. Enter no shutdown commands on the R1 and R2 fa0/1 interfaces.

116

Which command would you use to configure a static route on Router1 to network
192.168.202.0/24 with a nondefault administrative distance?

A. router1(config)#ip route 1 192.168.201.1 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2

B. router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 1

C. router1(config)#ip route 5 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2

D. router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 5

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D. router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 5

117

Identify the four valid IPv6 addresses. (Choose four.)

A. ::

B. ::192:168:0:1

C. 2000::

D. 2001:3452:4952:2837::

E. 2002:c0a8:101::42

F. 2003:dead:beef:4dad:23:46:bb:101

A. ::

B. ::192:168:0:1

E. 2002:c0a8:101::42

F. 2003:dead:beef:4dad:23:46:bb:101

118

A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?

A. the OSPF route

B. the EIGRP route

C. the RIPv2 route

D. all three routes

E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes

B. the EIGRP route

119

What does administrative distance refer to?

A. the cost of a link between two neighboring routers

B. the advertised cost to reach a network

C. the cost to reach a network that is administratively set

D. a measure of the trustworthiness of a routing information source

D. a measure of the trustworthiness of a routing information source

120

What command sequence will configure a router to run OSPF and add network 10.1.1.0
/24 to area 0?

A. router ospf area 0 network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

B. router ospf network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255

C. router ospf 1 network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

D. router ospf area 0 network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

E. router ospf network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

F. router ospf 1 network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255

C. router ospf 1 network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

121

The internetwork infrastructure of company XYZ consists of a single OSPF area as shown in the graphic. There is concern that a lack of router resources is impeding internetwork performance. As part of examining the router resources, the OSPF DRs need to be known. All the router OSPF priorities are at the default and the router IDs are shown with each router.

Which routers are likely to have been elected as DR? (Choose two.)

A. Corp-1

B. Corp-2

C. Corp-3

D. Corp-4

E. Branch-1

F. Branch-2

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D. Corp-4

F. Branch-2

122

Why do large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose three.)

A. to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth

B. to reduce routing overhead

C. to speed up convergence

D. to confine network instability to single areas of the network

E. to reduce the complexity of router configuration

F. to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches

B. to reduce routing overhead

C. to speed up convergence

D. to confine network instability to single areas of the network

123

Which two commands will display the current IP address and basic Layer 1 and 2 status of an interface? (Choose two.)

A. router#show version

B. router#show ip interface

C. router#show protocols

D. router#show controllers

E. router#show running-config

B. router#show ip interface

C. router#show protocols

124

A network associate has configured OSPF with the command:
City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0 After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three.)

A. FastEthernet0 /0

B. FastEthernet0 /1

C. Serial0/0

D. Serial0/1.102

E. Serial0/1.103

F. Serial0/1.104

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B. FastEthernet0 /1

C. Serial0/0

D. Serial0/1.102

125

The internetwork is using subnets of the address 192.168.1.0 with a subnet mask of
255.255.255.224. The routing protocol in use is RIP version 1. Which address could be assigned to the FastEthernet interface on RouterA?

A. 192.168.1.31

B. 192.168.1.64

C. 192.168.1.127

D. 192.168.1.190

E. 192.168.1.192

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D. 192.168.1.190

126

ROUTER# show ip route
192.168.12.0/24 is variably subnetted, 9 subnets, 3 masks
C 192.168.12.64 /28 is directly connected, Loopback1
C 192.168.12.32 /28 is directly connected, Ethernet0
C 192.168.12.48 /28 is directly connected, Loopback0
O 192.168.12.236 /30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0
C 192.168.12.232 /30 is directly connected, Serial0
O 192.168.12.245 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0
O 192.168.12.240 /30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0
O 192.168.12.253 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:37, Serial0
O 192.168.12.249 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:37, Serial0
O 192.168.12.240/30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial 0
To what does the 128 refer to in the router output above?

A. OSPF cost

B. OSPF priority

C. OSPF hop count

D. OSPF ID number

E. OSPF administrative distance

A. OSPF cost

127

What two things does a router do when it forwards a packet? (Choose two.)

A. switches the packet to the appropriate outgoing interfaces

B. computes the destination host address

C. determines the next hop on the path

D. updates the destination IP address

E. forwards ARP requests

A. switches the packet to the appropriate outgoing interfaces

C. determines the next hop on the path

128

What are two benefits of using a single OSPF area network design? (Choose two.)

A. It is less CPU intensive for routers in the single area.

B. It reduces the types of LSAs that are generated.

C. It removes the need for virtual links.

D. It increases LSA response times.

E. It reduces the number of required OSPF neighbor adjacencies.

B. It reduces the types of LSAs that are generated.

C. It removes the need for virtual links.

129

What information can be used by a router running a link-state protocol to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two.)

A. hello packets

B. SAP messages sent by other routers

C. LSAs from other routers

D. beacons received on point-to-point links

E. routing tables received from other link-state routers

F. TTL packets from designated routers

A. hello packets

C. LSAs from other routers

130

Which statement is true?

A. An IPv6 address is 64 bits long and is represented as hexadecimal characters.

B. An IPv6 address is 32 bits long and is represented as decimal digits.

C. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long and is represented as decimal digits.

D. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long and is represented as hexadecimal characters.

D. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long and is represented as hexadecimal characters.

131

Which statements are TRUE regarding Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses?
(Choose three.)

A. An IPv6 address is divided into eight 16-bit groups.

B. A double colon (::) can only be used once in a single IPv6 address.

C. IPv6 addresses are 196 bits in length.

D. Leading zeros cannot be omitted in an IPv6 address.

E. Groups with a value of 0 can be represented with a single 0 in IPv6 address.

A. An IPv6 address is divided into eight 16-bit groups.

B. A double colon (::) can only be used once in a single IPv6 address.

E. Groups with a value of 0 can be represented with a single 0 in IPv6 address.

132

Which three statements are correct about RIP version 2? (Choose three)

A. It uses broadcast for its routing updates.

B. It supports authentication.

C. It is a classless routing protocol.

D. It has a lower default administrative distance then RIP version 1.

E. It has the same maximum hop count as RIP version 1.

F. It does not send the subnet mask any updates.

B. It supports authentication.

C. It is a classless routing protocol.

E. It has the same maximum hop count as RIP version 1.

133

R1 is configured with the default configuration of OSPF. From the following list of IP
addresses configured on R1, which address will the OSPF process select as the router ID?

A. 192.168.0.1

B. 172.16.1.1

C. 172.16.2.1

D. 172.16.2.225

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A. 192.168.0.1

134

The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command?

A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.

B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.

C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.

D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.

C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.

135

What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?

A. 90

B. 100

C. 110

D. 120

C. 110

136

Assume that all router interfaces are operational and correctly configured. In addition, assume that OSPF has been correctly configured on router R2. How will the default route configured on R1 affect the operation of R2?

A. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately.

B. Any packet destined for a network that is not referenced in the routing table of router R2 will be directed to R1. R1 will then send that packet back to R2 and a routing loop will occur.

C. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R1 will be dropped.

D. The networks directly connected to router R2 will not be able to communicate with the 172.16.100.0, 172.16.100.128, and 172.16.100.64 subnetworks.

E. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately because of the lack of a gateway on R1.

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B. Any packet destined for a network that is not referenced in the routing table of router R2 will be directed to R1. R1 will then send that packet back to R2 and a routing loop will occur.

137

How many addresses will be available for dynamic NAT translation when a router is configured with the following commands?
Router(config)#ip nat pool TAME 209.165.201.23 209.165.201.30 netmask
255.255.255.224
Router(config)#ip nat inside source list 9 pool TAME

A. 7

B. 8

C. 9

D. 10

E. 24

F. 32

B. 8

138

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139

When configuring NAT, the Internet interface is considered to be what?

A. local

B. inside

C. global

D. outside

D. outside

140

The ip helper-address command does what?

A. assigns an IP address to a host

B. resolves an IP address from a DNS server

C. relays a DHCP request across networks

D. resolves an IP address overlapping issue

C. relays a DHCP request across networks

141

What happens when computers on a private network attempt to connect to the Internet through a Cisco router running PAT?

A. The router uses the same IP address but a different TCP source port number for each connection.

B. An IP address is assigned based on the priority of the computer requesting the connection.

C. The router selects an address from a pool of one-to-one address mappings held in the lookup table.

D. The router assigns a unique IP address from a pool of legally registered addresses for the duration of the connection.

A. The router uses the same IP address but a different TCP source port number for each connection.

142

In the configuration of NAT, what does the keyword overload signify?

A. When bandwidth is insufficient, some hosts will not be allowed to access network translation.

B. The pool of IP addresses has been exhausted.

C. Multiple internal hosts will use one IP address to access external network resources.

D. If the number of available IP addresses is exceeded, excess traffic will use the specified address pool.

C. Multiple internal hosts will use one IP address to access external network resources.

143

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144

The network administrator is using a Windows PC application that is called putty.exe for remote communication to a switch for network troubleshooting. Which two protocols could be used during this communication? (Choose two.)

A. SNMP

B. HTTP

C. Telnet

D. RMON

E. SSH

C. Telnet

E. SSH

145

A company wants to use NAT in the network shown. Which commands will apply the NAT configuration to the proper interfaces? (Choose two.)

A. R1(config)# interface serial0/1 R1(config-if)# ip nat inside

B. R1(config)# interface serial0/1 R1(config-if)# ip nat outside

C. R1(config)# interface fastethernet0/0 R1(config-if)# ip nat inside

D. R1(config)# interface fastethernet0/0 R1(config-if)# ip nat outside

E. R1(config)# interface serial0/1 R1(config-if)# ip nat outside source pool 200.2.2.18 255.255.255.252

F. R1(config)# interface fastethernet0/0 R1(config-if)# ip nat inside source 10.10.0.0 255.255.255.0

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B. R1(config)# interface serial0/1 R1(config-if)# ip nat outside

C. R1(config)# interface fastethernet0/0 R1(config-if)# ip nat inside

146

A network administrator cannot connect to a remote router by using SSH. Part of the show interfaces command is shown.
router#show interfaces
Serial0/1/0 is up, line protocol is down
At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting?

A. physical

B. data link

C. network

D. transport

B. data link

147

Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding Cisco access lists? (Choose two.)

A. In an inbound access list, packets are filtered as they enter an interface.

B. In an inbound access list, packets are filtered before they exit an interface.

C. Extended access lists are used to filter protocol-specific packets.

D. You must specify a deny statement at the end of each access list to filter unwanted traffic.

E. When a line is added to an existing access list, it is inserted at the beginning of the access list.

A. In an inbound access list, packets are filtered as they enter an interface.

C. Extended access lists are used to filter protocol-specific packets.

148

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149

What is the best practice when assigning IP addresses in a small office of six hosts?

A. Use a DHCP server that is located at the headquarters.

B. Use a DHCP server that is located at the branch office.

C. Assign the addresses by using the local CDP protocol.

D. Assign the addresses statically on each node.

D. Assign the addresses statically on each node.

150

What does the "Inside Global" address represent in the configuration of NAT?

A. the summarized address for all of the internal subnetted addresses

B. the MAC address of the router used by inside hosts to connect to the Internet

C. a globally unique, private IP address assigned to a host on the inside network

D. a registered address that represents an inside host to an outside network

D. a registered address that represents an inside host to an outside network

151

A person is trying to send a file from a host on Network A of the JAX Company to a server on Network Z of the XYZ Company. The file transfer fails. The host on Network A can communicate with other hosts on Network A. Which command, issued from router RTA, would be the most useful for troubleshooting this problem?

A. show flash:

B. show history

C. show version

D. show interfaces

E. show controllers serial

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D. show interfaces

152

Select three options which are security issues with the current configuration of SwitchA. (Choose three.)

A. Privilege mode is protected with an unencrypted password

B. Inappropriate wording in banner message

C. Virtual terminal lines are protected only by a password requirement

D. Both the username and password are weak

E. Telnet connections can be used to remotely manage the switch

F. Cisco user will be granted privilege level 15 by default

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A. Privilege mode is protected with an unencrypted password

B. Inappropriate wording in banner message

D. Both the username and password are weak

153

Which of the following is true regarding the configuration of SwitchA?

A. only 5 simultaneous remote connections are possible

B. remote connections using ssh will require a username and password

C. only connections from the local network will be possible

D. console access to SwitchA requires a password

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B. remote connections using ssh will require a username and password

154

A problem with network connectivity has been observed. It is suspected that the cable connected to switch port Fa0/9 on Switch1 is disconnected. What would be an effect of this cable being disconnected?

A. Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9 until the cable is reconnected.

B. Communication between VLAN3 and the other VLANs would be disabled.

C. The transfer of files from Host B to the server in VLAN9 would be significantly slower.

D. For less than a minute, Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9. Then normal network function would resume.

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D. For less than a minute, Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9. Then normal network function would resume.

155

A user cannot reach any web sites on the Internet, but others in the department are not having a problem. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

A. IP routing is not enabled.

B. The default gateway is not in the same subnet.

C. A DNS server address is not reachable by the PC.

D. A DHCP server address is not reachable by the PC.

E. NAT has not been configured on the router that connects to the Internet.

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C. A DNS server address is not reachable by the PC.

156

Why did the device return this message?

A. The command requires additional options or parameters

B. There is no show command that starts with ru.

C. The command is being executed from the wrong router mode.

D. There is more than one show command that starts with the letters ru.

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D. There is more than one show command that starts with the letters ru.

157

From which of the following attacks can Message Authentication Code (MAC) shield your network?

A. DoS

B. DDoS

C. spoofing

D. SYN floods

C. spoofing

158

What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?

A. Only the enable password will be encrypted.

B. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted.

C. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.

D. It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the configuration.

E. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.

E. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.

159

The following commands are entered on the router:
Burbank(config)# enable secret fortress
Burbank(config)# line con 0
Burbank(config-line)# login
Burbank(config-line)# password n0way1n
Burbank(config-line)# exit
Burbank(config)# service password-encryption
What is the purpose of the last command entered?

A. to require the user to enter an encrypted password during the login process

B. to prevent the vty, console, and enable passwords from being displayed in plain text in the configuration files

C. to encrypt the enable secret password

D. to provide login encryption services between hosts attached to the router

B. to prevent the vty, console, and enable passwords from being displayed in plain text in the configuration files

160

If a host experiences intermittent issues that relate to congestion within a network while remaining connected, what could cause congestion on this LAN?

A. half-duplex operation

B. broadcast storms

C. network segmentation

D. multicasting

B. broadcast storms

161

A technician is troubleshooting a host connectivity problem. The host is unable to ping a

A. A remote physical layer problem exists.

B. The host NIC is not functioning.

C. TCP/IP has not been correctly installed on the host.

D. A local physical layer problem exists.

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D. A local physical layer problem exists.

162

How can you ensure that only the MAC address of a server is allowed by switch port Fa0/1?

A. Configure port Fa0/1 to accept connections only from the static IP address of the server.

B. Configure the server MAC address as a static entry of port security.

C. Use a proprietary connector type on Fa0/1 that is incomputable with other host connectors.

D. Bind the IP address of the server to its MAC address on the switch to prevent other hosts from spoofing the server IP address.

B. Configure the server MAC address as a static entry of port security.

163

A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design?

A. This design will function as intended.

B. Spanning-tree will need to be used.

C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme.

D. The connection between switches should be a trunk.

E. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.

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C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme.

164

A network administrator has configured a Catalyst 2950 switch for remote management by pasting into the console the configuration commands that are shown in the exhibit. However, a Telnet session cannot be successfully established from a remote host. What should be done to fix this problem?

A. Change the first line to interface fastethernet 0/1.

B. Change the first line to interface vlan 0/1.

C. Change the fifth line to ip default-gateway 192.168.17.241.

D. Change the fifth line to ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.17.1.

E. Change the sixth line to line con 0.

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C. Change the fifth line to ip default-gateway 192.168.17.241.

165

Why was this message received?

A. No VTY password has been set.

B. No enable password has been set.

C. No console password has been set.

D. No enable secret password has been set.

E. The login command has not been set on CON 0

F. The login command has not been set on the VTY ports.

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A. No VTY password has been set.

166

Select two options which are security Issues which need to be modified before RouterA is used? (Choose two.)

A. unencrypted weak password is configured to protect privilege mode

B. inappropriate wording in banner message

C. the virtual terminal lines have a weak password configured

D. virtual terminal lines have a password, but it will not be used

E. configuration supports un-secure web server access

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B. inappropriate wording in banner message

D. virtual terminal lines have a password, but it will not be used

167

The DHCP settings have recently been changed on the DHCP server and the client is no longer able to reach network resources. What should be done to correct this situation?

A. Verify that the DNS server address is correct in the DHCP pool.

B. Ping the default gateway to populate the ARP cache.

C. Use the tracert command on the DHCP client to first determine where the problem is located.

D. Clear all DHCP leases on the router to prevent address conflicts.

E. Issue the ipconfig command with the /release and /renew options in a command window.

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E. Issue the ipconfig command with the /release and /renew options in a command window.

168

What are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from outside network security threats? (Choose two.)

A. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports.

B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.

C. Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted.

D. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.

E. Prevent the loss of passwords by disabling password encryption.

B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.

D. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.

169

The junior network support staff provided the diagram as a recommended configuration for the first phase of a four-phase network expansion project. The entire network expansion will have over 1000 users on 14 network segments and has been allocated this IP address space.
192.168.1.1 through 192.168.5.255
192.168.100.1 through 192.168.100.255
What are three problems with this design? (Choose three.)

A. The AREA 1 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.

B. The AREA 3 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.

C. AREA 2 could use a mask of /25 to conserve IP address space.

D. The network address space that is provided requires a single network-wide mask.

E. The router-to-router connection is wasting address space.

F. The broadcast domain in AREA 1 is too large for IP to function.

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A. The AREA 1 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.

C. AREA 2 could use a mask of /25 to conserve IP address space.

E. The router-to-router connection is wasting address space.

170

A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem on the serial interfaces. The output from the show interfaces command on both routers shows that the serial interface is up, line protocol is down. Given the partial output for the show running-config in the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of this problem?

A. The serial cable is bad.

B. The MTU is incorrectly configured.

C. The Layer 2 framing is misconfigured.

D. The IP addresses are not in the same subnet.

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C. The Layer 2 framing is misconfigured.

171

An administrator cannot connect from R1 to R2. To troubleshoot this problem, the
administrator has entered the command shown in the exhibit. Based on the output shown, what could be the problem?

A. The serial interface is configured for half duplex.

B. The serial interface does not have a cable attached.

C. The serial interface has the wrong type of cable attached.

D. The serial interface is configured for the wrong frame size.

E. The serial interface has a full buffer.

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C. The serial interface has the wrong type of cable attached.

172

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173

The remote networks 172.16.10.0, 172.16.20.0, and 172.16.30.0 are accessed through the Central router's serial 0/0 interface. No users are able to access 172.16.20.0. After reviewing the command output shown in the graphic, what is the most likely cause of the problem?

A. no gateway of last resort on Central

B. Central router's not receiving 172.16.20.0 update

C. incorrect static route for 172.16.20.0

D. 172.16.20.0 not located in Central's routing table

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C. incorrect static route for 172.16.20.0

174

Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?

A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port

B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN

C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port

D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces

B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN

175

The network administrator made the entries that are shown and then saved the
configuration. From a console connection, what password or password sequence is required for the administrator to access privileged mode on Router1?

A. cisco

B. sanfran

C. sanjose

D. either cisco or sanfran

E. either cisco or sanjose

F. sanjose and sanfran

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B. sanfran

176

A technician pastes the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers shown. Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations.
A ping from Host1 to Host 2 fails, but the technician is able to ping the S0/0 interface of R2 from Host 1. The configurations of the hosts have been verified as correct. What could be the cause of the problem?

A. The serial cable on R1 needs to be replaced.

B. The interfaces on R2 are not configured properly

C. R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network.

D. The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.

E. The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers.

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C. R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network.

177

After the power-on-self test (POST), the system LED of a Cisco 2950 switch turns amber. What is the status of the switch?

A. The POST was successful.

B. The switch has a problem with the internal power supply and needs an external power supply to be attached.

C. POST failed and there is a problem that prevents the operating system from being loaded.

D. The switch has experienced an internal problem but data can still be forwarded at a slower rate.

E. The switch passed POST, but all the switch ports are busy.

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C. POST failed and there is a problem that prevents the operating system from being loaded.

178

Serial 0/0 does not respond to a ping request from a host on the FastEthernet 0/0 LAN. How can this problem be corrected?

A. Enable the Serial 0/0 interface.

B. Correct the IP address for Serial 0/0.

C. Correct the IP address for FastEthernet 0/0

D. Change the encapsulation type on Serial 0/0

E. Enable autoconfiguration on the Serial 0/0 interface

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A. Enable the Serial 0/0 interface.

179

What is the purpose of the switchport command?
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address 0018.DE8B.4BF8

A. It ensures that only the device with the MAC address 0018.DE8B.4BF8 will be able to connect to the port that is being configured.

B. It informs the switch that traffic destined for MAC address 0018.DE8B.4BF8 should only be sent to the port that is being configured.

C. It will act like an access list and the port will filter packets that have a source or destination MAC of 0018.DE8B.4BF8.

D. The switch will shut down the port of any traffic with source MAC address of 0018.DE8B.4BF8.

A. It ensures that only the device with the MAC address 0018.DE8B.4BF8 will be able to connect to the port that is being configured.

180

A company has placed a networked PC in a lobby so guests can have access to the corporate directory. A security concern is that someone will disconnect the directory PC and re-connect their laptop computer and have access to the corporate network. For the port servicing the lobby, which three configuration steps should be performed on the switch to prevent this? (Choose three.)

A. Enable port security.

B. Create the port as a trunk port.

C. Create the port as an access port.

D. Create the port as a protected port.

E. Set the port security aging time to 0.

F. Statically assign the MAC address to the address table.

G. Configure the switch to discover new MAC addresses after a set time of inactivity.

A. Enable port security.

C. Create the port as an access port.

F. Statically assign the MAC address to the address table.

181

Host A can communicate with Host B but not with Hosts C or D. How can the network administrator solve this problem?

A. Configure Hosts C and D with IP addresses in the 192.168.2.0 network.

B. Install a router and configure a route to route between VLANs 2 and 3.

C. Install a second switch and put Hosts C and D on that switch while Hosts A and B remain on the original switch.

D. Enable the VLAN trunking protocol on the switch.

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B. Install a router and configure a route to route between VLANs 2 and 3.

182

An administrator replaced the 10/100 Mb NIC in a desktop PC with a 1 Gb NIC and now the PC will not connect to the network. The administrator began troubleshooting on the switch. Using the switch output shown, what is the cause of the problem?

A. Speed is set to 100Mb/s.

B. Input flow control is off.

C. Encapsulation is set to ARPA.

D. The port is administratively down.

E. The counters have never been cleared.

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A. Speed is set to 100Mb/s.

183

An administrator has connected devices to a switch and, for security reasons, wants the dynamically learned MAC addresses from the address table added to the running configuration. What must be done to accomplish this?

A. Enable port security and use the keyword sticky.

B. Set the switchport mode to trunk and save the running configuration.

C. Use the switchport protected command to have the MAC addresses added to the configuration.

D. Use the no switchport port-security command to allow MAC addresses to be added to the configuration.

A. Enable port security and use the keyword sticky.

184

For security reasons, information about RTA, including platform and IP addresses, should not be accessible from the Internet. This information should, however, be accessible to devices on the internal networks of RTA. Which command or series of commands will accomplish these objectives?

A. RTA(config)#no cdp run

B. RTA(config)#no cdp enable

C. RTA(config)#interface s0/0 RTA(config-if)#no cdp run

D. RTA(config)#interface s0/0 RTA(config-if)#no cdp enable

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D. RTA(config)#interface s0/0 RTA(config-if)#no cdp enable

185

A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. What can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session?

A. decrease the window size

B. use a different source port for the session

C. decrease the sequence number

D. obtain a new IP address from the DHCP server

E. start a new session using UDP

A. decrease the window size

186

Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected by their serial interfaces as shown in the exhibit, but there is no data connectivity between them. The Atlanta router is known to have a correct configuration.

Given the partial configurations shown in the exhibit, what is the problem on the Brevardrouter that is causing the lack of connectivity?

A. A loopback is not set.

B. The IP address is incorrect.

C. The subnet mask is incorrect.

D. The serial line encapsulations are incompatible.

E. The maximum transmission unit (MTU) size is too large.

F. The bandwidth setting is incompatible with the connected interface.

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B. The IP address is incorrect.

187

The network administrator is testing connectivity from the branch router to the newly installed application server. What is the most likely reason for the first ping having a success rate of only 60 percent?

A. The network is likely to be congested, with the result that packets are being intermittently dropped.

B. The branch router had to resolve the application server MAC address.

C. There is a short delay while NAT translates the server IP address.

D. A routing table lookup delayed forwarding on the first two ping packets.

E. The branch router LAN interface should be upgraded to FastEthernet.

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B. The branch router had to resolve the application server MAC address.

188

The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)

A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.

B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.

C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.

D. Ensure the switch has power.

E. Reboot all of the devices.

F. Reseat all cables.

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B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.

D. Ensure the switch has power.

F. Reseat all cables.

189

Which two of the following are true regarding the configuration of RouterA? (Choose two.)

A. At least 5 simultaneous remote connections are possible

B. Only telnet protocol connections to RouterA are supported

C. Remote connections to RouterA using telnet will succeed

D. Console line connections will nevertime out due to inactivity

E. Since DHCP is not used on Fa0/1 there is not a need to use the NAT protocol

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A. At least 5 simultaneous remote connections are possible

C. Remote connections to RouterA using telnet will succeed

190

After configuring two interfaces on the HQ router, the network administrator notices an error message. What must be done to fix this error?

A. The serial interface must be configured first.

B. The serial interface must use the address 192.168.1.2

C. The subnet mask of the serial interface should be changed to 255.255.255.0

D. The subnet mask of the FastEthernet interface should be changed to 255.255.255.240

E. The address of the FastEthernet interface should be changed to 192.168.1.66

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D. The subnet mask of the FastEthernet interface should be changed to 255.255.255.240

191

What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?

A. Allow users to develop their own approach to network security.

B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals.

C. Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likelihood of passwords being forgotten.

D. Delay deployment of software patches and updates until their effect on end-user equipment is well known and widely reported.

E. Minimize network overhead by deactivating automatic antivirus client updates.

B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals.

192

Which component of a routing table entry represents the subnet mask?

A. routing protocol code

B. prefix

C. metric

D. network mask

D. network mask

193

Which option is the default switch port port-security violation mode?

A. shutdown

B. protect

C. shutdown vlan

D. restrict

A. shutdown

194

When a router makes a routing decision for a packet that is received from one network and destined to another, which portion of the packet does if replace?

A. Layer 2 frame header and trailer

B. Layer 3 IP address

C. Layer 5 session

D. Layer 4 protocol

A. Layer 2 frame header and trailer

195

Which feature allows a device to use a switch port that is configured for half-duplex to access the network?

A. CSMA/CD

B. IGMP

C. port security

D. split horizon

A. CSMA/CD

196

Under which circumstance should a network administrator implement one-way NAT?

A. when the network must route UDP traffic

B. when traffic that originates outside the network must be routed to internal hosts

C. when traffic that originates inside the network must be routed to internal hosts

D. when the network has few public IP addresses and many private IP addresses require outside access

B. when traffic that originates outside the network must be routed to internal hosts

197

Which routing protocol has the smallest default administrative distance?

A. IBGP

B. OSPF

C. IS-IS

D. EIGRP

E. RIP

D. EIGRP

198

Which function enables an administrator to route multiple VLANs on a router?

A. IEEE 802 1X

B. HSRP

C. port channel

D. router on a stick

D. router on a stick

199

Which statement about static routes is true?

A. The source interface can be configured to make routing decisions.

B. A subnet mask is entered for the next-hop address.

C. The subnet mask is 255.255 255.0 by default

D. The exit interface can be specified to indicate where the packets will be routed.

D. The exit interface can be specified to indicate where the packets will be routed.

200

Which component of the routing table ranks routing protocols according to their
preferences?

A. administrative distance

B. next hop

C. metric

D. routing protocol code

A. administrative distance

201

Which statement about routing protocols is true?

A. Link-state routing protocols choose a path by the number of hops to the destination.

B. OSPF is a link-state routing protocol.

C. Distance-vector routing protocols use the Shortest Path First algorithm.

D. IS-IS is a distance-vector routing protocol.

A. Link-state routing protocols choose a path by the number of hops to the destination.

202

Which statement about a router on a stick is true?

A. Its date plane router traffic for a single VI AN over two or more switches.

B. It uses multiple subinterfaces of a single interface to encapsulate traffic for different VLANs on the same subnet.

C. It requires the native VLAN to be disabled.

D. It uses multiple subinterfaces of a single interface to encapsulate traffic for different VLANs.

D. It uses multiple subinterfaces of a single interface to encapsulate traffic for different VLANs.

203

Configuration of which option is required on a Cisco switch for the Cisco IP phone to work?

A. PortFast on the interface

B. the interface as an access port to allow the voice VLAN ID

C. a voice VLAN ID in interface and global configuration mode

D. Cisco Discovery Protocol in global configuration mode

B. the interface as an access port to allow the voice VLAN ID

204

Two hosts are attached to a switch with the default configuration. Which statement about the configuration is true?

A. IP routing must be enabled to allow the two hosts to communicate.

B. The two hosts are in the same broadcast domain.

C. The switch must be configured with a VLAN to allow the two hosts to communicate.

D. Port security prevents the hosts from connecting to the switch.

A. IP routing must be enabled to allow the two hosts to communicate.

205

Which dynamic routing protocol uses only the hop count to determine the best path to a destination?

A. IGRP

B. RIP

C. EIGRP

D. OSPF

C. EIGRP

206

Which technology supports the stateless assignment of IPv6 addresses?

A. DNS

B. DHCPv6

C. DHCP

D. autoconfiguration

B. DHCPv6

207

Which network topology allows all traffic to flow through a central hub?

A. bus

B. star

C. mesh

D. ring

B. star

208

Which RFC was created to alleviate the depletion of IPv4 public addresses?

A. RFC 4193

B. RFC 1519

C. RFC 1518

D. RFC 1918

C. RFC 1518

209

Which device allows users to connect to the network using a single or double radio?

A. access point

B. switch

C. wireless controller

D. firewall

A. access point

210

What is the default lease time for a DHCP binding?

A. 24 hours

B. 12 hours

C. 48 hours

D. 36 hours

A. 24 hours

211

Which method does a connected trunk port use to tag VLAN traffic?

A. IEEE 802 1w

B. IEEE 802 1D

C. IEEE 802 1Q

D. IEEE 802 1p

C. IEEE 802 1Q

212

Which statement about native VLAN traffic is true?

A. Cisco Discovery Protocol traffic travels on the native VLAN by default

B. Traffic on the native VLAN is tagged with 1 by default

C. Control plane traffic is blocked on the native VLAN.

D. The native VLAN is typically disabled for security reasons

B. Traffic on the native VLAN is tagged with 1 by default

213

Which NTP command configures the local device as an NTP reference clock source?

A. ntp peer

B. ntp broadcast

C. ntp master

D. ntp server

D. ntp server

214

Which statement about unicast frame forwarding on a switch is true?

A. The TCAM table stores destination MAC addresses

B. If the destination MAC address is unknown, the frame is flooded to every port that is configured in the same VLAN except on the port that it was received on.

C. The CAM table is used to determine whether traffic is permitted or denied on a switch

D. The source address is used to determine the switch port to which a frame is forwarded

B. If the destination MAC address is unknown, the frame is flooded to every port that is configured in the same VLAN except on the port that it was received on.

215

By default, how many MAC addresses are permitted to be learned on a switch port with port security enabled?

A. 8

B. 2

C. 1

D. 0

C. 1

216

When enabled, which feature prevents routing protocols from sending hello messages on an interface'?

A. virtual links

B. passive-interface

C. directed neighbors

D. OSPF areas

B. passive-interface

217

Which destination IP address can a host use to send one message to multiple devices across different subnets?

A. 172.20.1.0

B. 127.0.0.1

C. 192.168.0.119

D. 239.255.0.1

D. 239.255.0.1

218

Which route source code represents the routing protocol with a default administrative distance of 90 in the routing table?

A. S

B. E

C. D

D. R

E. O

C. D

219

Which option is a valid hostname for a switch?

A. Switch-Cisco

B. Switch-Cisco!

C. SwitchCisco

D. SwitchCisc0

C. SwitchCisco

220

Which MTU size can cause a baby giant error?

A. 1500

B. 9216

C. 1600

D. 1518

C. 1600

221

Which value is indicated by the next hop in a routing table?

A. preference of the route source

B. IP address of the remote router for forwarding the packets

C. how the route was learned

D. exit interface IP address for forwarding the packets

D. exit interface IP address for forwarding the packets

222

Which entity assigns IPv6 addresses to end users?

A. ICANN

B. APNIC

C. RIR

D. ISPs

C. RIR

223

On which type of device is every port in the same collision domain?

A. a router

B. a Layer 2 switch

C. a hub

C. a hub

224

Which statement about the inside interface configuration in a NAT deployment is true?

A. It is defined globally

B. It identifies the location of source addresses for outgoing packets to be translated using access or route maps.

C. It must be configured if static NAT is used

D. It identifies the public IP address that traffic will use to reach the internet.

B. It identifies the location of source addresses for outgoing packets to be translated using access or route maps.

225

What is one requirement for interfaces to run IPv6?

A. An IPv6 address must be configured on the interface.

B. An IPv4 address must be configured.

C. Stateless autoconfiguration must be enabled after enabling IPv6 on the interface.

D. IPv6 must be enabled with the ipv6 enable command in global configuration mode.

A. An IPv6 address must be configured on the interface.

226

Which NAT type is used to translate a single inside address to a single outside address?

A. dynamic NAT

B. NAT overload

C. PAT

D. static NAT

D. static NAT

227

Which statement describes the effect of this configuration?

A. The VLAN 10 VTP configuration is displayed.

B. VLAN 10 spanning-tree output is displayed.

C. The VLAN 10 configuration is saved when the router exits VLAN configuration mode.

D. VLAN 10 is added to the VLAN database.

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D. VLAN 10 is added to the VLAN database.

228

R1 does not form an OSPF neighbor adjacency with R2. Which option would fix the issue?

A. R1 ethernetO/1 is shutdown. Configure no shutdown command.

B. R1 ethernetO/1 configured with a non-default OSPF hello interval of 25: configure no ip ospf hello-interval 25

C. R2 ethernetO/1 and R3 ethernetO/O are configured with a non-default OSPF hello interval of 25; configure no ip ospf hello-interval 25

D. Enable OSPF for R1 ethernetO/1; configure ip ospf 1 area 0 command under ethernetO/1

B. R1 ethernetO/1 configured with a non-default OSPF hello interval of 25: configure no ip ospf hello-interval 25

229

An OSPF neighbor adjacency is not formed between R3 in the main office and R5 in the
Branch2 office. What is causing the problem?

A. There is an area ID mismatch.

B. There is a PPP authentication issue; a password mismatch.

C. There is an OSPF hello and dead interval mismatch.

D. There is a missing network command in the OSPF process on R5.

C. There is an OSPF hello and dead interval mismatch.

230

An OSPF neighbor adjacency is not formed between R3 in the main office and R6 in the
Branch3 office. What is causing the problem?

A. There is an area ID mismatch.

B. There is a PPP authentication issue; the username is not configured on R3 and R6.

C. There is an OSPF hello and dead interval mismatch.

D. The R3 router ID is configured on R6.

D. The R3 router ID is configured on R6.

231

Select three options which are security issues with the current configuration of SwitchA.
(Choose three.)

A. Privilege mode is protected with an unencrypted password

B. Inappropriate wording in banner message

C. Virtual terminal lines are protected only by a password requirement

D. Both the username and password are weak

E. Telnet connections can be used to remotely manage the switch

F. Cisco user will be granted privilege level 15 by default

A. Privilege mode is protected with an unencrypted password

B. Inappropriate wording in banner message

D. Both the username and password are weak

232

Which of the following is true regarding the configuration of SwitchA?

A. only 5 simultaneous remote connections are possible

B. remote connections using ssh will require a username and password

C. only connections from the local network will be possible

D. console access to SwitchA requires a password

B. remote connections using ssh will require a username and password

233

Select two options which are security Issues which need to be modified before RouterA is
used? (Choose two.)

A. unencrypted weak password is configured to protect privilege mode

B. inappropriate wording in banner message

C. the virtual terminal lines have a weak password configured

D. virtual terminal lines have a password, but it will not be used

E. configuration supports un-secure web server access

B. inappropriate wording in banner message

D. virtual terminal lines have a password, but it will not be used

234

Including the address on the Routed Ethernet interface, how many hosts can have IP
addresses on the LAN to which Routed is connected?

A. 6

B. 30

C. 62

D. 126

A. 6

235

What is the bandwidth on the WAN interface of Router 1?

A. 16 Kbit/sec

B. 32 Kbit/sec

C. 64 Kbit/sec

D. 128 Kbit/sec

E. 512 Kbit/sec

F. 1544 Kbit/sec

A. 16 Kbit/sec

236

Which two of the following are true regarding the configuration of RouterA? (Choose two.)

A. At least 5 simultaneous remote connections are possible

B. Only telnet protocol connections to RouterA are supported

C. Remote connections to RouterA using telnet will succeed

D. Console line connections will nevertime out due to inactivity

E. Since DHCP is not used on Fa0/1 there is not a need to use the NAT protocol

A. At least 5 simultaneous remote connections are possible

C. Remote connections to RouterA using telnet will succeed

237

The hosts in the LAN are not able to connect to the Internet. Which commands will correct
this issue?
 

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

E. Option E

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B. Option B

238

What is the subnet broadcast address of the LAN connected to Router1?

A. 192.168.8.15

B. 192.168.8.31

C. 192.168.8.63

D. 192.168.8.127

A. 192.168.8.15