Example MCQs Flashcards by Laura Bunce

A man with renal failure undergoes continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis. He develops peritonitis as a result of biofilm development on the indwelling catheter used for the delivery of exchange fluid into the peritoneal cavity. This is identified as a coagulase negative staphylococcal infection, caused by commensal bacteria, which usually exists harmlessly as part of the flora. Where is the causative agent usually found?

A) bladder
B) blood
C) colon
D) duodenum
E) skin

E) skin

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Brain natriuretic peptide can be used as a serum biomarker for heart failure.

What actions do natriuretic peptides have? Where are these peptides released from.

Increases renin secretion
Increases total peripheral resistance
Increases Na⁺reabsoprtion
Increases GFR (glomerular filtration rate)

Increases GFR (glomerular filtration rate)

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Many neuropathic conditions result from changes in the electrical activity of peripheral neurons.

What do these cellular level changes do?

Facilitate sub-threshold depolarisation
Increase action potential duration
Increase the excitation threshold
Lower the excitation threshold
Reduce neurotransmitter release

Facilitate sub-threshold depolarisation

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A man is due to undergo radiotherapy for prostate cancer. This treatment depends on radiation to remove an electron from an atom or molecule, thus generating free radicals. Which type of radiation would be most suitable for this purpose?

A) gamma
B) infrared
C) microwaves
D) radiowaves
E) UV

A) gamma

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People with a rare disorder called von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) syndrome lack atumour suppressor protein (pVHL) that under normal oxygen tension causes ubiquitination of hypoxia-inducible factor (HIF). Lack of pVHL triggers the continual production of VEGF resulting in ‘hemangioblastomas’, tumours that contain dense masses of blood vessels.

What is the consequence of the action of pVHL?

Decreased transcription of the HIFα subunit
Increased dimerisation of HIFα and HIFβ subunits
Proteolytic degradation of the HIFα subunit
Triggering of apoptotic cell death
Triggering of a phosphorylation cascade

Proteolytic degradation of the HIFα subunit

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You are doing a pHD examining the cell death in leukocytes an you need to be able to quantify the % of apoptotic cells in a population of isolated cells. Apoptosis is a form of cell death in which phosphatidylserine becomes exposed on the outer surface of dying cells, this can measure apoptosis. Which lab technique would be most appropriate to use to achieve this?

A) ELIZA
B) flow cytometry
C) immunohistochemistry
D) PCR
E) western blotting

B) flow cytometry

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You profile bacteria present in sample of untreated water from streams across the south west. You perform gram-staining on the bacteria and find blue-purple stained spherical bacteria, arranged in chains, under the microscope light. What type of micro-organism is present?

A) Gram-negative cocci
B) Gram-negative diplococci
C) Gram-negative Rods
D) Gram-positive rods
E) Gram-positive cocci

E) Gram-positive cocci

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Ubiquitination is a protein post-translational modification process, that attaches ub to a protein. This process plays an important role in the HIF pathway by marking HIF-1a for degradation. What is ub?

A) amino acid
B) inorganic chemical
C) methyl
D) protein
E) sugar moiety

D) protein

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Darifenasin is a selective m3-muscarinic receptor antagonist. What effect will this have on bladder function?

A) relax internal sphincter
B) relax bladder detrusor muscle
C) Constrict internal sphincter
D) contract bladder detrusor muscle
E) relax external sphincter

B) relax bladder detrusor muscle

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Ubiquitination is a protein post-translational modification process that attaches ubiquitin to the protein. This process plays an important role in the HIF pathway, by marking HIF-1a for degradation. What is ubiquitin?

A) protein
B) amino acids
C) inorganic chemicals
D) metal ion
E) sugar moiety

A) protein

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You are working in a research lab, and wish to create a transgenic mouse model, characterised by defective uptake of glucose into pancreatic beta cells. To achieve this you would need to alter the gene encoding which protein?

A) Glut 2
B) Glut 4
C) Insulin receptor
D) NA/glucose antiporter
E) Na/glucose transporter

A) Glut 2 glut 2 is a glucose transporter found on cell membranes of pancreatic beta cells.

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Scavenger receptors recognise anionic polymers acetylated low density proteins. The CD14 receptor binds to LPS. Which toll like receptor does this activate?

A) TLR2
B) TLR4
C) TLR5
D) TLR6
E) TLR7

B) TLR4

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Binding a hedgehog ligand to the patched-1 receptors activates a smoothened, which results in the transcription of genes involved with embryonic patterning and limb development. What prevents this process from occuring in the absence of stimulus.

A) Binding of an inhibitory molecule to smoothened
B) Dephosphorylation of smoothened
C) Steric hindrance of smoothened translocation
D) Lack of transcription of smoothened
E) Ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation of smoothened

C) Steric hindrance of smoothened translocation

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The pathogenesis of Alzheimer’s Disease remains unclear. A role forapolipoprotein E (ApoE) has been implicated, and deletion of 16 base pairs from exon 3 of the gene encoding ApoE represents a reliable mouse model of the disease.

Which function is commonly reduced in this disorder?

Balance
Retrieval of new information
Retrieval of old information
Spatial awareness
Storage of new information

Storage of new information

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C reactive protein is an acute phase protein found in the blood. The levels rise in response to inflammation. Which organ releases this protein?

A) kidney
B) liver
C) pancreas
D) spleen
E) thymus

B) liver

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The TGN 1412 clinical trial made headlines in 2006 as a result of several side effects in 6 individuals given a potential new super-agonist drug during phase 1 trials. What was the primary purpose of the trial?

A) compare new drug with gold standard
B) determine effectiveness of new drug
C) determine the safety of the new drug
D) establish the optimal dose
E) Establish optimal mode of administration

C) determine the safety of the new drug

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CDKs are constitutively presenting cells, but become activated by the cell cycle, stage dependent transcription of cyclins such as cyclin E. Which CDK is activated by this cyclin?

A) CDK 1
B) CDK 2
C) CDK 3
D) CDK 4
E) CDK 5

B) CDK 2 mitogen independent in late G1

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You are working in a public health laboratory, and are asked to carry out ahaemagglutination inhibition assay on serum samples from three patients with suspected H1N1 influenza. You are asked to include information on the H1 status of the samples and the HI titres in your report. Red blood cells are added to a 96-well plate containing a mixture of viral H1 haemagglutinin and diluted patient serum. The results are shown in the image.

What information should you put in your report?

Patient 1: Negative
Patient 2: Positive (titre <2)
Patient 3: Negative
Patient 1: Negative
Patient 2: Positive (titre >4096)
Patient 3: Negative
Patient 1: Positive (titre 16)
Patient 2: Negative
Patient 3: Positive (titre 256)
Patient 1: Positive (titre 32)
Patient 2: Negative
Patient 3: Positive (titre 512)
Patient 1: Positive (titre 32)
Patient 2: Positive (titre <2)
Patient 3: Positive (titre 512)

Patient 1: Positive (titre 16)
Patient 2: Negative
Patient 3: Positive (titre 256)

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Photoreceptors are specialised cells in the retina. Their activity is modulated inresponse to light which has passed through the eye.

What effect does light have on neurotransmitter release from these cells?

Decrease in GABA release
Decrease in glutamate release
Increase in acetylcholine release
Increase in GABA release
Increase in glutamate release

Decrease in glutamate release

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Cell death can be assessed in the lab, including visualization of chromatin condensation, membrane blebbing or uptake of dye. e.g. trypan blue by microscopy. Other methods involve assessment of DNA laddering by gel electrophoresis and activation of caspase enzymes by fluorescence based methods. A +ve result in which method would indicate necrosis, not apoptosis?

A) Caspase activation
B) Chromatin condensation
C) DNA laddering
C) Membrane blebbing
D) Uptake of dye

D) Uptake of dye

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You are revising muscular contraction. Both skeletal muscle, and non-pacemaker regions of the heart depend on electrical excitation of the myocytes and myofibres, by an AP. You note the shape and duration of the AP is different. These differences can be explained by which ionic current.

A) Inward long lasting ca current
B) Inward transient ca current
C) Inward fast sodium current
D) Inward slow sodium current
E) Outward Potassium current

A) Inward long lasting ca current

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Pre-eclampsia in pregnant women is characterised by loss of protein in theurine (proteinuria) and high blood pressure.An inappropriate autoimmune response that activates the angiotensin receptor subtype 1 (AT ) has been implicated in the pathophysiology of this condition. Activating (agonistic) autoantibodies against the AT¹may be found in the serum of some patients with pre-eclampsia.

What endocrine pattern would be expected in a patient with these autoantibodies?

A. High aldosterone, high renin, high angiotensin II

B. High aldosterone, low renin, high angiotensin II

C. High aldosterone, low renin, low angiotensin II

D. Low aldosterone, low renin, low angiotensin II

C. High aldosterone, low renin, low angiotensin II

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Autoimmune diseases such as inflammatory bowel diseases and MS, are characteristically associated with a recently identified subset of T cells, known as TH-17. Which cytokine particularly promotes the proliferation of these cells.

A) IL-2
B) IL-4
C) IL-6
D) IL-17
E) IL-23

E) IL-23

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You are carrying out a study investigating WNT signalling in breast cancer tumorigenesis. You create a transgenic mouse that overexpresses wnt in mammary tissue, and observe an upregulation of wnt binding to its receptor. Which protein is subsequently recruited to the ligand receptor complex?

A) APC
B) Axin
C) B-catenin
D) Dishevelled
E) GSK3b

D) Dishevelled

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Acid-base balance is essential for maintaining plasma protein integrity andfunction. Hydrogen ions are secreted into the lumen of the nephron in the proximal and late distal convoluted tubule in order to reduce the acidic load within the body. What is the mechanism by which this secretion occurs in the proximal tubule? 1. Antiport with K⁺ 2. Antiport with Na⁺ 3. Symport with Cl^- 4. Symport with K⁺ 5. Symport with Na⁺

B. Antiport with Na⁺

The ischaemic cascade involves many processes which cumulate in neural deficit and cell death. Reduction in the neural level of which molecule starts the cascade? * A) Calcium * B) ATP * C) Sodium * D) Glutamate * E) Superoxide

B) ATP

A 24 year old women had a number of episodes of visual disturbance. Following a number of tests including Identification of auto-antibodies she was told she had MS. What type of sample would be most appropriate for the detection of these auto-antibodies? * A) Blood * B) CSF * C) Saliva * D) Tissue Biopsy * E) Urine

B) CSF

Which artery is most frequently occluded in stroke patients * A) Anterior cerebral artery * B) Middle cerebral artery * C) Posterior cerebral artery * D) Lenticulostriate artery * E) Carotid artery

B) Middle cerebral artery

Erythrocytes sedimentation rate (ESR) is a measurement used as a marker of inflammation. Which component of the blood rises during inflammation to cause an increase in this measurement? * A) Fibrinogen * B) Folate * C) Heparin * D) Thrombospondin * E) TPA

A) Fibrinogen This is an acute phase protein, in response to IL-6. High conc's = RBCs more sticky and settle faster. ESR - rate at which RBCs sediment in one hour.

A needle phobic patient is having blood samples taken and has a sympathetic nervous system response during this. Most of this is brought on by the action of noradrenaline from post-ganglionic sympathetic neurons, on adrenoreceptors. What part of this response is from Ach on muscarinic receptors? 1. Adrenaline release 2. Bronchodilation 3. Sweating 4. Tachycardia 5. Vasoconstriction

3 Sweating

A patient is describing how his partial focal epileptic seizures are experienced. He says I lose my ability to speak, Its weird I know what I want to say but i can't get the words out. Which regions of the brain is most likely affected. * A) cerebellum * B) frontal lobe * C) occipital lobe * D) parietal lobe * E) temporal lobe

B) frontal lobe

**There are many different strains of influenza virus. Influenza viruses can beclassified according to their surface antigens, haemagglutinin (H) and neuraminidase (N).** **How does the ‘N’ antigen assist in influenza infection?** 1. Facilitates evasion of host immune response 2. Facilitates incorporation of viral DNA into the human genome 3. Facilitates release of virions from infected cells 4. Facilitates viral DNA replication 5. Facilitates viral entry into human cells

Facilitates release of virions from infected cells

1. **The Baltimore classification of viruses, categorises viruses according to theirmethod of viral mRNA synthesis.** **Which virus classifications mutate more frequently?** 1. Group I: dsDNA 2. Group II: (+) ssDNA to dsDNA 3. Group III (dsRNA) 4. Group IV (+) ssRNA to (-) ssRNA 5. Group V (-) ssRNA 6. Group VI (+) ssRNA - DNA/RNA - dsDNA

Group VI (+) ssRNA - DNA/RNA - dsDNA

You are starting a research group focusing on protein misfolding disorders. The fast and effective folding of newly synthesised proteins is catalysed by which class of enzyme? * A) chaperonins * B) cyclophilins * C) peptidal dipepetides * D) peptidal procis-transisomerases * E) protein disulphide isomerases

A) chaperonins

True or False- the parasympathetic preganglionic neuron is long and releases Ach

True

A 20 year old bodybuilder follows an extreme high-calorie diet that includes 15 bananas a day. The resulting potassium load causes elevation of aldosterone release, thereby increasing urinary excretion of potassium. Where in the nephron does this hormone have its major effect? 1. Thick ascending Loop of Henle 2. Decending Loop of Henle 3. Early proximal convoluted tubule 4. Late distal convoluted tubule 5. Thin Ascending Loop

D. Late distal convoluted tubule

The term sarcopenia describes the loss of skeletal muscle mass, and strength that occurs with biological ageing. Which of the following hormonal, immunological alterations is thought to contribute to the development of sarcopenia? * A) increased GH * B) Increased IGF-1 * C) increased myostatin * D) increased oestrogen * E) increased testosterone

C) increased myostatin

A 43 year old man is prescribed medication for schizophrenia. Over time, hedevelops hypogonadism and suffers from erectile dysfunction. Blood tests reveal a serum prolactin concentration that is twice the normal concentration. These symptoms have arisen from blockade of which system in the CNS? 1. Hypothalamo-pituitary axis 2. Corticospinal tract 3. Mesocortical pathway 4. Mesolimbic pathway 5. Tuberoinfundibular pathway

Tuberoinfundibular pathway

You are recording the ST segment of an ECG trace. What does this period of time represent? * A) Duration of conduction through AVN * B) HR of patient * C) Time between atrial depolarisation and repolarisation * D) Time between atrial depolarisation and ventricular repolarization * E) Time between ventricular depolarisation and repolarisation

E) Time between ventricular depolarisation and repolarisation Largest deflections (RT) - ventricular AVN spreads --\> Atria (P) --\> Septum (Q) --\> Ventricles (R) --\> Purkinje (S) --\> Repolarisation (T)

Many pharmacological agents act as receptors, which convert a chemical signal into a physiological response. Different classes of receptor exist, which use different mechanisms to convert the signal into a response. Which of the following would elicit the most rapid physiological response. * A) B1 adrenergic receptor * B) EPO receptor * C) Glucocorticoid receptor * D) M2 Acetylcholine receptor * E) Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor

E) Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor

Working as an NHS Clinical Scientist, you are asked to evaluate brain slicestaken from the autopsied brain of a Parkinson’s disease sufferer. In which region would you expect to see evidence of neuronal degeneration? 1. Globus Pallidus 2. Hypothalamus 3. Raphe nuclei 4. Substantia nigra 5. Thalamus

Substantia nigra

You receive a CSF analysis from a patient with: -Cloudy/Turbid -Protein 105 (15-50) -Glucose 40 (45-100) -WBC 550 (0-5) -WBC 85% Neutrophils What disease does the patient have? * A) B meningitis * B) V meningitis * C) Guillain-Barre * D) MS * E) Syphilis

A) B meningitis

COX inhibitors have been used as antiinflammatory agents for many years, however some of these drugs carry a risk of stroke, or MI due to inappropriate blood clotting, resulting from non-specific inhibition of arachidonic acid metabolism. What other enzyme in this pathway could be specifically inhibited to reduce the risk of clotting. * A) Lipoxygenase * B) Phospholipase C * C) Prostacyclin Synthase * D) Prostaglandin E synthase * E) Thromboxane synthase

E) Thromboxane synthase

A single tumour cell has detached from a primary tumour. But has failed to undergo detachment mediated cell death- and has not yet entered the blood or lymph. Which potential therapeutic strategy could target the next step in the metastatic process. * A) Inhibition of CDK * B) T regs * C) VCAM-1 * D) VEGF * E) MMPs

E) MMPs 2nd step: Detached cell must adhere and invade the basement membrane by increasing protease (MMP) activity. It can then migrate through the extracellular matrix and into surrounding tissue.

A new drug for hypertension is being investigated including a calculation of its bioavailability after oral administration. When given orally some drugs can be extensively broken down into inactive metabolites after absorption from the GI tract (first pass metabolism), so they are largely unavailable for therapeutic activity. Where does this metabolism occur? * A) gall bladder * B) kidney * C) liver * D) pancreas * E) spleen

C) liver

Skeletal muscle contraction requires opening of ion channels known as DHP receptors on the sarcolemma. Which type of ion channels are these? * A) ligand gated CA channel * B) ligand gated K channels * C) VG ca channels * D) VG K channels * E) VG NA channels

C) VG ca channels

A 12 month old baby is found producing insufficient amounts of factor VIII to mediate blood clotting. Which step in the clotting process is deficient * A) activation of factor IX * B) activation of factor V * C) activation of factor X * D) conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin

C) activation of factor X Last step of the intrinsic pathway

What enzyme at the neuromuscular junction terminates neurotransmitter signalling to the motor endpoint * A) AchE * B) Adenylate cyclase * C) Acetyl CoA * D) Phospholipase C * E) SERCA

A) AchE

The APC gene (mutations in the gene lead to a hereditary form of bowel cancer) is a tumour suppressor which prevents excessive activation of mitotic signalling pathways. As part of a destruction complex, APC binds to target proteins, leading to their ubiquitination proteasomal degradation. Which protein is a target for this destruction complex? * A) B-catenin * B) frizzled * C) patched * D) smoothened * E) wnt

A) B-catenin

Humans express several cyclin-dependent kinases. CDKs 4 and 6 have a role in cell cycle progression, based on their ability to phosphorylate a restriction point target. What is a key target for these CDKs. * A) phosphatidylinositol-4,5 bisphosphate * B) PKC * C) Raf * D) Ras * E) Rb

E) Rb

a 21 year old woman becomes dehydrated following running a half marathon. As part of the hormonal response to this there is an increase in the level of aldosterone. Where is this hormone produced? * A) Adrenal cortex * B) Adrenal medulla * C) Anterior Pituitary * D) Hypothalamus * E) Posterior Pituitary

A) Adrenal cortex

A 54 year old man develops autoimmune diabetes insipidus, where autoantibodies attack the cells which synthesis ADH. Which structure is the site of synthesis of this hormone? * A) Adrenal glands * B) Cardiac atria * C) Hypothalamus * D) Juxtaglomerular Apparatus * E) Posterior Pituitary

C) Hypothalamus ADH is synthesised here, and released by the Posterior Pituitary gland

A boy with haemophilia has been receiving infusion of recombinant factor VIII, and has been able to lead a normal active life. However, the bleeding has become increasingly difficult to stop, showing reduced effectiveness of the therapy. This is due to an immune response against the therapeutic protein, leading to the production of inhibitory antibodies which neutralise the biological effect of the protein. What type of cell is involved in the first step of the immune response? * A) cytotoxic T cell * B) Dendritic cell * C) Helper T cell * D) Plasma Cell * E) T reg cell

B) Dendritic cell

Once sever sepsis is identified, antibiotics must be started rapidly to treat the underlying infection. Patients are often treated with broad-spectrum cephalosporin antibiotic e.g. cefuroxime until the causative organism and its specific antibiotic susceptibilities are defined. What is the mechanism of cefuroxime? * A) binds the 30s bacterial ribosome subunit * B) inhibits DNA gyrase * C) inhibits protein synthesis * D) inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis * E) Inhibits tetrahydrofolic acid synthesis

D) inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis cephalosporin 's are beta-lactam antibiotics, which inhibit peptidoglycan synthesis- needed for cell walls.

A 58 year old is to undergo an angioplasty, following a MI. his cardiologist tells him he intends to insert a drug-eluting stent as part of the angioplasty procedure, and will release a drug reducing the chances of the blood vessels narrowing. What type of drug would be most effective * A) Anti-platelet drug * B) Beta-blockers * C) Immunosuppressants * D) Statin * E) Thrombolytic

C) Immunosuppressants

Arrhythmogenic Right Ventricular Cardiomyopathy is an autosomal dominant condition, leading to dilation fatty infiltration and fibrosis of the RV. The function of which component of cardiomyocytes is predominantly affected in this condition? * A) Adherens junctions * B) Desmosome * C) SR * D) Sarcomere * E) T tubules

B) Desmosome ARVC is predominantly caused by faulty gene expression of genes encoding desmosomes e.g. plakoglobin

**You are analysing protein expression in macular tissue from a mouse model ofage-related macular degeneration (AMD). This condition involves deterioration of central vision due to damage to the macula lutea in the retina.** **Abundance of which cell type distinguishes this area from the rest of the retina?** 1. Amacrine cells 2. Bipolar cells 3. Cone cells 4. Pigmentary cells 5. Rod cells

Cone cells

A 23 year old woman may have bacterial meningitis. One available diagnostic test for this is CSF analysis, to look for bacterial presence. What is the major limitation for the diagnosis of this condition. * A) Cost * B) Sample contamination * C) Sensitivity * D) Specificity * E) Speed

E) Speed

A 64 year old man is diagnosed with Parkinson's Disease. His doctor prescribesL-DOPA in order to restore dopamine concentrations in the brain. What drug can be co-administered to reduce side effects of this drug? 1. Catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) inhibitor 2. DOPA decarboxylase inhibitor 3. Dopamine dehydroxylase inhibitor 4. Monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor 5. Tyrosine decarboxylase inhibitor

DOPA decarboxylase inhibitor

You are a research assistant, and want to determine the whether myeloperoxidase is upregulated in kupffer cells using sections of liver taken from mice following induction of experimental hepatitis. What laboratory technique would be most useful? * A) ELISA * B) Flow cytometry * C) Immunohistochemistry * D) PCR * E) Western Blotting

C) Immunohistochemistry Sample is liver sections- myeloperoxidase is an enzyme therefore a protein antigen can be probed with a specific antibody raise against it.

You are carrying out a research project in which you are required to measure Ca influx, stimulated by Inositol-1,4,5-triphosphate (IP3) signalling in sooth muscle. Which type of receptor utilises this 2nd messenger? * A)Gai * B)GaQ * C)GaS * D)Ligand-gated Ion Channel * E) Tyrosine Kinase Receptor

B)GaQ

A 24 year old man is prescribed sulfasalazine. The tablets have a waxy coating resulting in delayed drug release so the active ingredient (5-aminosalicylate) is released at its target site of action. What other purpose does this coating serve? * A) improves absorption of the drug * B) improves bioavailability of the drug * C) Improves potency of the drug * D) reduces adverse effects of the drug * E) reduce first pass metabolism

D) reduces adverse effects of the drug

Many genetic mutations have been identified that cause CF. Class 2 mutations affect the post-translational protein folding- leading to loss of function due to errors in the tertiary structure. Where in the cell does the folding occurs? * A) cytoplasm * B) ER * C) Mitochondrion * D) nucleus * E) plasma membrane

B) ER

A 33 year old man suffers extensive blood loss as a result of an accident. His body automatically tries to restore his blood volume to maintain adequate cardiac output. What hormones from the juxtaglomerular apparatus helps to achieve this? * A) Adrenaline * B) Aldosterone * C) ADH * D) Natriuretic Peptide * E) Renin

E) Renin

Myocardial infarction is associated with cardiomyocyte death, resulting from interrupted blood flow and consequent lack of blood supply to the muscle. The degree of damage resulting from MI can be determined by measurement of the concentration of cardiac markers. Which of the following is the most appropriate marker of the cardiac injury * A) AST * B) CK * C) LDH * D) Myoglobin * E) Tni

E) Tni

Almost every cell of every tissue of a vertebrate is located within 50-100um of a blood capillary. When there is a lack of adequate blood supply to any cell, there is stimulation of angiogenesis to restore blood supply. Lack of which substance or cell is the main stimulus for this process. * A) EPO * B) FFAs * C) Glucose * D) Oxygen * E) WBC

D) Oxygen

Mirobegron is a selective b3-adrenergic receptor agonist. What effect will this have on bladder function? * A) relax internal sphincter * B) relax bladder detrusor muscle * C) Constrict internal sphincter * D) contract bladder detrusor muscle * E) relax external sphincter

B) relax bladder detrusor muscle

Skeletal myofibre contraction is initiated by a rise in intracellular Ca mediated by the release of this ion from the SR. To which protein does calcium then bind. * A)Actin * B)myosin * C)Tropomyosin * D) Troponin C * E) Troponin I

D) Troponin C

Oxidative stress is defined as an imbalance of oxidants and antioxidants, in favour of oxidants, potentially leading to damage. Which of the following catalyses the generation of the superoxide anion * A) Catalase * B) Glutathione Peroxidase * C) NADPH oxidase * D) Myeloperoxidase * E) Thioredoxin

C) NADPH oxidase

"Derbyshire neck" was a condition of iodine deficiency caused by local lack of natural iodine in the soil due to leaching by salt deposits. What endocrine changes would be expected in this condition? 1. Elevated T3/T4 (triiodothyronine/thyroxine) levels 2. Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels 3. Increased negative feedback on the hypothalamus 4. Increased negative feedback on the pituitary 5. Reduced thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) levels

b. Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels

During an inflammatory response activation of NFkB signalling leads to the transcription of a gene coding for an enzyme. This synthesises a molecule causing vasodilation. What molecule is synthesised by this enzyme. * A) Aldosterone * B) Angiotensin II * C) ADH * D) Endothelin 1 * E) Nitric Oxide

E) Nitric Oxide

You are performing a radioligand binding assay comparing a novel compound Awith a radiolabelled known drug of moderate affinity. You generate the following dose-response curve. What parameter is depicted by "X" on the graph? 1. EC50 2. IC 50 3. Kd 4. logEC50 5. log IC50

log IC50

It is now known that epigenetic mechanisms play an important role inregulating gene transcription. In the past few decades, research interest in chemical modification of DNA as a means of suppressing transcription and "switching off" certain genes has risen exponentially. Which chemical group can be added to DNA to achieve this? 1. Aldehyde group 2. Carboxyl group 3. Hydroxyl group 4. Methyl group 5. Phosphate group

Methyl group

An acute rise in intracellular pressure can result from a number of clinical conditions such as acute head injury, hydrocephalus, or stroke. The increased intracranial pressure pushes on the cerebellar tonsils into the foramen magnum, and consequently increases pressure on the medulla oblongata. What would be the major physiological consequence of this? * A) Blurred vision * B) Depression of breathing * C) Difficulty speaking * D) Inability to concentrate * E) Personality changes

B) Depression of breathing

A 48 year old woman undergoes PDT for basal cell carcinoma which involves the application of 5-ALA to the lesion. What is the purpose of ALA in this therapy. * A) cytotoxic agent * B) photosensitiser agent * C) emit photons * D) minimise side effects * E) prevent DNA replication

B) photosensitiser agent

Whilst discussing the limitations of the available drugs for the treatment ofdepression, your facilitator recounts a story. In 1980 she and her parents were having dinner with her uncle; he suffered from long-term depression, but had been feeling much better since he started taking a new type of drug. At the end the meal, as they were all enjoying a ripe cheese, her uncle suffered a massive stroke. Subsequent investigation reveals he was a victim of the "cheese reaction". This side effect is associated with which type of drug? 1. Lithium 2. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors 3. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors 4. St John's wort 5. Tricyclic antidepressants

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors

A potential new diagnostic test for UTIs is found to give positive results in 120/200 patients, and in 40/120 control individuals. What is the positive predicted value? * A) 33% * B) 50% * C) 60% * D) 67% * E) 75%

E) 75% TP/(TP+FP)

You are carrying out a research project, in which you are required to measure calcium influx stimulated by inositol (1,4,5) trisphosphate (IP ) signalling in smooth muscle. Which type of receptor utilises this second messenger? 1. Gαi coupled receptor 2. Gαq coupled receptor 3. Gαs receptor 4. Ligand-gated ion channel 5. Tyrosine kinase receptor

Gαq coupled receptor

Radiotherapy delivers a high energy radiation dose causing formation of free radicals. What aspect of tumour can make them resistant to radiotherapy? * A) chromosomal translocation * B) high cellular protein levels * C) hypoxia * D) mutations in tumour suppressors * E) Rapid DNA growth

C) hypoxia Radiation indirectly generates free radicals

A 42 year old man, suffers with sepsis following diagnosis of diverticulitis. His BP falls rapidly and he is at risk of multiple organ failure if prompt treatment is not administered. The pathogen responsible is e.coli, a gram negative bacteria normally found in the bowel. Which immune cell receptor detects the presence of this microorganism? * A) B cell * B) FC receptor * C) Scavenger receptor * D) T cell receptor * E) Toll like receptor

E) Toll like receptor

Cyclooxygenase inhibitors are used as anti inflammatories. However they can have negative effects e.g. stroke or MI, due to inappropriate blood clotting- resulting from a non-specific inhibition of arachidonic acid metabolism. Which other enzyme could be specifically inhibited to reduce the risk of clotting? * A) Lipoxygenase * B) Phospholipase C * C) Prostacyclin Synthase * D) Prostaglandin E synthase * E) Thromboxane Synthase

E) Thromboxane Synthase

1. **A-delta fibres and C fibres are both primary afferent endings that transmitnociceptive signals. The conduction velocity of C fibres is about an order of magnitude slower than that of A-delta fibres.** **Which feature of C fibres represents the major reason for this?** 1. C fibres are generally unmyelinated whereas A-delta fibres have a myelin sheath 2. C fibres are polymodal and this restricts the amount of information that they can transmit 3. C fibres do not respond to capsaicin which is responsible for generating large action potentials 4. C fibres project directly to pain centres in the brain whilst A-delta fibres have to signal via the spinal cord 5. C fibres respond only to inflammatory pain unlike A-delta fibres which signal all pain states

C fibres are generally unmyelinated whereas A-delta fibres have a myelin sheath

In 2006 scientists conducted a phase 1 clinical trial, of a new biological therapy to treat B cell CLL- a type of leukaemia. This trial involves the use of a monoclonal antibody which binds CD28 , presented on the cell surface of some leukocytes. WHich cell has been targeted by this therapy? * A) mature B cell * B) mature T cell * C) monocytes * D) naive T cells * E) Neutrophils

D) naive T cells CD28 is a naive T cell antigen needed for costimulation

Cardiomyocytes act as a functional syncytium which are multinucleated. What component of the cardiac-myocyte intercalated disc facilitates this characteristic? * A) Adherens junction * B) Desmosome * C) Gap junctions * D) Sarcomere * E) Tight junction

C) Gap junctions These are made of protein connexin and form pores in the sarcolemma, so adjacent myocytes share sarcoplasm, enabling metabolic connection to contract simultaneously.

A **74 year old man requires continuous analgesia for palliative care. Oralmedication is unsuitable as he is vomiting frequently. To avoid repeated injections, the opioid fentanyl is administered as a skin patch, from which it is absorbed transdermally.** **In addition to small molecular size, what other feature of a drug makes it most suitable for transdermal absorption?** 1. High lipid solubility 2. Highly ionised 3. High pKa 4. Low protein binding 5. Low volume of distribution

High lipid solubility

Ras is a signalling molecule activated following binding of growth factors such as EGF to its receptor. Activity of the signalling pathway is dependent upon the net balance of a number of signalling and regulatory components. What change to the signalling pathway would promote cell proliferation? * A) decreased RAS GAP * B) decreased RAS GEF * C) Decreased Ras * D) increased cytoplasmic GDP/GTP ratio * E) Increased protein tyrosine phosphatase activity

A) decreased RAS GAP

HCM is an autosomal dominant inherited condition, leading to left ventricular hypertrophy and risk of sudden cardiac death. The function of which component of cardiac-myocytes is predominantly affected in this condition. * A) Adherens Junctions * B) Desmosomes * C) Sarcomeres * D) SR * E) T Tubules

C) Sarcomeres affected by genes expressing proteins of the sarcomere e.g. Myosin binding C

A 23 year old sexually active woman develops a burning sensation when urinating. She feels generally unwell, and has an elevated temperature. Her doctor runs a urine analysis which indicates she has a UTI. The presence of which substance in urine supports this diagnosis? * A) Bilirubin * B) Creatinine * C) Glucose * D) Ketones * E) Nitrite

E) Nitrite Bacteria in the urine possess nitrate reductase activity, which convert nitrate to nitrite.

Which neurotransmitter is released from the terminal bouton of the motor neuron * 1) Ach * 2) Glutamate * 3) GABA * 4) Serotonin * 5) Noradrenaline

1) ACh

You propose to develop an animal model that reproduces the pathology of Parkinson's disease. Key to this will be ensuring that the concentration of which neurotransmitter is reduced? 1. Dopamine 2. GABA 3. Glutamate 4. Glycine 5. Noradrenaline

Dopamine

Urinary incontinence is common in patients with spina bifidia. This is a consequence of damage to which structure? * A) Cranial nerve * B) Peripheral nerve * C) Sacral nerve * D) Smooth muscle * E) Striated muscle

C) Sacral nerve

RB is an important tumor suppressor protein, and the gene encoding this protein is commonly mutated in cancer. Rb inhibits cell division by preventing progression to G1--\> S phase of the cell cycle, by blocking activity of a key transcription factor, involved in cell cycle progression. WHich transcription factor does this protein block. * A) E2f * B) Gli * C) HIF * D) NF-Kb * E) P53

A) E2f

Many human diseases are caused by non-synonymous mutations which alter the amino acid sequence of the transcribed protein. Which type of mutation would be most likely to result in a frame shift? * A) Chromosomal translocation * B) Deletion of 3 BP * C) Insertion of 1 BP * D) Substitution of 1 BP * E) Trinucleotide repeat expansion

C) Insertion of 1 BP Non-sense mutation

Many pharmacological agents act at receptors, which act to convert a chemical signal into a physiological response. Different classes of receptor exists, utilising different mechanism to convert the signal to a response. Which of the following receptors is coupled to TRK activity? * A) B1 adrenergic receptor * B) EPO receptor * C) Glucocorticoid Receptor * D) M2 receptor * E) Nicotinic receptor

B) EPO receptor

You are working in a research lab, your research project involves the production of polypeptide analogues. Why might you choose a eukaryotic cell rather than a bacterial system. * A) culture, transformation and polypeptide expression is cheaper * B) more extensive post-translational modification possible * C) purification of transformed DNA is easier * D) potential polypeptide yield is higher * E) transformation of DNA is easier

B) more extensive post-translational modification possible

Low oxygenation levels within a tumour microenvironment promotes the activity of hypoxia inducible factors which leads to the formation of new blood vessels and allows tumour cells to receive required nutrients and oxygen. What mechanism prevents this from occurring under normoxic conditions * A) binding of an inhibitory molecule to HIF * B) Dephosphorylation of HIF * C) Steric hindrance of HIF-1 nuclear translocation * D) Lack of transcription of HIF-1 * E) Ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation of HIF-1

E) Ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation of HIF-1

1. **Propofol is commonly used as an intravenous anaesthetic induction agentbecause of its rapid and smooth onset of action.** **How does this drug elicit its hypnotic effects?** 1. Activation of 5-HT3 receptors which excites inhibitory interneurons 2. Activation of mu opioid receptors to inhibit adenylate cyclase 3. Blockade of the effects of glutamate at NMDA receptors 4. Potentiation of GABA via GABAa receptors 5. Stimulation of alpha -adrenergic receptors in the locus coeruleus 2

Potentiation of GABA via GABAa receptors

1. **In 1950, a ground-breaking study was published in the British Medical Journalby Sir Richard Doll and colleagues. They reported a statistically significant association between tobacco smoking and lung cancer in a large case-control study.** **Which of the following is a characteristic of this type of study?** 1. Cases and controls are matched in a demographic manner 2. Cases are people without lung cancer 3. Controls are non-smokers 4. Controls are observed for several years to see how many developed lung cancer 5. People with lung cancer are randomly allocated to be cases or controls

Cases and controls are matched in a demographic manner

Infections are major causes of morbidity and mortality in patients with cancer, the risk of cancer primarily related to their cytotoxic and immunosuppressive chemotherapy. Which of these patient groups is at the greatest risk of complications? * A) Breast cancers * B) Basal cell carcinoma * C) Colon cancer * D) Leukaemia * E) Lung cancer

D) Leukaemia

Depolarisation of the sarcolemma T tubules in skeletal muscle leads to opening of the voltage-gated L type Ca channels DHP receptors. What causes ryanodine receptors on the SR to open? * A) Binding of IP3 * B) Ca influx * C) Mechanical coupling to the DHP receptor * D) Increased intracellular cAMP * E) K influx

C) Mechanical coupling to the DHP receptor

The H band or zone of the sarcomere of striated muscle is lighter than the rest of the A band. Which protein is present in this region? * A) Actin * B) Myosin * C) Troponin I * D) Distrophin * E) Tightin

B) Myosin

The EMS of radiation is utilised in many medical technologies, including X-rays, CT scans and MRI, and treatment methods such as PDT and PUVA. Which technique uses radiation with the longest wavelength. * A) CT * B) MRI * C) PDT * D) PUVA * E) XRay

B) MRI

**Reverse transcriptase PCR can be used to detect viral RNA in patient samples.** **On which type of sample, and at which stage of infection would it be most appropriate to test patients for Influenza A virus using this test method?**

Muscle contraction in both skeletal and non-pacemaker regions of the heart depend on electrical excitation of myocytes by an AP. You note the shape of the APs in these tissues differ in their shape and duration. These differences can be explained by which ionic current? * A) Inward long lasting ca current * B) Inward transient ca current * C) Inward fast sodium current * D) Inward slow sodium current * E) Outward Potassium current

A) Inward long lasting ca current L-type Ca2+ channels on the sarcolemma of the myocyte.

You are working in a research lab, and wish to create a transgenic mouse model, characterised by defective uptake of glucose into insulin sensitive tissue. To achieve this you would need to alter the gene encoding which protein? * A) Glut 2 * B) Glut 4 * C) Insulin receptor * D) NA/glucose antiporter * E) Na/glucose transporter

B) Glut 4

1. **A 69 year old man visits his GP because he has noticed that he is becomingprogressively deafer in both ears. On informal testing he is unable to hear whispering in either ear.** **Where is the mechanical audible impulse normally converted to an action potential?** 1. Cochlea 2. Mastoid 3. Ossicles 4. Semicircular canals 5. Vestibule

Cochlea

27 year old neighbour's father suffers from HCM, and his paternal grandfather died from the condition. Regular testing shows his heart to be healthy, but he recently got married, and they are trying for a baby. He is worried their child may be afflicted. Why is it possible his offspring may have HCM despite the father's healthy heart. * A) HCM is recessive * B) HCM is caused by an acquired mutation * C) HCM is not an inherited condition * D) HCM often skips a generation * E) HCM shows incomplete penetrance

E) HCM shows incomplete penetrance the % of individuals with the genotype which exhibit the phenotype. HCM doesn't show 100% penetrance, and it is age related. The father may still exhibit disease symptoms later in life.

Ischaemic stroke occurs when blood flow to the brain is obstructed. The current treatment is tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) which is most effective when administered within 3 hours of the onset of symptoms. * A) prevention of apoptotic death * B) prevention of blood clot formation * C) prevention leukocyte activation * D) Promotion of blood clot breakdown * E) Promotion neuronal regeneration

D) Promotion of blood clot breakdown

A 63 year old woman collapses in her local shopping centre and goes into VF. A portable defibrillator is used to restore normal sinus rhythm by allowing the pacemaker of the heart to reset itself. Which channel underlie this intrinsic rhythmic excitation? * A) Delayed rectifier K+ channels * B) High voltage activated Ca channels * C) Hyperpolarization activated nucleotide gated channels * D) Low voltage activated Ca2+ channels * E) Voltage gated Na+ channels

C) Hyperpolarization activated nucleotide gated channels Gated by CAMP- GaS

You are working in the neurological disorders unit of a large pharmaceuticalcompany screening a number of novel neuroleptic (antipsychotic) compounds. You generate data using the heterologous competitive radioligand binding assay that will give a pharmacokinetic profile of novel compound BCS101 to investigate its affinity for the D receptor. Varying concentrations of _unlabelled BSC101_ and _0.2 nM_ of _tritium-labelled spiperone (K 0.16nM)_ are added to added to plasma membrane preparations from Chinese Hamster Ovary (CHO) cells that express the D receptor, and incubated until equilibrium has been reached. Following washing, measurement of cellradioactivity gives an indication of how much tritiated spiperone has bound to the D receptors. The lower the level of radioactivity, the greater the extent to which the test compound has bound to the receptors and prevented the binding of the radiolabelled spiperone. You plot the data as shown and you read off: log IC50= -9.2 Using the Cheng-Prussof equation, calculate the K of BCS101 i 1. 0.28 nM 2. 36.8 nM 3. -36.8 nM 4. 28 mM 5. 12578517 uM

0.28 nM

A 42 year old man develops diabetes insipidus following a head trauma. This condition is characterised by excessive thirst, and frequent urination, resulting from inadequate ADH secretion. ADH normally acts to promote the insertion of channel into the luminal cell membrane of kidney cells. These channels allow the movement of which substance across the membrane? * A) chloride * B) glucose * C) protons * D) sodium * E) water

E) water

RAS is a signalling molecules activated following binding of its Growth factors such as EGFs, to its receptor. Activity of the signalling pathway is dependent upon a number of signalling and regulatory components. What change of the signalling pathway would promote proliferation? * A) decreased RAS GAP activity * B) Decreased RAS GEF activity * C) Decreased RAS activity * D) Increased cytoplasm GDP/GTP ratio * E) Increased protein tyrosine phosphate

A) decreased RAS GAP activity RAS is a GTPase. GAP is a GTPase activating protein, which stimulates GTPase activity of RAS, to increase catalysis of GTP/GDP, to switch RAS off.

The T cell receptors of an autoreactive T cell bind to the MHC II molecule on an APC. However, co-stimulation via CD28 receptors on the T cell does not happen. What now happens to the T cell. * A) becomes activated * B) anergy * C) negative selection * D) apoptosis * E) necrosis

B) anergy 3 steps required for T cell activation: 1. MHC II on APC binds to TCR, or naive T cell 2. Release of cytokines from APC 3. Co-stimulation: CD80/86 on APC binds to C28 on the T Cell Otherwise, T cell goes into anergy- alive but functionally incapable of responding to an antigen

You are investigating the rise of antibiotic resistance in commensal bacteria in the general population. One of the first steps is to culture and identify commensal bacteria from participants. Where would you find the greatest amount of bacteria from? * A) Blood * B) Duodenum * C) Hand * D) Stomach * E) Terminal ileum

E) Terminal ileum

You are starting a PhD in a research group which focuses on protein mis-foldingdisorders such as Parkinson's disease, Alzheimer's disease and prion diseases. The fast and efficient folding of newly synthesised proteins is catalysed by which class of enzyme? 1. Chaperonins 2. Cyclophilins 3. Peptidyl-dipeptidases 4. Peptidyl prolyl cis-trans isomerises 5. Protein disulphide isomerises

Chaperonins

A potential new diagnostic test for UTIs is found to give positive results in 120/200 patients, and in 40/120 control individuals. What is the diagnostic sensitivity? * A) 33% * B) 50% * C) 60% * D) 67% * E) 75%

C) 60% TP/(TP+FN)

A pathogenic bacterium enters the body in response, the immune system up regulates proinflammatory cytokines in order to mount a defense. Activation of which transcription factor is responsible. * A) Gli * B) Glucocorticoid * C) HIF-1a * D) NF-KB * E) STAT2

D) NF-KB

Biomarkers can be used to measure disease progression. Give 4 ideal characteristics of a biomarker.

* -Specific * -Sensitive * -Non-invasive * -Cheap * -Quick to test - * Presence/concentration correlates with progression of disease -Reproducible - * Consistent across populations

A pharma company is interested in developing novel drugs for GI ulcers. Peptic ulceration can occur due to inhibition of prostaglandin production. NSAIDs produce this effect by preventing the breakdown of which precursor? * A) Phosphatidylinositol (4,5) bisphosphate * B) Arachidonic Acid * C) Phosphatidylinositol 3,(4,5) trisphosphate * D) prostacyclin * E) Thromboxane A2

B) Arachidonic Acid

A pregnant woman visits her doctor in her third trimester. She is concerned her baby may have HCM- which the baby's dad recently died from. He had a copy of the most common sarcomeric mutation, and she wants to know what the probability is her child will have HCM. * A) 25% * B) 50% * C) 75% * D) 100% * E) 0%

B) 50% HCM- autosomal dominant & monogenic. father = heterozygous, normally die as embryo.

Neural excitotoxicity is a process which contributes to neural cell death in diverse cerebral pathologies, including stroke. Which receptor may be stimulated to elicit this process. * A) Beta adrenoreceptor * B) D2 Dopamine receptor * C) Muscarinic ACH receptor * D) Nicotinic ACH receptor * E) NMDA receptor

E) NMDA receptor

**Horizontal cells play a role in visual processing by providing a lateral signalbetween cells to decrease electrical activity in the retina of the eye.** **Which two cell types are connected by this type of lateral connection?** 1. Amacrine cells and ganglion cells 2. Bipolar cells and amacrine cells 3. Bipolar cells and ganglion cells 4. Photoreceptors and bipolar cells 5. Photoreceptors and ganglion cells

Photoreceptors and bipolar cells

The blood brain barrier regulates the passage of molecules into the brain from the rest of the body. Endothelial cells of the brain (capillaries) link to each other by forming junctions which are in contact with the end-feet of astrocytes. Thus creating a BBB. What name is given to these junctions. * A) Adherens * B) Desmosomes * C) Gap * D) Indicated * E) Tight

E) Tight

Following a lifetime of beach holidays in sunny locations a 69 year old woman has a non-healing ulcer on her face. After biopsies on the lesion, her doctor diagnoses squamous cell carcinoma. In which layer of the epidermis has this cancer arisen? * A) stratum basale * B) stratum corneum * C) stratum granulosum * D) stratum lucidium * E) stratum spinosum

E) stratum spinosum

You are conducting a concentration response experiment into cultured human cells. You want to measure histamine release in response to increasing concentrations of gastrin. Which type of cell should you use in your experiment? * A) D cell * B) ECL cell * C) G cell * D) Parasympathetic neuron * E) Parietal cell

B) ECL cell

Which spinal nerve is responsible for voiding/emptying the bladder. * A) hypogastric nerve * B) pelvic nerve * C) Vagus nerve * D) glossopharyngael

B) pelvic nerve

You are a researcher investigating platelet derived factor signalling in airway remodelling in asthma, This signals for cell proliferation via binding to its receptor, leading to the activation of Janus Kinase. JAK phosphorylates STAT proteins allowing these to dimerise and translocate to the nucleus. WHich protein domain of STAT is required for recruitment to the receptor. * A) Tyrosine kinase domain * B) GTPase domain * C) PH Domain * D) Serine/Threonine KInase Domain * E) SH2 Domain

E) SH2 Domain

**You are studying the anatomy of the eye for your degree and you find thisdiagram.** **What structure is labelled X?** 1. Macula 2. Optic disc 3. Optic nerve 4. Retina 5. Vitreous humour

Optic disc

True or False: There are 33 pairs of spinal nerve

False- 31 pairs, 33 vertebrae

A pharmaceutical company is interested in developing drugs for GI ulcers. Peptic ulceration can occur due to inhibition of prostaglandin production. NSAIDs produce this effect by preventing breakdown of which precursor? * A) Archinadonic Acid * B) PIP3 * C) COX-1 * D) Prostacyclin * E) Thromboxane A2

A) Archinadonic Acid

In normoxic conditions, angiogenesis and erythropoiesis are inhibited by the enzymatic modification of amino acids residues within the alpha-subunit of HIF which determines whether or not the protein is degraded. Which type of enzyme carries out this oxygen sensing function. * A) Caspase * B) GDPase * C) Hydroxylase * D) Serine/threonine kinase * E) Tyrosine kinase

C) Hydroxylase Prolyl hydroxylase adds an OH group to HIF-1 in normoxic conditions

Biological ageing in humans is proposed to occur as a result of free radical exposure. By what mechanism does this contribute to ageing. * A) alternation of RNA splicing * B) lowering of the hayflick limit * C) oxidation of macromolecules * D) shortening of the chromosomes * E) upregulation of gene transcription

C) oxidation of macro-molecules Theories of Hallmarks of Ageing

The doctor diagnoses a patient with myaesthenia gravis. This causes weakness and fatigue, droopy eyelids and weak muscle activation. What is the pathophysiological mechanism of this disease? * A) depletion of muscarinic ACH receptors * B) depletion of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors * C) Increased ACHE release * D) Reduced acetylcholine release * E) Reduced acetylcholine synthesis

B) depletion of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors

The age of onset of Huntington disease falls as a result of the increasingnumbers of trinucleotide repeats in the Huntingtin gene. What is this process called? 1. Anticipation 2. Avidity 3. Inflation 4. Penetrance 5. Prescience

Anticipation

In order to boost signalling of a neurotransmitter, drugs can be designed thateither reduce its catabolism or reduce its uptake from the synapse. One such example is venlafaxine, which prevents reuptake of noradrenaline and 5-hydroxytryptamine (5-HT) in the central nervous system. What would be the therapeutic effect of this drug? 1. Decrease wakefulness 2. Enhance mood 3. Improve cognitive function 4. Prevent neurodegeneration 5. Reduce tremor

Enhance mood

Progerias such as werner's syndrome are a set of rare diseases, characterised by premature ageing. In these conditions, cells enter into early senescence. Which enzyme involved in DNA replication is hypothesised to play a role in these conditions? * A) gyrase * B) ligase * C) helicase * D) telomerase * E) topoisomerase

D) telomerase

A woman undergoes photodynamic therapy for skin cancer. ALA is applied to her skin followed by irradiation with red light. What is the major cytotoxic agent generated by this process. * A) hydrogen peroxide * B) hydroxyl radical * C) peroxygenite * D) singlet oxygen * E) superoxide anion

D) singlet oxygen

**A man is undergoing minor surgery and is given a local anaesthetic, a weakbase, to block the pain.** **This drug prevents the movement of which ion?** 1. Bicarbonate 2. Calcium 3. Chloride 4. Potassium 5. Sodium

Sodium

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