EXAMS 1 POWERPOINTS Flashcards
1
Q
three levels of disease prevention
A
primary (immunization)
secondary (pap smears)
tertiary (antibiotic users)
2
Q
what is the primary prevention of diseases
A
removing the risk factor so that the diseas does not occur
3
Q
what’s the secondary prevention of disease
A
detecting the disease when you can still cure it
4
Q
what’s the tertiary prevention of disease
A
preventing further damage or reducing complications of a disease
5
Q
when does autocrine signaling occur
A
occurs when a cell releases a chemical into the intercellular fluid that affects its own activity
6
Q
what cells does paracrine signaling act on
A
nearby cells
7
Q
endocrine signaling relies on?
A
hormones carried in the bloodstream to cells throughout the body
8
Q
synaptic signaling occurs in what system?
A
occurs in the nervous system where neurotransmitters act only on adjacent nerve cells
9
Q
neurotransmitters acts only on?
A
adjacent nerve cells
10
Q
metabolism is normally aerobic or anaerobic
A
aerobic
11
Q
what are the byproducts of cellular metabolism
A
lactic and pyruvic acids
12
Q
what is cellular metabolism
A
chemical task of maintaining essential cellular functions
13
Q
metabolism provides the cell with energy
A
true
14
Q
normally, water and electrolyte movement occurs to do what?
A
to equalize concentrations
15
Q
with injury, cell membrane becomes what?
A
becomes more permeable
16
Q
examples of passive transport
A
-diffusion
- osmosis
facilitated diffusion
17
Q
cells adapt to changes in the
A
- internal environment
18
Q
cells adapt to increased work demands by changing in??
A
- size (atrophy and hypertrophy)
- number (hyperplasia)
- form (metaplasia)
19
Q
what is atrophy
A
decrease in cell size
20
Q
what is hypertrophy
A
increase in cell size
21
Q
what is metaplasia
A
replacement of adult cells
22
Q
what is hyperplasia
A
increase in the number of cells
23
Q
what is dysplasia
A
deranged cell growth of a specific tissue
24
Q
injuries from physical agents are caused by?
A
- mechanical forces
- electric forces
- extreme temperatures
25
radiation injury causes
- ionization radiation
- ultraviolet radiation
- nonionizing radiation
26
chemical injury drugs
- drugs
- carbon tetrachloride
- lead toxicity
- mercury
27
injuries from biological agents are caused by
virus
parasite
bacteria
28
injury from nutritional imbalances causes
excesses and deficiencies
29
what is reversible cell injury
impairs cell functions but does not result cell death
30
what are the two patters of revivable cell injury
- cellular swelling
| - fatty change
31
what is cellular swelling of reversible cell injury
impairments of the energy depended on sodium/potassium ATPase membrane pulp. usually as the result of hypoxia cell injury
32
what is fatty change of reversible cell injury
linked to intracellular accumulation of fat
33
free radicals having unpaired electron causes them to?
unstable and highly reactive
34
what are hypoxic cell injury deprives the cell of what?
- deprives cell of oxygen
35
hypoxic cell injuries interrupts what?
oxidative metabolism and the generation of ATP
36
the longer a tissue is hypoxic?
the greater chance of irreversible cellular injury
37
what are some causes hypoxia
- edema
- ischemia
- respiratory disease
- inadequate amount of oxygen in the air
- inability of the cell to use oxygen
38
apoptosis is equated with what?
suicide
39
the process of apoptosis (fallen apart) eliminates cells that?
- are worn out
- have been produced in excess
- have developed improperly
- have genetic damage
40
what is necrosis
refers to cell death in an organ or tissue that is still part of a living person
41
necrosis often interferes with?
cell replacement and tissue
42
gangrene occurs when?
mass of tissues undergoes necrosis
43
what’s the rate of the spread of dry gangrene?
slow
44
what is the spread of tissue of wet gangrene
the spread of tissue damage is rapid
45
cardinal signs of inflammation
```
rubor( redness )
tumor ( swelling )
calor (heat)
dolor (pain)
functio laesa (loss of function)
```
46
factories involved in protective responses
- inflammatory reactions
- immune response
- tissue repair and wound healing
47
granulomatous inflammation is associated with
foreign bodies and microorganisms
48
what is the immediate transient response of an inflammation
occurs with a minor injury
49
what is the immediate sustained response of inflammation
occurs with more serious injury and continues for several days and damages the vessels in the area
50
what is the delayed hemodynamics response of inflammation
involves an increase in capillary permeability that occurs 4 to 24 hours after injury
51
what is another name for white blood cells
leukocytes
52
what are the two types of leukocytes that participate in the acute inflammatory response
granulocutes
| monocytes
53
what’s the largest of the white blood cells
monocytes
54
what makes up the granulocutes of the white blood cells
neutrophils
eosinophils
basophils
55
inflammatory mediators
- histamine
- cytokines
- arachidonic acid metabolites
- platelet - activating factor
- plasma proteins
56
what are the types of inflammatory exudates
- serous exudates
- hemorrhagic exudates
- membranous or pseudomembranous exudates exudates
- purulent or suppurative exudates
- fibrinous exudates
57
serous exudates are water fluids low in what?
-low in protein content
58
serous exudates result from plasma entering the?
inflammatory site
59
when does hemorrhagic exudates occur?
when there’s severe tissue injury that causes damage to the blood vessels or when there’s leakage or red cells from the capillaries
60
membranous or pseudomembranous exudates develop on what surfaces
- develop on mucous membrane surfaces
61
membranous or pseudomembranous exudates are composed of necrotic cells enmeshed in a ?
fibropurulent exudate
62
which of the inflammatory exudates contains pus?
purulent or suppurative exudates
63
what does fibrinous exudates contain?
large amounts of fibrinogen and form a thick and sticky meshwork
64
what are purulent or suppurative exudates composed of?
degraded white blood cells, proteins and tissue debris
65
what is the non specific early response to injury?
acute inflammation
66
what does acute inflammations aim at?
removing the injurious agent and limiting tissue damage
67
acute inflammations are self-limited whiles chronic inflammations are?
self-perpectuating
68
proliferation of fibroblasts occurs during acute or chronic inflammation
chronic inflammation
69
exudate infiltration of neutrophils occurs during acute or chronic inflammations
acute
70
infiltration by mononuclear cells (macrophages) and lymphocytes occurs during acute or chronic inflammation
chronic inflammation
71
what is the alterations in white blood cell count called
leukocytes is or leukopenia
72
what are the stages of wound healing
inflammatory phase
proliferation phase
maturational or remodeling phase
73
chemical mediators and growth factors mediate the healing processes true or false
true
74
interactions between the extra cellular and cell matrix helps with healing process true or false
true
75
types of immune defenses
- innate or nonspecific immunity
- adaptive or specific immunity
- active immunity
- passive immunity
76
cytokinesis are secreted by what cells
both innate and adaptive cells
77
what are colony stimulating factors
stimulate the growth and differentiation of bone marrow progrenitors
78
comments of innate immunity
- epithelial barriers
- phagocytic cells
(neutrophils and macrophages)
- NK cells
- Plasma proteins
79
what is the complement system
- found in the blood and is essential for the activity of antibodies
80
what does the activation of the complement system does?
increases bacterial aggregation which renders them more susceptible to phagocytosis
81
what immunity is antigen identification
adaptive/ specific immunity
82
types of adaptive immune responses
- humoral immunity
| - cell mediated immunity or cellular immunity
83
cell mediated immunity are mediated by what lymphocytes
spermicide T lymphocytes
84
what type of adaptive immune response defends against intracellular microbes such as viruses
cell mediated immunity or cellular immunity
85
humoral immunity are mediated by?
mediated by molecules in the blood
86
what is the principal defense against extra cellular microbes and toxins?
humoral immunity
87
antigens are substances foreign to the host that can?
stimulate immune response
88
what recognizes antigens?
antibodies
89
macrophages and dendritic cells process and present antigen peptides to
CD4+ helper T cells
90
antigen presentation captures antigen and new ale their recognition by
T cells
91
Antigen presentation is the initiation of
adaptive immunity
92
what are the B cells/lymphocytes
humoral immunity
memory
93
what are t cells/ lymphocytes
cell mediated immunity
memory
94
memory is both B and T cells. true or false
true
95
identify factors of B lymphocytes
- presence of membrane immunoglobulin that functions as antigen receptor
96
B lymphocytes produces what?
immunoglobulin that functions as the antigen receptor
97
functions of T lymphocytes
- control of intracellular viral infections
- rejection of foreign tissue grafts
- delayed hypersensitivity reactions
98
what two immunoglobulins activates complement
IgG
IgM
99
what immunoglobulins are found in secretions
IgA
100
what immunoglobulin is responsible for protection of newborn
IgG
101
what immunoglobulin is preeminent in early immune responses
IgM
102
what immunoglobulin binds to mast cells and basophils
IgE
103
what immunoglobulins are found on B lymphocytes
IgD
104
what immunoglobulin is needed for the maturation of B cells
IgD
105
what immunoglobulin is allergic to hypersensitivity reactions
IgE
106
what’s another name for immunoglobulins
antibodies
107
most prevalent antibodies
IgG
108
example of central lymphoid organs
bone marrow and thymus
109
function of the peripheral lymphoid organs
trap and process antigen and prompt its interacting with mature immune cells
110
what antibodies are developed shortly after birth
IgA and IgM and reach adult levels by age of 1
111
the thymus gland does not shrink with age
false
112
what are the primary immunodeficiency state
congenital or inherited
113
what are the four major categories of immune mechanisms
- humoral or antibody mediated immunity (B lymphocytes)
- cell mediated immunity (T lymphocytes)
- the complement system
- phagocytes (neutrophils and macrophages)
114
defects of humoral immunity increased the risk of?
recurrent pyrogens infections
115
humoral immunity usually is not as important in sending against intracellular bacteria
true
116
immunoglobulins productions depends on
- the differentiation of stem cells to mature B lymphocytes
| - the generation of immunoglobulin-producing plasma cells
117
what is hypersensitive disorder
- excessive or inappropriate activation of the immune system
118
examples of atopic disorders?
food allergies, some form of asthma, rhinitis (hay fever), urticaria
119
what are nonatopic disorders
- lacks the genetic component and organ specific of the atopic disorders
120
what are some primary or initial-phase response
vasodilation
vascular leakage
smooth muscle contraction
121
what are some secondary or late phase responses
- more intense infiltration of tissues with eosinophils
| - tissue destruction in the form of epithelial cell damage
122
another name of hypersensitivity?
cytotoxic
123
cytotoxic or hypersensitivity is mediated by what antibodies
IgM or IgG
124
wya are endogenous antigens
present on the membranes body cells
125
what are exogenous antigens
absorbed on the membrane surface
126
hemolytic disease of newborns
Rn- negative mother gives birth to an Rh positive infant
127
what happens during warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia
IgG antibodies attaches to and destroy RBC at normal body temperature
128
what happens during cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia
IgM autoantibodies reacts with erythrocytes in cooler portions of the body
129
routes of exposure to latex
- cutaneous
- mucous membranes
- inhalation
- internal tissue
- intravascular routes
- reaction types ( type I versus type IV )
130
what is allogeneic transplant
the donor and recipient are related or unrelated but share similar HLA types
131
what is syngeneic transplant
the donor and receipted are identical twins
132
what is autologous transplant
the donor and the receipting are the same person
133
stem cells can _____ bone marrow and reestablish ____ hematopoiesis
repopulate, reestablish
134
for stem cell transplantation to be effective, the bone marrow cells of the host are….
destroyed by myeloablative doses of chemotherapy
135
what is the hyperacute reaction of transplant rejection
- occurs almost immediately after transplantation
| - Type III
136
what is the acute rejection
- occurs within first few months after transplantation with signs of organ failure
- T lymphocytes respond to antigens in the graft tissue
137
what is chronic host versus graft rejection
- occurs over a prolonged period
- manifest intimal fibrosis of blood vessels
- actual mechanism is u clear but may include realize of cytokinesis that stimulates fibrosis
138
what are the phases of HIV infection
- primary infection phase
- chronic asymptomatic or latency phase
- overt aids phase
139
functions of the skin
- prevents fluids from leaving the body
- protect the body from potentially damaging environments
- serve as an area for heat exchange
- provide protection against invading microorganisms
140
what are the skin appendages
- hair
- nails
- sebaceous glands
- apocrine glands
141
itch and pain are agonistic. true or false
false. pain and itch are antagonist
142
pruritus or itchy sensations are carried by small
myelinated type C nerve fibers
143
pruritus or itchy sensations originates in?
free nerve endings in the skin
144
what is another name for xerosis?
dry skin
145
xerosis or dry skin are the dehydration of the?
stratum corneum
146
aging skins are dry due to change in the composition of?
sebaceous gland secretions and decrease in secretion of moisture from the sweat gland
147
what are the moisturizing agents that serves as treatments for dry skin?
- emollients
- humectants
- occlusives
148
what can the increase in melanin do?
- mongolian spots
| - melasma
149
what are rashes
- temporary eruptions of the skin.
childhood diseases, heart, diapers irritation, or drug induced reactions
150
what is a lesion?
- traumatic or pathological loss of. oral tissue continuity, structure or function
151
what are the prefix of fungis
starts with Tinea
152
what is tinea ungium
infection of the toe
153
what is tinea capitis
infection form on the scalp. kakawrewre
154
secondary infections are deep_____infections
deep cutaneous infections
155
primary infections are ______ whiles secondary infections are ____
superficial and deep cutaneous
156
examples of primary skin infection are
impetigo
| ecthhma
157
examples of secondary infections of the skin
- infected ulcer
| - cellulitis
158
what are the two types of herpes simplex virus
Type 1 - organism spread by respiratory droplets or by direct contact with infected saliva
Type 2 - genital herpes
159
what are some examples of viral skin infections
human papillomavirus ( verrucae/warts )
herpes simplex virus
herpes zoster / shingles
160
two types of acne’s
- noninflammatory (comedones/ white heads)
| - inflammatory- developed in the dermis that causes irritation
161
what is acne vulgaris
- chronic inflammatory disease is the pilosebaceous unit
162
what is the acne conglobata type of acne
- severe cases of acne
| - comedones or cysts have multiple openings, large accesses
163
infected persons of acne conglobata have anemia with what?
anemia with elevated white blood cells, sedimentation rates and neutrophils counts
164
what is roasacea
chronic inflammations that occurs in adults between 30 and 50 years
165
rosacea is more common in people with what skin color
fair skinned people. usually white women
166
rosacea are accompanied by________with leakage of fluid and inflammatory mediators into the _______
vascular instability and dermis
167
rosacea are also accompanied by _______symptoms
gastrointestinal
168
allergic contact dermatitis are results from a?
a cell mediated type 4 hypersensitivity response
169
irritant contact dermatitis is caused by?
chemicals that irritate the skin
170
atopic dermatitis are eczema typically in what group of people
kids
171
what are nummular eczema
coin shaped papulovesicular patches involving the arms and legs
172
what typa drugs causes generalized skin lesions
systemic drugs
173
topical drugs are usually responsible for
dermatitis types of rashes
174
arthropod infestations
includes insects such as lice, fleas
lyme disease
175
what are the types of ultraviolet rays
UVC rays
UVB rays
UVA rays
176
what ultraviolet is responsible for nearly all the skin effects of sunlight
UVB
177
what UV rate rays do not pass through the earth atmosphere
UVC
178
what UV rays can pass through window glass and are commonly referred to as tanning rays
UVA rays
179
range of UVC
100-289
180
range of UVB rays
290 to 320
181
range of UVA
291 to 400
182
acute effects of ultraviolet rays of sunlight
- short lived and reversible
- erythema
- pigmentation
- injury to langerhans cells and keratinocytes
183
chronic effects of ultraviolet rays of sunlight
- direct damming to skin cells
- skin cancer
accelerating the effect of aging on skin
184
sunburn only affects the epidermi of the skin
false.
185
sunburn results in ______ inflammatory reaction
erythematous
186
severe forms of sunburn can lead to chills, fevers, malaise, blistering
true
187
what is photosensitivity that occurs with drugs
exaggerated response UV light when the drug is taken in combination of sun exposure
188
what ultra violet is more damaging to DNA
- UVB
189
what’s a stronger ultraviolet UVB that causes sunburn or UVA that passes through glasses
UVB rapidly damages tissues whereas UVA damages tissues over time
190
what is a first degree burn
involves only the outerlayers of the epidermis
191
what is second degree partial thickness burns
burn of the epidermis and various degrees of the dermis
192
second degree full thickness burns
involves the entire epidermis and dermis
193
third degree full thickness burns
extend into the subcutaneous tissue and may involve muscle and bone
194
surface area of 1 arm
9% front same for back
195
surface area of 1 leg
18% front 18 back
196
surface area is the back
18%
197
surface area of the chest
18%
198
surface area of head
9%
199
emergency treatments of burns
- resuscitation
- stabilization
- maintaining cardiac and respiratory function
200
what is desiccation
removal of moisture
201
four factors that contribute to the development of pressure ulcers
pressure
shear forces
friction
moisture
202
what are pressure injuries (pressure ulcer)
ischemic lesions if the skin and underlying structures caused by unrelieved pressure
203
what is ischemic
reduced blood flow
204
what is dysplastic nevus
great tendency to transform
205
what are nevi (moles)
benign tumors of the skin that predispose individual to cancer
nevocellular nevi
206
what are the 3 major types of skin cancer
malignant melanoma
basal cell carcinoma
squamous cell carcinomas
207
most common skin cancer in white skinned people
basal cell carcinoma
208
explain the malignant melanoma
rapid progressing malignant tumor of the melanocytes
209
explain basal cell carcinoma
neoplasm of the nonkeratinizing cells of the basal layer of the epidermis
210
explain the squamous cell carcinomas
second most frequently occurring malignant tumors of the outer epidermis
211
four types of melanomas
superficial spreading
nodular
lentigo maligna
scrap lentiginous
212
skin lesions common among the elderly
- skin tags
- keratoses
- lentigines
- vascular lesions
213
viruses have organized cellular structure
- false
214
viruses consist of protein coat surrounding?
nuclei acid core of DNA or RNA
215
viruses are capable of replication outside of a living cell
false. viruses cannot survive outside of a living cell
216
what are the smallest types of pathogens
viruses
217
what microorganism contains membrane-bound nucleus
eukaryotes ( fungi )
218
another name for fungi
eukaryotes
219
another name for prokaryotes
bacteria
220
what microorganisms “nucleus is not separated”
prokaryotes (bacteria)
221
how are bacteria’s classified
- according to the microscopic appearance
| - according to staining of the cell
222
gram positive organisms are stained by what dye
purple or crystal violet
223
grab negative organism are not stained by crystal violet but are counterstained by
safranin
224
types of parasites
protozoa
helminths - worms
arthropods - insects bed bugs
225
what are the method of infecting of parasites
they are members of animal kingdom that infect and causes disease in other animals.
then these infected animals transmit the disease to humans
226
what does rickettsiaceae, anaplasmataceae, chlamudiaceae, coxiella have in common?
they combines the characteristics of viral and bacterial agents to produce disease in humans
227
rickettsiaceae, anaplasmataceae, chlamudiaceae, coxiella are produced asexually by?
cellular division
228
rickettsiaceae, anaplasmataceae, chlamudiaceae, coxiella contains only DNA. true or false
false. they contain DNA and RNA similar to bacteria
229
rickettsiaceae, anaplasmataceae, chlamudiaceae, coxiella produces what type of cell wall?
rigid peptidoglycan cell wall
230
rickettsiaceae, anaplasmataceae, chlamudiaceae, coxiella are obligate intracellular pathogens like virus. true or false
true
231
what is the studying of factors, events and circumstances that influence the transmission of infectious disease among humans
epidemiology
232
what is the number of new cases of infectious disease within a defined population
incidence
233
what is the number of active cases at any given tim
prevalence
234
what type of disease are found in particular geographer region
endemic disease
235
the incidence and prevalence of endemic disease are______
expected and relatively stable
236
what is the spread of disease beyond continental boundaries
pandemic
237
what is the abrupt and unexpected increase in the incidence of disease over endemic rates
epidemic
238
what is the nosocomial location of a disease
disease developed in hospitalized patients
239
the host of a disease could be endogenous or exogenous
true
240
what infectious diseases are acquired outside of health care facilities
community acquired diseases
241
what is specific symptomalogy?
reflects the site of infection such as ray, diarrhea, convulsions
242
what is a nonspecific symptomatolgy
can be shared by infectious diseases. doesn’t really kno where the symptom is coming from. such as fever, headache
243
what is obvious symptomatology
predictable patterns ( chicken pox and measles )
244
what is a covert symptology
may require lab testing to detect. such as hepatitis or increase of white blood cell count
245
stages of disease course in infection
```
incubation stage
prodromal stage
acute stage
convalescent stage
resolution stage
```
246
factors that influence the site of an infectious disease
- type of pathogen
- portal of entry
- competence of the hosts immunologic defense system
247
types of antimicrobial agents
- antibacterial agents
- antiviral agents
- antifungal agents
- antiparasitic agents
248
what are some bacterial drug resistance mechanisms
- inactivate antibiotics
- genetically alter antibiotic binding sites
- bypass antibiotic activity
- changes in the bacterial cell wall
249
what are some antiviral drug resistance mechanisms
- nucleoside analogs
- protease inhibitors
need for combination or alternating therapy with multiple antiretroviral agents
250
what is the intravenous immunoglobulin and cytokines therapy
- supplementing or stimulating the host’s immune response so that the spread of a pathogen is limited or reversed
- pathogen spermicide antibodies given to the patient as an infusion to facilitate neutralization, phagocytosis and clearance of infectious agents above and beyond the capabilities of the diseased host
251
what are the criterial for diagnosis of an infectious disease
- culture
- serology or detection of characteristic antigens
- genomic sequences or metabolites produced by the pathogen
- accurate documentation clinical signs and symptoms compatible with an infectious process
- recovery of a probable pathogen or evidence of its presence from the infected sites of diseased host
252
what are nonpharmacological intervention of infectious disease
surgical interventions
- providing access to an infecting site by antimicrobial agents (drainage of an abscess)
- cleaning of the site (debridement)
- removing infected organs or tissue ( appendectomy)
253
what are some antibiotic mechanisms
- interference with a specific step in bacterial cell wall synthesis
- inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis
- interruption of bacterial nucleus acid synthesis
- interference with normal bacterial metabolism
254
if it causes irresistible and lethal damage to the bacterial pathogen , what classification of antibiotic is this
bactericidal
255
if its inhibitory effects on bacterial growth are reversed when the agent is eliminated, what classification of antibiotic action is this
bacteriostatic
256
target site of penicillin
cell wall
257
target site of cephalosporins
cell wall
258
target sites for glycopeptides
ribosomes
259
weapons of bioterrorism. Category A agents
- plaque
- tularemia
- smallpox
- hemorrhagic fever viruses
260
weapons of bioterrorism. Category B agents
- food born and water born diseases
- zoonotic infections
- viral encephalitides
- toxins from castor bean
261
weapons of biroterrorism. Category C
- mycobacterium tuberculosis
- nipah virus and hantavirus
- tick horne and yellow fever viruses
- cryptosporidium parvum
