Exposure Control Plan Flashcards

1
Q

________ defines an infectious disease exposure as “a specific eye, mouth, other mucous membrane, non-intact skin, or parenteral contact with blood or other potentially infectious materials that results from the performance of an employee’s duties.” SB

A

OSHA (p. 11)

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2
Q

Blood or body fluid exposures to intact skin for a period longer than _____, is termed a “Risk” exposure by IDP. SB

A

30 Minutes (p. 11)

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3
Q

A __________ bloodborne exposure is defined as blood or body fluid contact with intact skin for less than 30 minutes. SB

A

“Non- Risk” (p. 11)

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4
Q

The definition of a ________________ “Risk” exposure is determined to be any unprotected contact with a person known or suspected of having active tuberculosis, meningitis of unknown etiology, varicella zoster (chicken pox), measles, pertussis (whooping cough) or other transmissions. SB

A

Airborne Pathogen (p. 12)

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5
Q

After an employee is exposed to an infectious disease, employees must submit the Infectious Disease Report which is form ____________. SB

A

FRD- 314 (p. 12)

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6
Q

What is the form number for the Consent to Collect and Test Blood form? SB

A

FRD- 107 (p. 13)

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7
Q

In the event of an infectious disease exposure from an animal bite, you should Request an Animal Protection Police Officer, Notify the on duty SAFO, and fill out a Supervisor’s Report of Work- Related Injury and/or Illness which is form ________. SB

A

FRD- 071 (p.14)

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8
Q

Medical confidentiality applies to infectious disease exposure reporting. The only deviation from this policy is if __________________. SB

A

The exposure to one employee poses a secondary risk to other employees. (p. 14)

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9
Q

If an employee believes an off-duty exposure occurred contact the on duty SAFO. If unavailable, contact _____________. SB

A

The Uniformed Fire Officer (p. 14)

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10
Q

____________ is given for positive exposures to HIV, Hepatitis B and C, Neisseria meningitidis (meningococcal disease), Bacillus anthracis (anthrax), TB, and rabies. SB

A

Prophylaxis (p. 15)

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11
Q

What is the Good Smartian Citizen Exposure Information Intake Form number? SB

A

FRD- 399- A (p. 15)

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12
Q

Risk exposures for citizens are sent to the Health Department. This right is guaranteed to the Good Samaritan through the ____________________. SB

A

Code of Virginia 32.1-45.1 (p. 15)

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13
Q

What is the purpose of the Exposure Control Plan? (pg.1) FC

A

Reduce exposure to infectious disease and cancer pathogens

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14
Q

How often is the Exposure Control Plan updated? (pg.1) FC

A

Annually

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15
Q

OSHA mandates medical records of occupational infectious disease exposures be kept for employees _____ years from date of separation. (pg.1) FC

A

30 years

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16
Q

The ICP maintains Bloodborne Pathogens training records for ____ years. (pg.1) FC

17
Q

True or False: Employees responding to incidents requiring patient care shall wear FRD issued exam gloves only. (pg.2) FC

A

False: Exam gloves and Eye Protection

18
Q

Who can replace a lost or misplaced PIC-T Kit? (pg.2) FC

A

EMS Supervisor

19
Q

True of False: N95 respirators are “one-time use” items. (pg.3) FC

20
Q

When should P100 respirators be used? (pg.3) FC

A

Suspected fentanyl use

21
Q

True or False: Class C and D station uniforms can be worn home and should be laundered at home as stated by OSHA. (pg.3) FC

22
Q

How many red biohazard bags should contaminated PPE be placed in? (pg.4) FC

23
Q

Injuries from sharps are recorded on what injury log? (pg.2) FC

A

OSHA 300 Injury Log

24
Q

The command “________” is used when handing off a sharp to another employee for disposal. (pg.5) FC

A

“Passing Sharps”

25
True of False: P2 sharp shuttles can be used multiple times. (pg.6) FC
False: One Time Use
26
How do you properly dispose of medic unit sharps containers? (pg.6) FC
Tape lid to container, transfer to hospital bio-disposal room
27
What is a "Risk" Exposure? (pg.11) FC
Exposure to eye, mouth, mucous membrane, non-intact skin, or parenteral contact with blood, or blood and body fluid exposure to skin for a period longer than 30 mins.
28
What is a Risk Exposure for airborne pathogen? (pg.11,12) FC
Unprotected contact with a person known or suspected of having active TB, Meningitis, Chicken Pox, Measles, Pertussis, or other airborne transmitting pathogen.
29
What is 1st step if employee is exposed to infectious disease? (pg.12) FC
Wash with antiseptic soap and rinse and skin areas affected.
30
What info is given to SAF Officer for exposure? (pg.12) FC
Hospital destination, pt name DOB and MRN, contact number
31
IF source patient refuses transport, what are your steps? (pg.13) FC
Notify SAFO, request EMS Supervisor, and remain on scene for blood draw
32
ANSI stands for what organization? (pg. 2) JH
American National Standards Institute
33
If a patient has a respiratory illness that may compromised by using an N95 Respiratory, what is an acceptable alternative? (pg. 3) JH
NRB Mask
34
If an employee declines vaccinations for a disease that is covered under the Code of Virginia 65.2-401.1 Ordinary Disease of Life, without written confirmation that it would be harmful to the individual, do they forfeit their right to coverage? (pg. 11) JH
YES
35
Bloodborne pathogen exposure with in-tact skin for less than 30 minutes is defined as…. (pg. 11) JH
Non-Risk
36
 If an animal bite occurs, what forms must be completed in an ‘Injury Packet’? (pg. 14) JH
FRD 71 (Work Related Injury/Illness), FRD 315 (BC Injury/Illness Investigation Report), and FRD 317 (Injury/Accident Narrative Supplement)
37
If a ‘Good Samaritan’ is exposed on an incident, what two forms must filled out? JH
FRD 399A (Good Samaritan Exposure Intake Form) and FRD 399B w/ Incident Number (Good Samaritan Exposure Brochure)