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F/A-18A-E Flashcards

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1
Q

When is Monthly Maintenance Plan (MMP) due at O-Level?

A

25th of month

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2
Q

When is Monthly Maintenance Plan (MMP) due at I-Level?

A

1st of month

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3
Q

What are the three objectives of First Aid

A

prevent further injury
prevent infection
prevent loss of life

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4
Q

What are the four methods of controlling bleeding

A

direct pressure
elevation
pressure points
tourniquet

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5
Q

what is a pressure point

A

point where artery near skin & over bone

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6
Q

how many principle pressure points are there

A

22

11 on each side of the body

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7
Q

what are the primary pressure points

A
  1. superficial temporal artery (temple)
  2. Facial artery (jaw)
  3. Common carotid artery (neck)
  4. Subclavian artery (collar bone)
  5. Brachial artery (inner upper arm)
  6. Brachial artery (inner elbow)
  7. Radial/Ulnar artery (wrist)
  8. Femoral artery (upper thigh)
  9. Iliac artery (groin)
  10. Popliteal artery (knee)
  11. Anterior/posterior tibial artery (ankle)
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8
Q

what are the three classifications of burns

A

First degree
Second degree
Third degree

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9
Q

what is a first degree burn

A

redness

mild pain

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10
Q

what is a second degree burn

A

blisters

severe pain

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11
Q

what is a third degree burn

A

Destroys tissue, skin & bone

severe pain may be absent due to nerve endings being destroyed

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12
Q

how many types of fractures are there

A

2

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13
Q

what are the two types of fractures

A

closed/simple

open/compound

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14
Q

what types of injury are caused by a shock

A

little or no evidence of injury to severe trauma

cardiac arrest

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15
Q

what indications does an obstructed airway give

A

inability to talk
grasping & pointing to throat
exaggerated breathing efforts
skin turning bluish color

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16
Q

what are the two types of heat related injuries

A

heat exhaustion

heat stroke

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17
Q

explain heat exhaustion

A

skin is cool, moist, and clammy
pupils dilated
body temp may be normal or high
profusely sweating

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18
Q

explain heat stroke

A

breakdown of sweating mechanism
hot dry skin
uneven pupil dilation
weak rapid pulse

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19
Q

how many types of cold weather injuries are there

A

three

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20
Q

what is hypothermia

A 
general cooling of body
pale and unconscious
breathing is slow & shallow
pulse faint or undetectable
body tissues feel semi-rigid
arms & legs feel stiff
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21
Q

what are the three types of cold weather injuries

A

hypothermia
superficial frostbite
deep frostbite

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22
Q

what is superficial frostbite

A

ice crystals forming in the upper skin layers

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23
Q

what is deep frostbite

A

ice crystals forming in the deeper tissues

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24
Q

what is shock (not electrical)

A

body suffers from insufficient blood flow

result of severe injury or illness

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25
how many types of shock are there
5
26
name the five types of shock
CHASN ``` cardiogenic hypovolemic anaphylactic septic neurogenic ```
27
what is septic shock
bacteria in blood releasing toxins
28
what is anaphylactic shock
severe allergic reaction
29
what is cardiogenic shock
heart is damaged & unable to supply sufficient blood
30
what is hypovolemic shock
severe blood and fluid loss
31
what is neurogenic shock
spinal cord injury
32
what is Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR)
combination of rescue breathing & chest compressions
33
what is the purpose of Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR)
support blood flow to heart & brain to "buy time"
34
what are the steps of Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR)
C/A/B or Circulation/Airway/Breathing
35
what are the steps of the Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR) survival chain
``` Recognition/activation of CPR Chest compressions AED/defibrillator Rapid defibrillation Effective advanced life support (EMT’s, ambulance) Integrated post-cardiac arrest care ```
36
what is Operational Risk Management (ORM)
systematic decision-making process to identify and manage hazards
37
How many steps of ORM are there
five
38
what are the steps of ORM
IAMIS ``` Identify Hazards Assess Hazards Make Risk Decisions Implement Controls Supervise ```
39
how many classes of mishaps are there
three
40
what is a Class A mishap
$2,000,000 or more death permanent total disability
41
what is a Class B mishap
$500,000 to $2,000,000 permanent partial disability three or more personnel hospitalized
42
what is a Class C mishap
$50,000 to $500,000 | loss of one day or more work (not including day of)
43
name the flight line PPE
``` Cranials Eye Protection Hearing Protection Impact Protection Gloves Foot Protection ```
44
what is the minimum foot protection
steel toed ANSI approved FOD free soles
45
define chemical warfare
employment of chemical agents military operations kill, seriously injure, or incapacitate personnel
46
what is an example of a nerve agent
Sarin (GB) | VX
47
how does a nerve agent work
agents that disrupt nerve impulses to body | damage body functions rather than tissue
48
how does a blister agent work
agents that cause inflammation, blisters, and general destruction of tissues temporary blindness and/or death
49
what is an example of a blister agent
``` Distilled mustard (HD) Levinstein Mustard (HL) ```
50
how does a blood agent work
agents that attack enzymes carrying oxygen in blood stream | rapid breathing or choking due to lack of oxygen in the blood
51
what is an example of a blood agent
``` Hydrogen Cyanide (AC) Cyanogen Chloride (CK) ```
52
how does a choking agent work
agents causing tears, nausea, vomiting, and headache lungs fil with fluid, causing drowning feeling breathing rapid and shallow
53
what is an example of a choking agent
Phosgene (CG) | Diphosgene
54
what does M9 paper do
detects presence of liquid chemical agents
55
how does M9 paper indicate liquid chemical agents
turning reddish color
56
what can M9 paper not detect
chemical agent vapors
57
what is Atropine/2-PAM-chloride
specific therapy for nerve agent casualties
58
where is Atropine/2-PAM-chloride injected
intramuscular injection, self-aid or first aid
59
how does biological warfare work
agents to cause disease, sickness, or death | reduce the effectiveness of opposing forces
60
what are the basic divisions of biological warfare agents
- pathogens | - toxins
61
what is a pathogen
bacteria viruses fungus
62
how are biological warfare toxins categorized
source | physiological affect
63
what are the sources of biological toxins
bacterial toxins plant toxins animal venoms
64
what are the physiological effects of biological toxins
neurotoxins cytotoxins dermatoxins
65
define IPE
Individual Protective Equipment
66
Name Individual Protective Equipment (IPE)
``` MCU-2P C-2 canister filter Advanced chemical protective garment (ACPG) Chemical protective gloves and liners Chemical protective overboots and laces Skin decontamination kit ```
67
what is Radiological Warfare
deliberate use of radiological weapons to produce widespread injury and death of all life.
68
name the types of nuclear blasts
``` High altitude air burst Air burst Surface Burst Shallow underwater burst Deep underwater burst ```
69
describe a nuclear high altitude burst
above 100,000 feet | EMP
70
describe a nuclear air burst
fireball does not reach the surface | vacuum collects debris from severe blast damage resulting fallout
71
describe a nuclear surface blast
worst fallout fireball touches surface massive radioactive fallout
72
describe a nuclear shallow underwater burst
small fireball and blast wave | large waves and water contamination
73
describe a nuclear deep underwater blast
less visual effect | yields greater contaminated water
74
what is the worst nuclear blast
Surface Burst | worst fallout due to the fireball touching the surface
75
what is the difference between deep shelter and ready shelter on a ship
``` Ready-shelter: just inside weather envelope access to deep shelter min shielding close to battle stations ``` ``` Deep-shelter: low in ship near centerline max shielding often far from battle stations ```
76
what is a DT-60
non-self reading high range casualty dosimeter 0-600 roentgens.
77
what is MOPP
management tool to coordinate systems in CBR environment
78
how many MOPP levels are there
five
79
what is the worst MOPP level
four
80
what is MOPP level zero
Issue IPE, accessible within five minutes
81
what is MOPP level one
Afloat: MASK & Gloves readily accessible Ashore: Don protective equipment, M9 tape
82
what is MOPP level two
Afloat: Mask carried, decon supplies stage Ashore: don protective over-boots.
83
what is MOPP level three
Afloat: GQ, install filters, don over-boots Ashore: fill canteens, activate decon stations
84
what is MOPP level four
Afloat: Don mask/hood, gloves, Circle William, countermeasure washdown Ashore: Gloves
85
how do you extinguish a class alpha fire
water Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF) Carbon Dioxide (CO2)
86
how do you extinguish a class bravo fire
AFFF Halon 1211 Potassium Bicarbonate (PKP) Carbon Dioxide (CO2)
87
how do you extinguish a class charlie fire
``` Energized: Carbon Dioxide (CO2) Halon 1211 Potassium Bicarbonate (PKP) H2O in fog patterns with a min distance of 4 feet ``` De-energized: Treat as a Class A, B, or D fire.
88
how do you extinguish a class delta fire
H2O in large quantities in high velocity fog from safe distance due to possible explosion Jettison
89
what % of AFFF is used
6% AFFF | 94% water
90
what is Halon 1211
colorless, faintly sweet smelling, electrically nonconductive gas that leaves no residue to clean up.
91
what sizes do CO2 bottles come in
15lb | 50lb wheeled
92
define PKP
Potassium Bicarbonate
93
what is Potassium Bicarbonate
PKP
94
what are the safety concerns on the flight deck/flight line
jet blast rotor arcs propellers jet intakes
95
what are mitigating factors to flight deck/flight line hazards
being FOD free wearing PPE being qualified keeping head on a swivel
96
explain a runway
Paved areas for takeoff and landing
97
what are threshold markings
parallel stripes on ends of the runways 12 feet wide by 150 feet long designate landing area
98
what is an overrun area
paved or un-paved ends of runways provides deceleration area for aborting or overshooting
99
what is a MA-1 series overrun barrier
designed to stop tricycle landing gear aircraft not without hooks always in standby status
100
what is emergency shore based recovery equipment
for in-flight emergencies | stop in shortest distance possible to minimize injury to pilot or aircrew and damage to the aircraft
101
what are taxiways
paved areas for aircraft to move between parking aprons, runways, and airfield services
102
what is a parking apron
open paved areas adjacent to hangers, fuel, services often called the flight line used for parking, servicing, and loading aircraft; they are connected to the runways by taxiways
103
what is the compass calibration pad
magnetically quiet area where compass is calibrated
104
where do we calibrate aircraft compasses
compase rose
105
explain runway numbering system
numbered in relation to magnetic heading rounded to nearest 10 If there are 2 parallel runways then L/R or C added
106
what is the airfield rotating beacon
airport below Visual Flight Rules (VFR) identifies airport location rotates clockwise at a constant speed military airfields use 2 white lights and one green flashing 12 to 15 times per minute
107
which way does airfield rotating beacon spin
clockwise at constant speed
108
explain the lights on a military airfield rotating beacon
2 white lights one green flash 12-15 times per minute
109
how fast do lights on military airfield rotating beacon flash
12 to 15 times per minute
110
Flight Deck PPE
``` Flight deck (steel-toed) safety shoes Protective jersey Cranial impact helmet Protective eye goggles Leather gloves ```
111
Yellow Jerseys
``` Aircraft Handling Officer Flight Deck Officer Catapult & Arresting Officer Air Bos’n Plane directors ```
112
White Jerseys
``` Safety department Air Transport Officer Landing Signal Officer Troubleshooters Medical ```
113
Brown Jerseys
Plane Captains
114
Blue Jerseys
Chocks & Chains Tractors Elevator Operators
115
Green Jerseys
Catapult and Arresting Gear Squadron Aircraft Maintenance personnel Helo LSE Photographers
116
Red Jerseys
Crash & Salvage EOD AOs
117
Purple Jerseys
Fuel
118
Flight Deck PKP Markings
Wheel Edge Coaming 12in red stripe 3in white "PKP" stencil No Coaming 18in white circle 5in red "PKP" stencil
119
Flight Deck Salt Water Station Markings
Wheel Edge Coaming 18in wide red stripe 3in yellow "W" stencil No Coaming 18in red triangle yellow "W" stencil
120
Flight Deck CO2 Bottle Markings
Wheel Edge Coaming 12in red stripe 3in white "CO2" stencil No Coaming 18in white circle 5in red "CO2" stencil
121
Flight Deck AFFF station markings
Wheel Edge Coaming 18in green stripe 3in white "AFFF" stencil No Coaming 18in green square 3in white "AFFF" stencil
122
Flight Deck Bomb Jettison Ramp markings
yellow stripe up & over deck edge on sides alternating 4in wide red & yellow stripes 12in black bomb picture in center
123
Flight Deck steam smothering markings
18in black stripe | 3" white "STEAM" stencil
124
where should Support Equipment (SE) not be driven
under any part of parked acft
125
where should Support Equipment (SE) be parked
adjacent to acft prevents collision
126
safety precaution if Support Equipment (SE) motor is running
must be manned
127
how do you hook up a grounding strap
ground then acft
128
how much static charge can build up on acft windshield & canopy
100,000 volts
129
what safety precaution do you have to take after flight or prolonged exposure to high winds
discharge canopy & windshield before touching
130
what is the initial tie-down
min 6 chains
131
when is initial tie-down used
immediately: prior to in between after flight
132
how many different tie down schemes are there
four
133
what tie down do we use up to 45 knots
normal
134
what is a normal tie down
9 chains
135
how many knots is normal tie-down rated for
up to 45 knots
136
what tie down do we between 45 & 60 knots
moderate
137
how many chains in a moderate tie-down
14
138
how many knots is moderate tie-down rated for
45 to 60 knots
139
what tie-down do we use over 60 knots
heavy
140
how many chains in a heavy tie-down
20
141
how many knots is heavy tie-down rated for
above 60 knots
142
how are tie-down hooks configured
hook down on acft | hook up on deck
143
how are acft critical walkways identified
"NO STEP" markings
144
what is the only mandatory signal regardless of type
emergency stop
145
what is max towing speed
5 knots or speed of slowest walker
146
how many people are required to move acft
6 to 10
147
what are move directors responsibilities
Overall responsible for assembling crew ensuring proper quals pre move briefing safe movement of the aircraft with emphasis on safety
148
who is required to move acft
``` Move Director Brake Rider Chock Walker Safety Observers Tractor Driver ```
149
what is brake riders responsibilities on move team
pre-move brake inspection
150
what is chock walkers responsibilities on move team
removing, carrying, installing chocks | escorts acft
151
what is move team safety observers responsibilities
ensure acft ready to be towed | ensure clearance
152
how many move team safety observers do you need
three wing tips tail of acft
153
where are move team safety observers placed
wing tips | tail of acft
154
what is move team tractor drivers responsibilities
safe & slow movement from hook up to final parking | responsible directly to Move Director
155
who is move team tractor driver responsible to
Move Director
156
Define FPCON
Force Protection Conditions
157
what is FPCON
measures designed to increase the level of a unit’s defense against terrorist attacks
158
who sets FPCON
commanders at any level
159
can subordinate commanders up FPCON locally
yes
160
define FPCONs
Alpha: general threat Bravo: increased threat Charlie: incident occurs or intel of incident Delta: area of attack or intel of imminent attack
161
define DEFCON
Defense Condition of Readiness
162
what is DEFCON
graduated levels of readiness for military
163
what DEFCON is most severe
DEFCON 1
164
what DEFCON is least severe
DEFCON 5
165
how many DEFCON levels are there
five
166
what DEFCON is set during normal peacetime
DEFCON 5
167
what is DEFCON 1
maximum force readiness
168
what is the objective of Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP)
achieve & continually improve aviation material readiness & safety standards with optimum use of manpower, material, facilities, and funds
169
define NAMP
Naval Aviation Maintenance Program
170
what is MO's job
maintenance Department DH
171
what is Assistant Maintenance Officer's (AMO) job
assist MO coordinate TAD manages SE training & licensing manages manpower via NTMPS/FLTMPS
172
Define MMCO
Maintenance/Material Control Officer
173
what is Maintenance, Material Control Officer's (MMCO) job
overall production and material support coordinates and monitors department workload responsible for preparing and publishing the MMP.
174
what is Quality Assurance Officer's (QAO) job
assign personnel to perform QA functions conduct QA training ensure QARs receive cross training
175
what is the Material Control Officer's (MCO) job
handles supply
176
define MCO
Material Control Officer
177
Define QAO
Quality Assurance Officer
178
how many levels of maint are there in the Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP)
three
179
what are the three levels of maint in the Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP)
I O D
180
what is O-Level maint
Maintenance performed by operating unit day-to-day in support of its own operations
181
what is I-Level maint
enhance and sustain combat readiness & mission capability of supported activities
182
what is D-Level maint
FRC sites | depot
183
what are the two types of maint described in the Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP)
rework | upkeep
184
what is rework
work done above squadron level
185
what is upkeep
work down by squadron
186
what is turnaround maint
between flights | good for 24 hours (if no flight or maint performed)
187
what is daily maint
inspect for defects good for 72 hours (If no flight or major maint) acft can be flown for 24 hours before needs to be redone
188
what is special maint
maint/inspect based on periodicity
189
what is conditional maint
based on unscheduled events/circumstances
190
what is phase maint
dividing total maint package into smaller requirements | done sequentially and in order
191
where is rework done
D-Level facitlity
192
what is an aircraft logbook
hard bound record of acft history
193
name the sections of the aircraft logbook
``` Non-aging record Flight time Inspection records Repair/Rework Technical Directive Miscellaneous History Preservation and De-preservation record Installed Explosive Devices Inventory Record Assembly Service Record Equipment History Record Scheduled Removal Components cards (SRCs) Aviation Life Support System records Aeronautical Equipment Service Records (AESRs) ```
194
how many sections are in an acft logbook
14
195
what is the Quality Assurance (QA) concept
prevention of defects
196
what is a Quality Assurance Representative
maint personnel assigned to QA | certify work has been completed IAW with current instructions and directives
197
what is a Collateral Duty QAR (CDQAR)
maint personnel who function capacity as QARs meet same quals assigned on a temporary or permanent basis
198
what is a Collateral Duty Inspector (CDI)
assigned to production inspect all work and comply with the required QA inspections spot check all work in progress familiar with QA programs & audits
199
what is the Central Technical Publications Library (CTPL)
central source of up-to-date technical directives
200
define CTPL
Central Technical Publications Library
201
what is CSEC
tool used by QA | provides standardized objective measurement for audits
202
how many types of audits are performed by QA
three
203
name the types of audits performed by QA
special work center programs
204
what is a special audit
evaluate specific maintenance task, process, procedure or program audits held for one year
205
how long are special audit records kept for
one year
206
what is a work center audit
semi-annual evaluate overall performance of each work center all areas of work center evaluated including personnel monitored and managed programs logs and records licenses
207
what is a program audit
evaluate specific programs | annually
208
what is the Aircraft Confined Space Program (ACSP)
ensure safe enviro for fuel cells & tank work can use FRC if no one qualified
209
define ACSP
Aircraft Confined Space Program
210
what is the Naval Aviation Maintenance Deficiency Reporting Program (NAMDRP)
reporting of: substandard workmanship improper QA procedures deficiencies in material & publications
211
define NAMDRP
Naval Aviation Maintenance Deficiency Reporting Program
212
define NATOPS
Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization
213
what is the Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (NATOPS)
improving combat readiness | reducing mishap rate
214
when was the Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (NATOPS) program established
1961
215
how many acft did the navy lose in 1950
776
216
what is most dangerous time for personnel
engine startup and shutdown
217
steps for starting an engine
``` wheels chocked parking brake set intake screens installed Foreign Object Damage (FOD) inspection plane tied down adequate fire extinguishing equipment ```
218
what does "warning" mean in Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (NATOPS) program
may result in injury or death
219
what does "caution" mean in Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (NATOPS) program
may result in damage to equipment
220
what does "note" mean in Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (NATOPS) program
must be emphasized
221
what does "shall" mean in Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (NATOPS) program
procedure is mandatory
222
what does "should" mean in Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (NATOPS) program
procedure is recommended
223
what does "may" mean in Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (NATOPS) program
procedure is optional
224
what does "will" mean in Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (NATOPS) program
future | never indicates any degree of requirement
225
where are visual identifications placed
vertical stabilizer
226
what identifications does LANT use
first character "A through M" | second character "A through Z"
227
what identifications does PAC use
first character shall be "N through Z" | second character "A through Z"
228
what identification does CANTRA use
first character shall be "A through G" | no second character
229
Significance of 14 November 1910
First take off from a ship Eugene Ely Civilian pilot USS BIRMINGHAM (CL 2)
230
what ship did the first shipboard take off happen from
USS BIRMINGHAM
231
who was the first pilot to take off from a ship
Eugene Ely | Civilian Pilot
232
what date did the first shipboard take off happen on
14 November 1910
233
what is the birthday of naval aviation
08 May 1911
234
what signified the birth of Naval aviation
purchase of two planes for $5,500 by Captain W. I. Chambers
235
what were the first planes purchased by the navy designated as
A-1 Triad
236
who purchased the first navy planes
Captain W. I. Chambers
237
who was the first fatality in naval aviation
Ensign William D. Billingsley | fell from B-2 at 1,600 ft
238
what is significant about 08 May 1911
birth of naval aviation
239
what was the A-1 Triad
first plane purchased by the navy
240
who was with Ensign William D. Billingsley in the B-2 when he died
Lieutenant John H. Towers
241
what date did the first naval aviation death occur on
20 June 1913
242
what is significant about 20 June 1913
first naval aviation death | Ensign William D. Billingsley
243
what is significant about 22 October 1917
first Inspectors School started 14 men at MIT predecessor of current QAR
244
what was the first carrier
USS LANGLEY (CV 1)
245
When did the first carrier get commissioned
20 March 1922
246
what is significant about 20 March 1922
first carrier, USS LANGLEY (CV 1) commissioned
247
what was the USS LANGLEY (CV 1) before conversion
Jupiter | Coal Carrier
248
what is significant about 10 March 1948
``` FJ-1 Fury, first navy jet, makes first carrier landing USS BOXER (CV 21) ```
249
when was the first jet landing on a carrier
10 March 1948
250
what was the first navy jet to land on a carrier
FJ-1 Fury
251
what carrier did the first navy jet land on
USS BOXER (CV 21)
252
when did the battle of the Coral Sea happen
07-08 May 1942
253
what is significant about the battle of the Coral Sea
first carrier vs carrier battle
254
what is significant about 07-08 May 1942
Battle of the Coral Sea
255
what did the US prevent in the battle of the Coral Sea
Japanese invasion of Australia
256
how many ships were lost on 07May in the battle of the Coral Sea
US lost two minor ships | Japan lost one Carrier
257
how many carriers were involved in Coral Sea
5 three Japanese two US
258
how many ships were lost on 08May in the battle of the Coral Sea
US lost one carrier (LEXINGTON) USS YORKTOWN Carrier severely damaged Japan had on carrier damaged
259
what carrier did US lose on 08May at battle of the Coral Sea
USS LEXINGTON
260
what US carriers were involved in the Battle of the Coral Sea
USS LEXINGTON | USS YORKTOWN
261
what is significant of the Battle of Midway
turning point in Pacific War
262
what is significant about 03-05 June 1942
Battle of Midway
263
when was the Battle of Midway
03-05 June 1942
264
explain Battle of Midway
Japanese armada of 160 warships Commander-in-chief Admiral Yamamoto split his force Japan had 4 aircraft carriers and 11 battleships U.S. had 3 carriers and no battleships Americans broke Japanese codes Admiral Nimitz positioned his 3 carriers HORNET ENTERPRISE YO0RKTOWN As Japanese launched planes U.S. planes headed for the enemy carriers U.S. sank 3 Japanese carriers next day fourth Japanese carrier was sunk Japanese planes sank the YORKTOWN In one day Japan lost its bid for control of the Pacific
265
who were the Admirals involved in the Battle of Midway
US: Admiral Nimitz Japan: Admiral Yamamoto
266
how many carriers were involved in Battle of Midway
seven US: three (HORNET, ENTERPRISE, YORKTOWN) Japan: four
267
how many carriers did US lose at Midway
one - YORKTOWN
268
what carrier did the US lose at Midway
YORKTOWN
269
when was Guadalcanal
13-15 November 1942
270
what is significant about 13-15 November 1942
Guadalcanal
271
what happened at Guadalcanal
US Marines took control of island Japan lost 8 ships five Sullivan Brothers died on USS JENEAU US changed policy on siblings serving together
272
what ship did the Sullivan brothers die on
USS JENEAU
273
what battle did the Sullivan brothers die during
Guadalcanal
274
where were the Sullivan brothers from
Waterloo, Iowa
275
define acceleration
rate of change of the speed and or velocity of matter with time
276
what is the rate of change of the speed and or velocity of matter with time
acceleration
277
define speed
rate of movement in terms of distance measured in an allotted amount of time
278
what is the rate of movement in terms of distance measured in an allotted amount of time
speed
279
define velocity
quickness or speed of an object in a given time and direction
280
what is the quickness or speed of an object in a given time and direction
velocity
281
explain Newton's First Law
inertia object at rest will remain at rest object in motion will remain in motion until acted upon by an outside force
282
what is Newton's Law of "inertia"
Newton's First Law
283
explain Newton's Second Law
force object moving with uniform speed is acted upon by an external force change of motion, or acceleration directly proportional to amount of force inversely proportional to mass of object
284
which of Newton's Laws is "force"
Newton's Second Law
285
what is Newton's Third Law
action and reaction | for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction
286
what of Newton's Laws is "action and reaction"
Newton's Third Law
287
how does Bernoulli's principle apply to flight
``` relative wind strikes leading edge wing flow of air is split up and down upper surface of wing is curved flow over its surface is disrupted lift is accomplished by difference in airflow across top and bottom of wing ```
288
explain lift
force that acts in upward direction supports aircraft in the air counteracts effects of weight must be greater than or equal to weight if flight is to be sustained
289
what is the force that acts, in an upward direction, to support the aircraft in the air
lift
290
explain weight
force of gravity acting downward
291
what is the force of gravity acting downward on the aircraft and everything on the aircraft
weight
292
explain drag
force that tends to hold aircraft back - resists motion
293
what is the force that tends to hold aircraft back
drag
294
explain thrust
force developed by aircraft's engine acts in forward direction must be greater than or equal to drag in order for flight to begin or be sustained
295
what is the force developed by acft engine
thrust
296
define Longitudinal Axis
reference line running down the center of the aircraft between the nose and tail
297
what is the imaginary reference line running down the center of the aircraft between the nose and tail
Longitudinal Axis
298
what motion is centered on Longitudinal Axis
Roll
299
define Lateral Axis
imaginary reference line running parallel to the wings
300
what is the imaginary reference line running parallel to the wings
Lateral Axis
301
what motion is centered on Lateral Axis
Pitch
302
Pitch is centered on which axis
Lateral
303
Roll is centered on which axis
Longitudinal
304
explain Vertical Axis
imaginary reference line running from the top to the bottom of the aircraft
305
what is the imaginary reference line running from the top to the bottom of the aircraft
Vertical Axis
306
what motion is centered around Vertical Axis
Yaw
307
Yaw is centered around which axis
Vertical Axis
308
what acft moveable surface affects roll
ailerons
309
what axis do ailerons affect
longitudinal
310
what motion do ailerons control
roll
311
what axis do elevators affect
lateral
312
what motion do elevators control
pitch
313
what acft moveable surface affects yaw
rudder
314
what axis do rudders affect
vertical
315
what motion do rudders control
yaw
316
what motion in helos does the cyclic stick control
roll & pitch
317
what does the cyclic stick do
``` tilts plane (angle) of rotor blades gives helicopter directional motion by changing direction of lift ```
318
what motion in helos does the tail rotor control
yaw
319
how does a helos tail rotor work
counteracts torque of main rotor
320
what is the purpose of flaps
creates extra lift resulting in max lift reducing takeoff runs and landing rollout
321
what is the purpose of the spoiler
decrease or spoil wing lift | creates more predictable landing glideslope
322
what is the purpose of speed brakes
reduce speed of aircraft
323
what are slats
movable control surfaces attached to the leading edge of the wing
324
what do slats do
introduces high-energy air into boundary layer over wing low airspeeds: improves lateral control allows aircraft to be controlled at speeds below normal landing speed
325
what is a collective
main rotor of helicopter w/two or more rotor blades
326
how does a collective produce lift
rotating blades at high rate | collectively increasing angle of attack or pitch of the rotor blades
327
what are is the main rotor on a helicopter called
collective
328
what is the Angle of Attack (AoA)
angle wing or fuselage meets a flow of air | angle between chord line (imaginary line from leading to trailing edge of wing) & relative wind
329
define relative wind
direction of air stream in relationship to the wing
330
how is Angle of Attack (AoA) measured
"units" opposed to degrees
331
what is autorotation
method of allowing helicopter to land safely from altitude without using engine power
332
how does autorotation
``` collective lowered allowing reverse airflow through rotor maintains RPM predetermined altitude collective pitch increased converts inertial energy into lift reduces rate of descent, cushioning landing ```
333
name the basic acft hydraulic system components
``` reservoir pump tubing to transmit fluid selector valves to direct flow actuating unit to convert fluid to work ```
334
name the basic landing gear components
``` shock strut assembly tires wheel brake assembly retracting & extending mechanism side struts & supports ```
335
what does landing gear shot strut assembly do
absorbs shock instead of airframe absorbing it
336
what do landing gear tires do
allows aircraft to roll easily | provides traction during takeoff & landing
337
what does landing gear wheel brake assembly do
slow & stop aircraft | prevent aircraft from rolling while parked
338
what does landing gear retracting & extending mechanism do
electrically or hydraulically extend and retract the landing gear
339
what do landing gear side struts & supports do
Provides lateral strength/support for the landing gear
340
define NALCOMIS
Naval Aviation Logistics Command Management Information System
341
define OOMA
Optimized Organizational Maintenance Activity
342
define OIMA
Optimized Intermediate Maintenance Activity
343
what does NALCOMIS provide
capability to manage maintenance and supply functions and processes allows users to enter, collect, process, store, review and report information required by the organization
344
what are the subsections of the Optimized Organizational Maintenance Activity (OOMA)
``` Maintenance subsystem Material subsystem Flight subsystem Platform software interface CM/Logs and records subsystem ```
345
what is the Optimized Organizational Maintenance Activity (OOMA)
management tool that provides essential, real time information on a continuing basis tracks and enables maintenance managers to assign relative importance to each item
346
what does Optimized Organizational Maintenance Activity (OOMA) allow tracking of
``` NMCS/PMCS status Flyable discrepancies Non-aircraft related discrepancies ALSS status SE status Mission Mounted Equipment (MME) status ```
347
what is a JCN
9 character alphanumeric code | basis for data collection
348
what is the Accumulated Job Status History
history of the WO from start to finish
349
in Optimized Organizational Maintenance Activity (OOMA) what is in the "Worker Hours" block
workers name tools used QA/CDI hours they worked
350
in Optimized Organizational Maintenance Activity (OOMA) what is in the "Work Unit Code" block
numeric or alpha-numeric code that identifies the system or subsystem of the malfunction
351
what are some common types of Work Orders (WO)
``` DM: Discrepancy Maintenance TS: Troubleshooting CM: Cannibalization Maintenance AD: Assist Maintenance FO: Facilitate Other Maintenance CL: Conditional look phase CF: Conditional fix Phase SX: Special inspection one workcenter SC: Special inspection control TD: Technical Directive ```
352
what are the six core capabilities
``` forward presence deterrence sea control power projection maritime security humanitarian assistance/disaster relief (HADR) ```
353
mission of Helicopter Sea Combat (HSC)
perform rescue logistics mine countermeasures combat search-and-rescue
354
what platform has the following missions: - perform rescue - logistics - mine countermeasures - combat search-and-rescue
Helicopter Sea Combat (HSC)
355
mission of Helicopter Maritime Strike (HSM)
Pri antisubmarine anti-surface warfare Sec logistics rescue
356
what platform has the following primary mission: - antisubmarine - anti-surface warfare
Helicopter Maritime Strike (HSM)
357
mission of Helicopter Training (HT)
basic & advanced training
358
what platform does basic & advanced helicopter training
Helicopter Training (HT)
359
mission of Tactical Electronic Warfare (VAQ)
tactically exploit, suppresses, degrade and deceive enemy electromagnetic defensive and offensive and communication
360
what platform is responsible for electromagnetic warfare
Tactical Electronic Warfare (VAQ)
361
mission of Carrier Airborne Early Warning (VAW)
provide early warning against weather, missiles, shipping and aircraft
362
what platform provides early warning against weather, missiles, shipping and aircraft
Carrier Airborne Early Warning (VAW)
363
mission of Fleet Composite (VC)
provide simulations and target towing
364
what platform provides simulations and target towing
Fleet Composite (VC)
365
mission of Strike Fighter (VFA)
fighter and attack
366
what platform does fighter and attack missions
Strike Fighter (VFA)
367
mission of Patrol (VP)
anti-submarine anti-surface reconnaissance mining
368
``` what platform does: anti-submarine anti-surface reconnaissance mining ```
Patrol (VP)
369
mission of Fleet Air Reconnaissance (VQ)
electronic warfare support interception recording analysis of radiated electromagnetic energy
370
what platform performs electronic warfare support of electromagnetic energy
Fleet Air Reconnaissance (VQ)
371
mission of Aircraft Logistics Support (VR)
transport of personnel and supplies
372
what platform transports personnel and supplies
Aircraft Logistics Support (VR)
373
mission of Carrier Logistics Support (VRC)
transport of personnel and supplies from carrier
374
what platform transports personnel and supplies from carriers
Carrier Logistics Support (VRC)
375
mission of Training (VT)
basic & advanced fixed wing training
376
what platform provides fixed wing pilot training
Training (VT)
377
mission of Air Test and Evaluation (VX/VXE)
test & evaluate operational capabilities of new aircraft and equipment develop tactic & doctrines for their most effective use.
378
what platform tests & evaluates new acft and develops tactics
Air Test and Evaluation (VX/VXE)
379
what is a HAZMAT Authorized Use List (AUL)
current inventory of HAZMAT, chemical substances, or components known or suspected to contain HAZMAT used for local acquisition and use
380
what are the general steps of HAZMAT spill response
``` Discovery Notification Initiation of action Evaluation Containment Damage control Dispersion of Gases/vapors Cleanup and decontamination Disposal Certification for re-entry Follow-up reports ```
381
how often do HAZMAT storage locations have to be inspected
monthly | quarterly
382
what does a HAZMAT inspection consist of
``` tightness of closure corrosion leakage labeling shelf-life ```
383
what are Type I hangars designed for
carrier aircraft
384
what are Type II hangars designed for
US Marine Corps Aviation
385
what are Type III hangars designed for
land based patrol and large transport aircraft
386
what items are in shore based hangars
``` painted red fire lane portable CO2 acft electrical systems with cords for connecting acft manual or auto hangar doors ground points (10 ohms or less) ```
387
what hangar fire protection systems are there
low level AFFF system (optical detector) closed head water only overhead sprinklers draft curtains
388
what are the largest hangars
aircraft carriers
389
how many acft can a aircraft carrier hangar hold
60
390
what are the structure and surfaces on the F/A-18 made of
graphite and carbon/epoxy composite materials
391
what precautions are used when handling composite material
respirator goggles close weave cotton gloves
392
what are no-step areas on acft
``` leading edge flaps trailing edge flaps horizontal stabilizers ailerons radome surfaces ```
393
how are step surfaces identified
non-skid
394
what is the minimum structural towing requirements
radome closed & secured hydraulic brake pressure min 2900 psi doors 68 left & right closed or removed
395
what voltage can build up on canopy and windshield
100,000 volts
396
how many tie downs on acft
12 rings | 14 with jacking beam
397
where are acft tie downs located
``` 1/2: nose landing gear 3: FWD fuselage (door 16) 4/6/8: port main landing gear 5/7/9: STBD main landing gear 10/11: under wings (doors 107L & 107R) 12: aft fuselage (door 164) 13/14: jacking beam ```
398
what is a temporary composite repair
simple & practical restore full load carrying until permanent repair
399
what is a one-time flight composite repair
restore limited load carrying | allow acft to be flown to a repair station for permanent repairs
400
what is a permanent composite repair
meets or exceeds strength of original structure or component
401
name the major sections of the acft fuselage
``` radome FWD fuselage center fuselage aft fuselage wings ```
402
where is the FWD fuselage
``` radome - aft edge of panel 18 includes: canopy windshield cockpit Leading Edge Extension (LEX) nose landing gear ```
403
where is the center fuselage
FWD edge panel 26 to aft edge panel 55L & R includes main landing gear intake ducts external stores stations fuselage fuel tanks Airframe Mounted Accessory Drive (AMAD)
404
where is the aft fuselage
``` panel 62L&R to exhaust nozzles includes: engines speed brake vertical stabilizers horizontal stabilizers arresting hook ```
405
what does the Leading Edge Extensions (LEX) do
provide added lift at high angles of attack
406
define LEX
Leading Edge Extensions
407
what are Leading Edge Extensions (LEX)
extensions of wing leading edge
408
name flight control surfaces
``` ailerons leading edge flaps trailing edge flaps stabilizers rudders speed brake Leading Edge Extensions (LEX) ```
409
where are ailerons located
outboard trailing edge of each wing
410
how do ailerons work
in flight asymmetrically to produce roll motion takeoff/landing deflect symmetrically with trailing edge flaps up to 42 degrees
411
where are Leading Edge Flaps located
inboard and outboard leading edge of each wing
412
how do Leading Edge Flaps work
in flight asymmetrically to aid the ailerons in producing roll motion take off landing deflect symmetrically to change lift
413
where are Trailing Edge Flaps
trailing edge of each wing
414
how do Trailing Edge Flaps work
in flight independently deflect asymmetrically to aid the ailerons in producing roll motion take off landing deflect symmetrically to change lift
415
where are stabilizers
either side of the tail of the aircraft
416
how do stabilizers work
deflect symmetrically to produce pitch motion | asymmetrically to produce roll motion
417
where are rudders
rear of each vertical stabilizer
418
how do rudders work
in flight commanded symmetrically to produce yaw motion take off landing (AOA less than 8 degrees) rudders toe-in to increase lift and improve stability take off landing (AOA greater than 8 degrees) rudders toe-out to improve stability
419
where is the speed brake
F/A-18 A-D only | top of the aft fuselage between the vertical stabilizers
420
how does speed brake work
extended into the air stream creating drag and slowing the aircraft's airspeed
421
where are Leading Edge Extensions (LEX)
left and right side of aircraft
422
how do Leading Edge Extensions (LEX) work
speed brake when commanded by pilot below Mach 1.5 provides high nose down pitch movement when transitioning from a high AOA with aggressive nose down maneuver
423
define NLG
Nose Landing Gear
424
what is the Nose Landing Gear (NLG)
``` provides landing takeoff taxi energy absorption tire/runway compliance ```
425
what is the design of the Nose Landing Gear (NLG)
Dual chamber design
426
what does Nose Landing Gear (NLG) dual chamber design provide
smooth long strike during landing & catapult operations
427
where is the launch bar attached
forward side Nose Landing Gear (NLG) shock strut
428
what does launch gear provide
means of steering aircraft during carrier deck tracking | engages catapult, applying catapult tow forces to the aircraft
429
define MLG
Main Landing Gear
430
what sit he design of the Main Landing Gear (MLG)
lever design with a shock absorber
431
what does Main Landing Gear (MLG) provide
stable platform for aircraft carrier and shore based operations
432
where are wheel brakes attached to acft
Main Landing Gear (MLG)
433
what do wheel brakes do
provide modulated individual wheel-controlled braking anti-skid system
434
what is the arresting hook
hydraulically controlled arm means of stopping aircraft where normal runway landings are not available & carrier
435
what does each F-18 hydraulic system contain
PARTS ``` Pump Actuating Unit Reservoir Tubing Selector Valves ```
436
how many hydraulic systems does acft have
two
437
what is Hydraulic System 1
provides hydraulic fluid pressure to primary flight controls either as a primary or backup source
438
what is Hydraulic System 2
provides hydraulic fluid pressure to primary flight controls either as a primary or backup source also supplies pressure to all other non-flight control systems
439
what do hydraulic switching valves do
allow backup hydraulic pressure to replace the primary hydraulic pressure If primary hydraulic is restored, the switching valve shifts to normal operating position
440
what dangers does engine operation produce
exhaust velocity temperature air intake noise
441
what is the safe distance from acft intakes
9 ft norm | 25 ft at MIL or MAX
442
how long is area aft of tailpipe hazardous after engine shutdown
15 min
443
what is the safe distance directly behind exhaust
115 ft at idle | 925 ft at MAX
444
define APU
Auxiliary Power Unit
445
what is the hazards of the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)
center point of exhaust 142 MPH 328-350 degrees 19 inch diameter exhaust 24-MPH 250-300 degrees
446
what ranges for HERF must be followed when refueling
100 ft airborne radars | 300 ft ground radars
447
what engine is used on the F/A-18E/F
F414-GE-400
448
what engines are used in the F/A-18A-D
F404-GE-400 F404-GE-402
449
what acft is the F414-GE-400 engine in
F/A-18E/F
450
what acft is the F404-GE-400 engine in
F/A-18A-D
451
what acft is the F404-GE-402 engine in
F/A-18A-D
452
what type of engine is the F-18 engine
``` low bypass axial flow dual-spool turbofan Modular construction afterburner ```
453
what type of ignition system does engine have
automatic intermittent duty AC powered capacitor discharge system
454
does engine ignition system require acft electrical power
no | system is self contained on engine
455
how long does engine ignition system remain energized
N2 rpm is 54% or greater | throttle is retarded below idle
456
what components make up the engine ignition system
``` alternator FADEC or ECA engine fuel control ignition exciter main igniter AB igniter AB flame sensor two fan speed transmitters thermocouple harnesses ```
457
explain engine lubrication system
self-contained recirculation dry sump system no external connections or inputs
458
what does engine lubrication system provide lubrication/cooling to
required bearings and gears
459
does engine lubrication system require external connections or inputs
no
460
define VEN
Variable Exhaust Nozzle
461
what type of Variable Exhaust Nozzle (VEN) does engine have
cam and link-positioned hinged-flap convergent-divergent nozzle
462
where is Variable Exhaust Nozzle (VEN) located
mounted to aft end of the afterburner case
463
how is Variable Exhaust Nozzle (VEN) operated
hydraulically (fuel) operated electrically controlled series of actuators, synchronizing shafts, links, flaps, seals provides controlled throat area (A8) for the exhaust gasses from the turbine and AB
464
what does the Variable Exhaust Nozzle (VEN) do
provide required thrust and fuel efficiencies while maintaining exhaust gas temperature (T5)
465
what does Variable Geometry consist of
Fan Variable Geometry (FVG) | Compressor Variable Geometry (CVG)
466
define FVG
Fan Variable Geometry
467
define CVG
Compressor Variable Geometry
468
what does Fan Variable Geometry (FVG) do
provide best efficiency of the fan while preserving fan stall margin
469
what does Compressor Variable Geometry (CVG) do
provides best efficiency of the compressor while preserving compressor stall margin
470
what provides best efficiency of the fan while preserving fan stall margin
Fan Variable Geometry (FVG)
471
what provides best efficiency of the compressor while preserving compressor stall margin
Compressor Variable Geometry (CVG)
472
how is anti-icing activated
manually by pilot signal to FADEC/ECA activate anti-icing valves
473
define FADEC
Full Authority Digital Engine Control
474
what does the Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) / ECA do
receives aircraft & engine sensor info | determines appropriate engine scheduling to operate the engine in all areas of the flight envelope
475
what does fuel system do
distribution control storage
476
what are the components of fuel system
``` main fuel control afterburner (AB) fuel control throttle system fuel cooling fuel storage ```
477
what does main fuel control do
govern correct fuel flow to combustion section control engine starting & operation from IDLE through MIL power working fluid for hydraulic and cooling tasks
478
what does Afterburner (AB) fuel control do
governs correct AB fuel flow controlling AB from start through MAX power
479
what does throttle system do
provides pilot control of acft engines
480
what type of system is throttle system
fly-by-wire | no mechanical connections
481
what makes up the throttle system
throttle quadrant on left hand console | FADEC/ECA
482
how does engine rcv throttle controls
via FADEC/ECA
483
how do the left and right throttle levers operate
independently to left/right engine respectively
484
how many internal fuel tanks are there
six four fuselage two wing
485
how many external tanks can be carried
five
486
how much fuel can F/A-18C with no external fuel tanks carry
10,200 lbs
487
how much fuel can F/A-18E configured with five external fuel tanks carry
30,000 lbs
488
what are wing tanks made of
foam
489
what does foam in wing tanks allow
self-seal holes
490
can acft be fueled without power
yes
491
can acft be fueled/defueled with out engines running
yes
492
what is the refuel/defuel system
manifold providing single point ground single air input single output in each tank
493
where is refueling/defueling controlled/monitored
door 8
494
where is In-Flight Refueling (IFR) probe located
right forward fuselage
495
define CG
Center of Gravity
496
what does internal fuel transfer system do
replenish fuel in #2 & #3 tank | maintains fuel system Center of Gravity (CG)
497
how does internal fuel transfer system normally operate
pumps fill #2 & #3 tank | wing fuel tanks replenish tank #4
498
what controls Center-of-Gravity (CG) via fuel
signal data compute | monitors tanks #1 & #4
499
what does Hot Fuel Recirculation system do
maintains optimum fuel delivery temp to engines cools engines Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) & other engine components
500
what does the Hot Fuel Recirculation system absorb heat from
liquid cooling systems Airframe Mounted Auxiliary Drive (AMAD) oil hydraulic fuel in heat exchangers
501
what doe the fuel pressurization and vent system do
maintains pressure on the fuel in all tanks | vents fuel vapors overboard
502
how does fuel pressurization and vent system work
removes pressure or increases pressure via ram air pressure supplied by scarf vent outlets
503
how is fuel quantity in each tank measured
capacitance gauging transmitters | controlled by signal data computer
504
what does secondary power system consist of
auxiliary power unit (APU) | airframe mounted accessory drive (AMAD)
505
what is the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)
centrifugal flow gas turbine engine supplies air through the AMAD for Environmental Control Systems (ECS) Main Engine Start (MES) Ground Maintenance Mode (GMM)
506
define GMM
Ground Maintenance Mode
507
define MES
Main Engine Start
508
define ECS
Environmental Control Systems
509
what are the three modes of operation for the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)
Environmental Control Systems (ECS) Main Engine Start (MES) Ground Maintenance Mode (GMM)
510
how does Secondary Power Compressed Air work
provides pneumatic power for operating air turbine starter or environmental control system (ECS)
511
where is the connection for huffer starts
right wheel well
512
what is a huffer start
use of an external air source
513
how is Airframe Mounted Auxiliary Drive (AMAD) connected to Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)
pneumatically through the Air Turbine Start (ATS)
514
define ATS
Air Turbine Start
515
what does the Airframe Mounted Auxiliary Drive (AMAD) provide
transmits power to engine for starts
516
what powers the Airframe Mounted Auxiliary Drive (AMAD)
engine during normal ops | APU during Ground Maintenance Mode (GMM)
517
where are the Airframe Mounted Auxiliary Drive (AMAD) gearboxes
door 53L/R
518
are the Airframe Mounted Auxiliary Drive (AMAD) gear boxes interchangeable
yes
519
how is Airframe Mounted Auxiliary Drive (AMAD) gear box connected to engine
mechanically via Power Transmission Shaft (PTS)
520
what components does Airframe Mounted Auxiliary Drive (AMAD) drive
fuel boost/motive flow pump electrical generator 3000/5000 psi hydraulic pump
521
purpose of the Air Refueling System
provide tanker capabilities
522
what does the Air Refueling System
``` integrated structural hydraulic pneumatic fuel electrical systems ```
523
what does the Air Refueling System structural system consist of
nose (dry) center (wet) tail (dry)
524
what does the Air Refueling System structural system provide
load carrying | mounting structure
525
what is the nominal operating pressure of the Air Refueling System hydraulic system
3000 psi
526
what does the Air Refueling System hydraulic system provide
necessary power for hose extension hose retraction fuel transfer
527
how does the Air Refueling System hydraulic system operate with or without acft
independent of acft
528
what is the delivery pressure of the Air Refueling System delivery system
35-60 psi
529
what is the capability of the Air Refueling System to deliver fuel at the coupling
220 gpm
530
what does the Air Refueling System electrical system consist of
flight station mounted control panel | provides cmd & cntl of refueling store
531
what is the Air Refueling System electrical system shielded from
EMI
532
what features does the Air Refueling System Electrical System have
EMI protection Built-in-Test (BIT) codes Frequency Shift Keying data transmission
533
what is the Ram Air Turbine A2 (RAT)
four bladed power source | drives the hydraulic pump via a spline shaft of the Air Refueling System
534
where is the Air Refueling Store Ram Air Turbine A2 (RAT) located
nose of store via six threaded studs
535
how does the Air Refueling Store Ram Air Turbine A2 (RAT) operate
auto feathering feature solenoid operated brake PWR Off: solenoid deenergized blades feathered brake on PWR On: solenoid energized brake released blades unfeather via springs & accelerate - settling at right speed due to weights and centrifugal forces
536
what is the governing speed of the Air Refueling Store Ram Air Turbine A2 (RAT)
3,600 to 5,000 RPM
537
what does the Air Refueling Store hydraulic pump provide
pressurized hydraulic fluid for operation of Air Refueling Store
538
what is the capability of the Air Refueling Store fuel transfer pump
220 gpm at 35-60 psi
539
what does the guillotine on the Air Refueling Store do
provides an explosive means for severing the hose from the store
540
what must be done before applying external pwr to acft
circuit breakers & switches IAW MIMS inspect pwr cables & cable assembly plugs ensure pwr source is secure
541
what is a barometric altimeter
uses pitot-static pressure to indicate altitude above sea level
542
what determines altitude above sea level
barometric altimeter
543
what is a radar altimeter
uses radio echoes to determine altitude above ground level
544
what determines altitude above ground level
radar altimeter
545
define azimuth
angular position in horizontal plane measured clockwise from true north
546
define bearing
angular position of an object with respect to a reference point or line
547
define range
distance of an object from an observer
548
define heading
actual orientation of the aircraft’s longitudinal axis at any instance
549
define true heading
direction measured by true north
550
define magnetic heading
direction of the earth’s magnetic field at that location as the reference
551
what is the angular position in horizontal plane measured clockwise from true north
azimuth
552
what is the angular position of an object with respect to a reference point or line
bearing
553
what is the distance of an object from an observer
range
554
what is the actual orientation of the aircraft’s longitudinal axis at any instance
heading
555
what is the direction measured by true north
true heading
556
what is the direction of the earth’s magnetic field at that location as the reference
magnetic heading
557
define relative heading
current direction that an object is facing a the 0/360 azimuth alignment
558
what is the current direction that an object is facing a the 0/360 azimuth alignment
relative heading
559
what is the advantage of using Fiber Optic Cables
``` improved system performance immunity to electrical noise signal security improved safety and electrical isolation reduced size and weight environmental protection overall system economy ```
560
what is the purpose of UHF & VHF
communicate with other aircraft, ground stations, shipping traffic and coastal stations
561
what is the Intercommunication Audio System (IAS)
amplification & routing of audio signals between cockpit, ground crew and rear cockpit supplemental and backup communication, radio navigation, and identification (CNI) controls combined aircraft threat warnings and advisories, weapon tones, and voice alerting
562
define IAS
Intercommunication Audio System
563
define CNI
Comms / Navigation / Identification
564
define INS
Inertial Navigation System
565
what is the Inertial Navigation System (INS)
self-contained fully automatic dead reckoning navigation system
566
what does Inertial Navigation System (INS)
detects aircraft motion (acceleration and attitude) provides acceleration, velocity, present position, pitch roll, and true heading to related systems
567
define ARI
Attitude Reference Indicator
568
what is the Attitude Reference Indicator (ARI)
self-contained pitch and roll attitude reference system with an electrically driven gyro provides a minimum of 3 minutes of attitude information with total loss power provide backup pitch and roll attitude for use by other systems
569
define ILS
Instrument Landing System
570
what is the Instrument Landing System (ILS)
all weather approach guidance system provides steering info during aircraft approach by decoding azimuth & elevation signals from surf xmtrs signals displayed on HUD and ARI
571
what does Pitot Static system measure
temperature pitot static pressure
572
what measures temperature, pitot & static pressure surrounding acft
Pitot Static system
573
what detects aircraft motion (acceleration and attitude) and provides acceleration, velocity, present position, pitch roll, and true heading to related systems
Inertial Navigation System (INS)
574
what is a self-contained pitch and roll attitude reference system with an electrically driven gyro
Attitude Reference Indicator (ARI)
575
how many minutes of attitude reference does Attitude Reference Indicator (ARI) provide with total loss of power
3 min
576
what is an all weather approach guidance system
Instrument Landing System (ILS)
577
how does Instrument Landing System (ILS) work
provides steering info during aircraft approach by decoding azimuth & elevation signals from surf xmtrs
578
where is Instrument Landing System (ILS) information displayed
Heads Up Display (HUD) | Attitude Reference Indicator (ARI)
579
define AFCS
Automatic Flight Control System
580
define ATC
Automatic Throttle Control
581
what is the function of the Automatic Flight Control System (AFCS)
provide autopilot and Automatic Throttle Control (ATC)
582
what does the Airspeed Indicator do
displays airspeed
583
what does the Airspeed Indicator use to determine airspeed
function of pitot and static pressure
584
what increment is airspeed indicated on the Airspeed Indicator
10 knot increments from 50 to 200 knots
585
how does the standby Pressure Altimeter display altitude
three displays pointer display (0 to 1000 ft in 50 ft increments) drum display w/two movable digits (1000 ft increments to 99,000 ft) four digit display indicating barometric pressure in inches of mercury
586
how many displays does the standby Pressure Altimeter have
three
587
what does the Vertical Speed Indicator display
climb or dive rate
588
how does the Vertical Speed Indicator work
senses changes in air pressure
589
how does the Vertical Speed Indictor work
climb or dive rates between 0 to 6,000ft per min Upper Half: rate of climb Lower Half: rate of dive ``` 100ft increments (0-1,000ft) 500ft increments (1,000-6,000ft) ```
590
when does the Angle of Attack (AOA) Indexer operate
landing gear down | weight off the gear
591
what does the Angle of Attack (AOA) Indexer display
approach angle of attack with lighted symbols
592
what shows the approach angle of attack with lighted symbols
Angle of Attack (AOA) Indexer
593
what displays the climb or dive rate
Vertical Speed Indictor
594
define AOAT
Angle of Attack Transmitters
595
what does the Angle of Attack Transmitters (AOAT) do
measure the difference between the longitudinal axis of the aircraft and the airstream
596
define ADC
Air Data Computer
597
what does the Air Data Computer (ADC) do
receives inputs from various aircraft sensors corrects errors computes accurate air data & magnetic heading
598
what are Air Data Computer (ADC) outputs used for
``` primary flight data displays navigation weapons delivery altitude reporting environment control unsafe landing warning ```
599
define ADSU
Airstream Direction Sensing Units
600
what four modes does the Data Link have
automatic carrier landing (ACL) vector (VEC) waypoint mode alignment (ALGN)
601
define ACL
automatic carrier landing
602
define VEC
vector
603
define ALGN
alignment
604
how many modes does the Data Link have
four
605
what modes does the RADAR have
A/A: Air-to-Air | A/G: Air-to-Ground
606
what does RADAR provide
``` target detection designation tracking navigation terrain avoidance precision velocity measurement for navigation update and improved weapon delivery accuracy ```
607
what do Mission Computers (MC) do
communicate & provide data conversion with non-mux avionic equip air-to-air & air-to-ground master modes of operation
608
define MC
Mission Computers
609
what does HUD provide
``` altitude steering navigation A/A and A/G weapons navigation FLIR video ```
610
what is the field of view of the HUD
20 degrees
611
where is the optical center for the HUD
4 degrees below waterline
612
define DDI
Digital Display Indicator
613
how many Digital Display Indicators (DDI) are there
two
614
what does Digital Display Indicators (DDI) display
stores status | system status
615
define UFCD
Up Front Control Display
616
what does Up Front Control Display (UFCD) provide
entry and display of aircraft data
617
what is Up Front Control Display (UFCD) used for
selection and control of communication, radio navigation, and identification (CNI) functions
618
define MPCD
Multi Purpose Color Display
619
what is Multi Purpose Color Display (MPCD) used for
maps
620
define TAMMAC
Tactical Aircraft Moving Map Capability
621
define DMC
Digital Map Computer
622
define DMS
Digital Map Set
623
what does Tactical Aircraft Moving Map Capability (TAMMAC) provide
provide enhanced navigational/tactical situational awareness to aircrew
624
what is Digital Map Set (DMS) made up of
Digital Map Computer | high speed interface cable
625
define SSR
Solid State Recorder
626
what does the cockpit recording system do
records critical events and displays as selected by the aircrew
627
what does cockpit recording system record to
either 8mm or Solid State Recorder (SSR)
628
define DFIRS
Deployable Flight Incident Recorder Set
629
how many functions does the Deployable Flight Incident Recorder Set (DFIRS) have
two
630
what are the two functions of the Deployable Flight Incident Recorder Set (DFIRS)
retrieving and storage of flight data | deployment of stored flight data before the aircraft crashes or upon aircraft impact
631
what provides deployment capability for Deployable Flight Incident Recorder Set (DFIRS)
``` front mount rear mount impact initiator severable door (door 300) thin layer explosive shielded mild detonation cord ```
632
what freq does Deployable Flight Incident Recorder Set (DFIRS) beacon transmit on
243 MHz for SAR | MAD
633
how long does Deployable Flight Incident Recorder Set (DFIRS) beacon last for
72 hours
634
define FIRAMS
Flight Incident Recorder and Monitoring System
635
what does Flight Incident Recorder and Monitoring System (FIRAMS) do
monitors engine and airframe operational status for unit failures and caution/advisory conditions
636
define JHMCS
Joint Helmet Cueing System
637
what does the Joint Helmet Cueing System (JHMCS) do
improves situational awareness, increases aircraft survivability and increases the ability to acquire a visual target
638
what weapon does the Joint Helmet Cueing System (JHMCS) work with
AIM-9X
639
what is position lighting used for
determine the relative position of the aircraft at night
640
what are the colors of the position lighting
port: red stbd: green tail: white
641
where I the DAY ID strobe light located
nose landing gear
642
explain taxi/landing light assembly
white faces forward does not turn with nose wheel used at night
643
when are approach lights activated
when all landing gear are down and locked and weight is off wheels
644
where are the approach lights located
nose landing gear strut
645
during carrier ops what does the AOA approach lights do
displays AOA to LSO
646
how many formation lights are there
eight
647
what color are the formation lights
green
648
where are the formation lights located
two on each wing tip one outside each vertical stab one on each side of the forward fuselage just forward of the LEX
649
when are formation lights used
during join up after takeoff in-flight refueling routine night formation flights
650
what do formation lights provide to wingmen
indicate changes of attitude and relative position
651
what does the electrical power supply system consist of
two generators two transformer-rectifiers (TR) one battery one power distribution bus
652
during normal ops what is the generator configuration
left generator powers left bus | right generator powers right bus
653
what is battery power provided for
normal engine start
654
what does the maintenance battery supply power to
28vdc to essential & maint buses
655
what kind of generators are they
``` variable speed constant frequency 115/200 VAC 400 Hz three phase ```
656
what are hazards with forward firing ordnance
``` auto-ignition toxic chemicals inadvertent separation high heat protruding surfaces motor detonation ```
657
yellow ordnance
HE
658
brown ordnance
rocket motor
659
blue ordnance
training, inert
660
explain BRU suspension equipment
bomb ejector racks | suspend & eject single stores & weapons
661
name the BRUs
BRU-32 BRU-33 BRU-41 BRU-42
662
explain LAUs
used to suspend and launch missiles
663
name the LAUs
LAU-7 LAU-116 LAU-127
664
name the ordnance pylons
``` SUU-62 SUU-63 SUU-78 SUU-79 SUU-80 ```
665
how many weapon stations does F/A-18A-D have
nine
666
name the F/A-18A-D weapon stations
1&9: LAU-7 2/3/7/8: SUU-63 w/BRU-32 4&6: LAU-116 5: SUU-62 w/BRU-32
667
how many weapon stations does F/A-18E/F have
eleven
668
name the F/A-18E/F weapon stations
``` 1&11: LAU-127 2&10: SUU-80 w/BRU-32 3/4/8/9: SUU-79 w/BRU-32 5&7: LAU-116 6: SUU-78 w/BRU-32 ```
669
what are CADs
small explosive filled cartridges used to fire other explosives or release mechanisms
670
name the CADs
MK 19 MK 107 MK 125
671
what is the MK 19 CAD used for
auxiliary CAD opens BRU-32 bomb rack allowing weapon to free fall used when all other options have failed
672
what are cluster bombs
anti-tank bomb
673
name the cluster bombs
MK 20 CBU-99 CBU-100
674
what are Fire Bombs
thin-skinned container of fuel gel designed for use against dug-in troops, supply installations, wooden structures, and land convoys
675
what kinds of fuel/gelling solutions do Fire Bombs use
JP-4 or JP-5
676
name the fire bomb
MK 77 Mod 4
677
what is a MK 77 Mod 4
fire bomb
678
how much fuel does a MK 77 Mod 4 fire bomb hold
75 gallons
679
how much does a MK 77 Mod 4 fire bomb weigh
500 lbs full
680
what are aircraft laid mines used for
employed in offensive operations and defensive mining operations defend or control vital straits, port approaches, convoy anchorages, and seaward coastal barriers
681
what does GBU stand for
Guided Bomb Unit
682
what makes up a GBU
Bomb: Mk-82/Mk-83/Mk-84 Computer Control Group (CCG): MAU-169 Airfoil Group (AFG): MXU-650/MXU-651/MXU-667
683
define AFG
Airfoil Group
684
define CCG
Computer Control Group
685
how does Computer Control Group (CCG) work
mounts on nose of bomb (no nose fusing) detects laser-illuminated target provides weapon guidance signals to moveable guidance fins
686
what are the two methods bomb fins can operate
retarded | non-retarded
687
what does retarded fins mean
fins open to slow bomb to allow acft to clear tgt area
688
what does non-retarded fins mean
fins folded, weapon falls unimpeded for high level bombing
689
define CATM
Captive Air Training Missile
690
what are Captive Air Training Missile (CATM)
all types of missiles other than service or tactical
691
what are the Captive Air Training Missile (CATM) categories
Captive Air Training Missile (CATM) Dummy Air Training Missile (DATM) Special Air Training Missile (NATM) Practice Guided Weapon (PGW)
692
define DATM
Dummy Air Training Missile
693
define NATM
Special Air Training Missile
694
define PGW
Practice Guided Weapon
695
what are Dummy Air Training Missile (DATM) | used for
ground training missiles used to train ground personnel in missile assembly/disassembly, uploading and downloading, and handling procedures
696
what kind of missile is a AIM
air to air
697
what kind of missile is a AGM
air to ground
698
what is the difference between an AIM-9M and AIM-9X
AIM-9X has IR sensor & forward wings to improve maneuverability
699
what is a AGM-154
Joint Standoff Weapon (JSOW)
700
what is the nomenclature for Joint Standoff Weapon (JSOW)
AGM-154
701
what is the purpose of the AGM-154 Joint Standoff Weapon (JSOW)
engagement of defended targets at ranges outside that of standard anti-aircraft defenses, thereby increasing aircraft survivability and minimizing friendly losses
702
what is a AGM-65
Maverick
703
What is the nomenclature for a Maverick
AGM-65
704
characteristics of the AGM-84 series
solid fuel rocked conventional warhead imaging infrared guidance
705
what is a AGM-84D
Harpoon
706
What is the nomenclature for a Harpoon
AGM-84D
707
what is a AGM-84E
Stand-off Land Attack Missile (SLAM)
708
What is the nomenclature for a Stand-off Land Attack Missile (SLAM)
AGM-84E
709
what does the AGM-84E Stand-off Land Attack Missile (SLAM) uses for terminal flight
Inertial Navigation System (INS) GPS IR
710
what is a AGM-84H
Stand-off Land Attack Missile-Expanded Response (SLAM-ER)
711
What is the nomenclature for a Stand-off Land Attack Missile-Expanded Response (SLAM-ER)
AGM-84H
712
what is a AGM-88
High-Speed Anti-Radiation Missile (HARM)
713
What is the nomenclature for a High-Speed Anti-Radiation Missile (HARM)
AGM-88
714
what is the gun system
F/A-18A-D: M61A1 | F/A-18E/F: M61A2
715
what are the modes of operation for the M61A1/2 gun
air-to-ground (A/G) air-to-air (A/A) air combat maneuver (ACM encounter)
716
what is a M61A1
gun on F/A-18A-D
717
what is a M61A2
gun on F/A-18E/F
718
what are the two attack modes for the M61A1/2 gun
computer pilot attack | manual attack
719
what is computer pilot attack mode for the M61A1/2 gun
computer assisted firing
720
what is the manual attack mode for the M61A1/2 gun
backup | manual sighting
721
what is the rate of fire for the M61A1/2 gun
High: 6,000 rounds per minute Low: 4,000 rounds per minute
722
define SMS
Stores Management System
723
define ACP
Armament Control Processor
724
define SMP
Stores Management Processor
725
define SDCC
Signal Data Converter- Controls
726
what does the Stores Management System (SMS) / Stores Management Processor (SMP) do
interface between weapons stations and acft
727
define CLC
Command Launch Computer
728
what weapon is the Command Launch Computer (CLC) used with
AGM-88 High-Speed Anti-Radiation Missile (HARM)
729
where is the Command Launch Computer (CLC) located
door 13R
730
what are the six programs QA manages
MANSAC M Maint & Safety A Audits N Naval Aviation Maint Reporting Pgm (NAMDRP) S SE Misuse & Abuse A Aircraft Confined Space Program (ACSP) C CTPL
731
define WUC
Work Unit Code
732
define NAMDRP
Naval Aviation Maint Reporting Pgm
733
what is the nomenclature for the countermeasures dispensing system
F/A-18A-D: ALE-39 | F/A-18E/F: ALE-47
734
what is an ALE-39
countermeasures dispensing system for F/A-18A-D
735
what is an ALE-47
countermeasures dispensing system for F/A-18E/F
736
what goes in the countermeasures dispensing system
chaff flares RF expendables
737
what is an ALE-50
Towed Active RF Decoy
738
what is the nomenclature for the Towed Active RF Decoy
ALE-50
739
what are pyrotechnics used for
signaling marking SAR
740
what is the objective of the Egress System Checkout Certification Program
thoroughly familiarize personnel working in and around the cockpit with ejection seats and the special hazards associated with those system
741
how often does a new Egress System Checkout need to be done
every 6 months | after more than 90 days TAD
742
what is hypoxia
decrease in amount of oxygen in bloodstream causing eyes, body and muscles to fail
743
what is a decrease in oxygen in the blood stream causing muscles to fail
hypoxia
744
what is anoxia
death from lack of oxygen
745
what is a death from lack of oxygen
anoxia
746
precautions prior to entering cockpit
ensure ejection seat safety pins are installed and handle is in safe position ensure the Canopy Jettison safety pin is installed
747
define ABO
Aviator's Breathing Oxygen
748
what are the two types of Aviator's Breathing Oxygen (ABO) in the navy
Type I: Gaseous Oxygen | Type II: Liquid Oxygen
749
how many types of Aviator's Breathing Oxygen (ABO) are there in the navy
two
750
how pure is Liquid Oxygen (LOX)
99.5%
751
define LOX
Liquid Oxygen
752
what is the expansion rate of Liquid Oxygen (LOX)
862 to 1
753
what PSI can Liquid Oxygen (LOX) generate if not vented
12,000 PSI
754
safe smoking distance from Liquid Oxygen (LOX)
50 feet
755
what are the minimum aircrew PPE
``` flight suit aviator boots anti-g garment helmet survival radio/beacon gloves anti-exposure suit ID tags knife personal survival kit signal device flashlight life preserver laser eye protection ```
756
how deep is the oxygen mask rated for
16 feet
757
what is a CRU-103/P
oxygen regulator
758
what is the nomenclature of the oxygen regulator
CRU-103/P
759
characteristics of the CRU-103/P Oxygen Regulator
Chest mounted positive pressure g-mounted regulator provides on demand oxygen
760
what is a LPU-36/P
Life Preserver
761
what is the nomenclature of the Life Preserver
LPU-36/P
762
characteristics of the LPU-36/P Life Preserver
low profile floatation collar FlU-8B/P automatic/manual inflation assembly only for acft with ejection seats
763
what is the Anti-G suit
bladder system encased in a fire-resistant cloth
764
define PHSRU
Parachute Harness Sensing Release Unit
765
what activates the Parachute Harness Sensing Release Unit (PHSRU)
sea water
766
define HDU
Helmet Mounted Display Unit
767
what does the Helmet Mounted Display Unit (HDU) do
projects onto the visor and superimposed in the operators view recording pilot view by routing info to Cockpit Video Recording System (CVRS)
768
define CVRS
Cockpit Video Recording System
769
what is the SJU-17A(V)2/A
ejection seat
770
what is the designator of the ejection seat
SJU-17A(V)2/A
771
define NACES
Navy Common Ejection Seat
772
characteristics of the SJU-17A(V)2/A Ejection Seat
automatic cartridge operated rocket assisted
773
how many cartridges does each SJU-17A(V)2/A Ejection Seat initiator have
two | left & right
774
what does right SJU-17A(V)2/A Ejection Seat cartridge do
start canopy jettison sequence activates seat electronic sequencer activates seat restraints & fires seat catapult after delay
775
what does left SJU-17A(V)2/A Ejection Seat cartridge do
redundantly activate seat electronic sequencer | provides backup source to seat catapult
776
how big is the emergency oxygen cylinder
100 cubic inches
777
how is emergency oxygen system activated during ejection
automatically by a lanyard connected to the cockpit floor
778
what does the CANOPY JETT lever in the cockpit do
manually initiates canopy jettison without initiating seat ejection
779
define ECS
Environmental Control System
780
where is air supplied to the Environmental Control System (ECS) from
"bled" compressor stage of turbine engines upstream of the combustor
781
name the 12 subsystems of the Environmental Control System (ECS)
3A 2B 3C O R 2W ``` Air cycle conditioning Avionics cooling Anti-G/vent suit Bleed air control Bleed air leak detection Cabin cooling & defog Cabin pressurization Canopy seal OBOGS Radar liquid cooling Windshield anti-ice & rain removal Wave guide pressurization ```
782
define OBOGS
On-board Oxygen Generation System
783
what does the fire detection system monitor
Airframe Mounted Auxiliary Drive (AMAD) Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) Engine Bays
784
how many shots does the fire extinguishing system get
one shot, one bay
785
define DBFSS
Dry Bay Fire Suppression System
786
what does the Dry Bay Fire Suppression System (DBFSS) do
suppresses fire events associated with ballistic damage
787
how many optical fire detectors doe the Dry Bay Fire Suppression System (DBFSS) have
14
788
how many dry bay extinguishers does that Dry Bay Fire Suppression System (DBFSS) have
6
789
what program ensures safety with ordnance
Ordnance Certification and Qualification Program
790
define SEAD
Suppression of Enemy Air Defenses
791
what is the Suppression of Enemy Air Defenses (SEAD) mission
neutralize, destroy, or temporarily degrade the enemy air defenses
792
what mission is to neutralize, destroy, or temporarily degrade the enemy air defenses
Suppression of Enemy Air Defenses (SEAD)
793
define WAS
War at Sea
794
what is the War at Sea (WAS) mission
destroy the enemy’s naval vessels and amphibious forces
795
what mission is to destroy the enemy’s naval vessels and amphibious forces
War at Sea (WAS)
796
define CAS
Close Air Support
797
what is the Close Air Support (CAS) mission
precisely deliver various munitions at a set time in support of ground troops
798
what mission is to precisely deliver various munitions at a set time in support of ground troops
Close Air Support (CAS)
799
define MAS
Maritime Air Superiority
800
what is the Maritime Air Superiority (MAS) mission
maintain the airspace around the battle group
801
what mission is to maintain the airspace around the battle group
Maritime Air Superiority (MAS)
802
define ACM
Air Combat Maneuvering
803
what is Air Combat Maneuvering (ACM) mission
art of maneuvering a combat aircraft in order to attain a position from which an attack can be made on another aircraft
804
define BFM
Basic Fighter Maneuvering
805
what is the art of maneuvering a combat aircraft in order to attain a position from which an attack can be made on another aircraft
Air Combat Maneuvering (ACM)
806
define CAP
Combat Air Patrol
807
what is the mission of Combat Air Patrol (CAP)
aircraft patrol for the purpose of intercepting and destroying hostile aircraft before they reach their target
808
what is mission is aircraft patrol for the purpose of intercepting and destroying hostile aircraft before they reach their target
Combat Air Patrol (CAP)
809
define FCF
Functional Check Flight
810
what is the purpose of a Functional Check Flight (FCF)
determines whether an aircraft airframe, engine, accessories, or equipment is functioning according to established standards
811
what determines whether an aircraft airframe, engine, accessories, or equipment is functioning according to established standards
Functional Check Flight (FCF)
812
how many types of Functional Check Flight (FCF) are there
four
813
what are the types of a Functional Check Flight (FCF)
A B C D
814
define FCLP
Field Carrier Landing Practice
815
what is a Field Carrier Landing Practice (FCLP)
familiarize pilots with procedures and techniques required for a successful carrier or field carrier landing
816
what familiarize pilots with procedures and techniques required for a successful carrier or field carrier landing
Field Carrier Landing Practice (FCLP)
817
how many operations are there in the Field Carrier Landing Practice (FCLP)
two
818
what are the two operations in the Field Carrier Landing Practice (FCLP)
Takeoff | Landing
819
define VMC
Visual Meteorological Conditions
820
define VFR
Visual Flight Rules
821
what is Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC)
conditions in which pilots have sufficient visibility to fly the aircraft maintaining visual separation from terrain and other aircraft
822
what are conditions in which pilots have sufficient visibility to fly the aircraft maintaining visual separation from terrain and other aircraft
Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC)
823
define IMC
Instrument Meteorological Conditions
824
what are Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC)
weather conditions that normally require pilots to fly primarily by reference to instruments
825
what else is Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC) called
Blind Flying
826
what are weather conditions that normally require pilots to fly primarily by reference to instruments
Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC)
827
what is the difference between Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC) and Instrument Flight Rules (IFR)
IMC explains the weather | IFR describes the rules for flying acft
828
define VFR
Visual Flight Rules
829
what are Visual Flight Rules (VFR)
rules that govern the procedures for conducting flights under visual conditions
830
define IFR
Instrument Flight Rules
831
what are Instrument Flight Rules (IFR)
rules for governing the procedures for conducting instrument flight
832
define CATCC
Carrier Air Traffic Control Center
833
mission of Carrier Air Traffic Control Center (CATCC)
maintains primary control of airborne aircraft operating from carrier responsible for the status and upkeep of all carrier air operations
834
define FLOLS
Fresnel Lens Optical Landing System
835
what does the Fresnel Lens Optical Landing System (FLOLS)
provides the pilot with a visual indication of his/her relative position with respect to a prescribed glide slope
836
what is the glide-scope
designed to bring the aircraft down to the deck within the cross-deck pendant pattern with a sage arresting hook clearance above the stern ramp of the carrier
837
define MOVLAS
Manually Operated Visual Landing Aid System
838
what is the Manually Operated Visual Landing Aid System (MOVLAS)
emergency signaling system used when Fresnel Lens Optical Landing System (FLOLS) is down same as Fresnel Lens Optical Landing System (FLOLS) but smaller vertical orange lamps controlled by LSO
839
where can Manually Operated Visual Landing Aid System (MOVLAS) be installed
Station 1: immediately in front of Fresnel Lens Optical Landing System (FLOLS) Station 2 & 3: port & stbd deck
840
what is the primary purpose of the ejection seat
place for pilot to sit
841
define AAW
Anti-Air Warfare
842
what is Anti-Air Warfare (AAW)
destruction of enemy airborne assets (planes, missiles)
843
define AMW
Amphibious Warfare
844
what is Amphibious Warfare (AMW)
attacks launched from the sea by naval forces and by landing forces embarked in ships or craft designed to achieve a shore presence in a littoral zone
845
what is a Work Unit Code
describes exact system being worked on
846
how many Sailors needed to move acft
6 with brakes | 7 without brakes
847
what is the temp of LOX
- 297
848
What is the founding date of VFA-146
February 1st 1956
849
What was 146 called before Blue Diamonds
Blacktails
850
what four previous acft did 146 fly
F9F Cougar FJ-4B Fury A4 Skyhawk A7 Corsair
851
name four previous CVNs 146 has been with
``` RONALD REAGAN NIMITZ KITTY HAWK JOHN C STENNIS CARL VINSON HORNET RANGER ORISKANY LEXINGTON CONSTELLATION ENTERPRISE AMERICA CARL VINSON ```
852
what 146 acft model was most accident free in history
A7 Corsair
853
what was 146 first squadron to use in Vietnam War
`Laser Guided Bombs
854
three combat engagements 146 has been in
Vietnam War Operation Desert Storm Operation Enduring Freedom Iranian Hostage Crisis Operation Southern Watch
855
“Trucidemus Omnes Et Devastemus Impedimenta Eorum” translates into what?
Directly “Kill everyone and destroy their baggage.” Indirectly meaning, “Break things and kill people.”
856
What is the purpose of firefighting
Save lives Save equipment

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