f2f review Flashcards

1
Q

First line of drug produce red-orange body fluids

A

Rifampin / Rifampicin

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2
Q

Antimycobacterials that are hepatotoxic

A

All first-line drugs

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3
Q

Antimycobacterial may cause peripheral neuritis

A

Isoniazid

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4
Q

Drug to give if patient is experiencing a gout attack, hyperuricemia, and increased uric acid

A

Pyrazinamide

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5
Q

2nd line drug that is given if TB strain is already resistant to Amikacin

A

Streptomycin

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6
Q

Technical definition of your MDR TB

A

Resistant to both Isoniazid and Rifampin

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7
Q

Duration of TB treatment intensive phase

A

2 months

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8
Q

Duration of continuation/maintenance of TB treatment

A

4 or more months

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9
Q

Duration of TB of the spine or TB meningitis treatment

A

1 year (2 months intensive, 10 months maintenance)

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10
Q

Main drug used for leprosy

A

Dapsone

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11
Q

Drug for multibacillary leprosy

A

Clofazimine

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12
Q

Rifampicin analog that can be used or can be given orally but is not absorbed systemically

A

Rifaximin

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13
Q

Rifampicin analog given to HIV/AIDS patients

A

Rifabutin

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14
Q

May cause tendon rupture or tendonitis

A

Fluoroquinolones

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15
Q

Causes myalgia-arthralgia

A

Streptogramins: Quinupristin-Dalfopristin

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16
Q

Causes gray baby syndrome

A

Chloramphenicol

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17
Q

Causes red man syndrome

A

Vancomycin

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18
Q

Has the propensity to cause pseudomembranous colitis

A

Ampicillin
Co-Amoxiclav
Carbapenems/Meropenems
Clindamycin

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19
Q

All drugs with MRSA activity

A

Vancomycin, Clindamycin
Streptogramins
Ceftaroline (5th gen beta-lactam)
Tigecycline, Eravacycline, Omadacycline
Rifampicin
Tedizolid
Cotrimoxazole
Levofloxacin, Gatifloxacin, Sparfloxacin

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20
Q

Pseudomonal activity

A

Carbapenems (except ertapenem)
Cefoperazone
Ceftazidime

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21
Q

What age can tetracyclines be given

A

8 and above

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22
Q

Causes ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity

A

Aminoglycosides

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23
Q

Most notable adverse effect of Tetracyclines

A

Tooth enamel discoloration
Enamel dysplasia

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24
Q

Drugs that are contraindicated for pregnants

A

Tetracyclines:
Doxycycline
Demeclocycline
Minocycline
Tigecycline

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25
Prophylaxis for leptospirosis
Doxycycline
26
Drugs that are allowed for Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH)
Demeclocycline
27
Used for increased gastric motility
Erythromycin
28
Cause QT prolongation
Macrolides (Torsades de Pointes Arrhythmia)
29
Used for malaria
Doxycycline Clindamycin Sulfadoxine + Pyrimethamine
30
Used for chlamydia
Doxycycline 100mg 2x a day for 1 week
31
Given to pregnant patient with chlamydia
Azithromycin
32
Drugs that inhibit the growth of microorganisms
Bacteriostatic
33
Drugs that kill the bacteria itself
Bactericidal
34
In cell wall inhibitors, what chemical structure is responsible for determining drug susceptibility to enzymatic hydrolysis?
R group
35
Used for gonorrhea
Ceftriaxone single IM dose
36
Used for syphilis
Penicillin G single IM injection
37
Which cephalosporin is active against MRSA
Ceftaroline (5th gen)
38
Which cephalosporin is active against P. aeruginosa
Ceftazidime Cefoperazone
39
Which cephalosporin is used as prophylaxis before surgery
Cefazolin
40
Which carbapenem needs renal dehydropeptidase when administered
Imipenem
41
Which among tetracyclines is derived from fluorocyclines
Eravacycline
42
Which among tetracyclines is useful in the treatment for inappropriate secretion of ADH
Demeclocycline
43
What is the ratio of Streptogramins
70% Dalfopristin (Strep A) 30% Quinupristin (Strep B)
44
What is the target molecule of Streptogramins (MOA)
Inhibition of Protein synthesis by binding 50S Ribosomal RNA
45
What is the target molecule of Linezolid
23S of the 50S RIbosomal Unit
46
What part of the combination regimen in the treatment of H. pylori
Tetracycline
47
What is the clinical application of streptomycin
Tuberculosis Plague Tularemia MDR strains of MTB
48
What agent is reserved for serious infections resistant to aminoglycoside
Netilmicin
49
Which is not recommended in the treatment of pharyngeal gonococcal infections
Spectinomycin
50
What is the MOA of Trimethoprim
Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase
51
What is the MOA of Sulfonamide
Inhibits dihydropteroate synthase
52
Drug of choice for P. jirovecii infection
Co-Trimoxazole/Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole
53
Drug of choice for the prophylaxis in treatment anthrax
Fluoroquinolones: Ciprofloxacin
54
3rd Gen Fluoroquinolones
Levofloxacin, Gatifloxacin, Sparfloxacin
55
What is a respiratory fluoroquinolone used to treat pneumonia; second line TB
Levofloxacin (Single Dosing)
56
Dose-dependent visual disturbances
Ethambutol
57
What treatment is used for tuberculosis patients with HIV
Rifabutin
58
What is the Drug of Choice for the treatment of Mycobacterium avium complex
Clarithromycin / Azithromycin
59
What is the MOA of dapsone
Inhibition of Folic Acid
60
Inhibits Mycolic Acid Synthesis
Isoniazid
61
What inhibits your DNA-dependent-RNA polymerase
Rifampicin
62
What vaccines are given at birth?
BCG Hepatitis B
63
What Vaccines are Live-Attenuated
Measles, Mumps, Rubella Varicella Rotavirus (MMRV-BOY)
64
When is 5 in 1 Vaccine given
6, 10, 14 weeks of age, 4, 6 years old, then every 10 years for Tetanus & Pertussis
65
What vaccines can be given orally?
Oral polio: Salk: Live Vaccine
66
Antigen that is able to induce an immune response
Immunogen
67
Can elicit an immune response; Some are combined with antibodies
Vaccines
68
They could develop faster immunity but could become a full-blown disease if you have a weak immune system
Live Vaccines