Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Gas Turbine Engines > Fact Sheet 2 > Flashcards

Fact Sheet 2 Flashcards

(100 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

internal operating principle of GTE’s is newtons _____ law of motion

A

internal operating principle of GTE’s is newtons THIRD law of motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

principle of air passing through engine operates on newtons _____ law of motion

A

principle of air passing through engine operates on newtons FIRST law of motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

brayton cycle plots ________ against _______

A

brayton cycle plots PRESSURE against VOLUME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

GTE’s operate on the _______ cycle

A

GTE’s operate on the BRAYTON cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

gas flow in exhaust will accelerate until nozzle becomes _______

A

gas flow in exhaust will accelerate until nozzle becomes CHOKED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

the speed of gas in a choked propelling nozzle is ______

A

the speed of gas in a choked propelling nozzle is SONIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

a choked nozzle produces thrust which is a proportion of ______ thrust

A

a choked nozzle produces thrust which is a proportion of GROSS thrust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

power is the rate of ____ in regards to time

A

power is the rate of WORK in regards to time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

in a reverse flow engine, air is reversed before the turbine to reduce engine ____

A

in a reverse flow engine, air is reversed before the turbine to reduce engine SIZE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

centrifugal compressor diffuser converts _______ energy into pressure

A

centrifugal compressor diffuser converts KINETIC energy into pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

compressor stall can be recognised by _________ along with rapid rise in ___

A

compressor stall can be recognised by VIBRATION along with rapid rise in EGT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

a diffuser is _________

A

a diffuser is DIVERGENT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

the largest change in pressure occurs in the ___________ of a turbo jet

A

the largest change in pressure occurs in the COMPRESSOR of a turbo jet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

engine compressor stall may be induced during rapid movement of aircraft with engines mounted close to the _________

A

engine compressor stall may be induced during rapid movement of aircraft with engines mounted close to the FUSELAGE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

banging in the intake and a rapid rise in EGT can identify a compressor _____

A

banging in the intake and a rapid rise in EGT can identify a compressor SURGE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

combustion chamber inlet pressure _____ with increases RPM

A

combustion chamber inlet pressure RISES with increases RPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

a combustion chamber is usually cooled by HP core air on the _______ and outside surfaces

A

a combustion chamber is usually cooled by HP core air on the INSIDE and outside surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

approximately only __% of air in the combustion chamber is used for combustion

A

approximately only 40% of air in the combustion chamber is used for combustion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

airflow in the combustion chamber split between 40% ___________ and 60% _______

A

airflow in the combustion chamber split between 40% COMBUSTION and 60% COOLING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

HP core air is used to ____ the combustion chamber

A

HP core air is used to COOL the combustion chamber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

impulse/reaction turbines are designed with impulse section at ____ and _______ edges

A

impulse/reaction turbines are designed with impulse section at ROOT and LEADING edges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

NGV’s are cooled by HP compressor ________ air at comp delivery temperature

A

NGV’s are cooled by HP compressor DELIVERY air at comp delivery temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

the exhaust cone forms a _________ duct which decreases gas velocity

A

the exhaust cone forms a DIVERGENT duct which decreases gas velocity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

the duct made by the exhaust cone and outer skin _________ gas pressure and _________ gas velocity

A

the duct made by the exhaust cone and outer skin INCREASES gas pressure and DECREASES gas velocity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
jet noise is influenced most by the ___________ of the exit gases
jet noise is influenced most by the TEMPERATURE of the exit gases
26
the noise emitted by a propelling nozzle is influenced by the __________ of exit gases with the nozzle ______
the noise emitted by a propelling nozzle is influenced by the TEMPERATURE of exit gases with the nozzle CHOKED
27
thrust ________ may be selected at landing speeds, WOW and idle engine power settings
thrust REVERSE may be selected at landing speeds, WOW and idle engine power settings
28
hot stream thrust reverser of the clamshell door type uses HP ___ to deploy and stow the doors
hot stream thrust reverser of the clamshell door type uses HP AIR to deploy and stow the doors
29
on high bypass engines with common exhaust, only ____ stream is reversed
on high bypass engines with common exhaust, only COLD stream is reversed
30
on high bypass engines thrust reverse used ____ stream only
on high bypass engines thrust reverse used COLD stream only
31
thrust reverse system empty safety devices to make an inadvertent _________ unlikely
thrust reverse system empty safety devices to make an inadvertent _________ unlikely
32
thrust reverse on a turbo prop is achieved by moving propeller to a ________ angle
thrust reverse on a turbo prop is achieved by moving propeller to a NEGATIVE angle
33
a high bypass nose cowl will have ____-icing equipment, _______ lining and ______ intake turbulence
a high bypass nose cowl will have ANTI-icing equipment, ACOUSTIC lining and REDUCE intake turbulence
34
a pitot-type intake is ____ affected by changes in aircraft attitude
a pitot-type intake is LESS affected by changes in aircraft attitude
35
a variable ______ intake is required to accommodate changing volumes of air at changing speed
a variable THROAT intake is required to accommodate changing volumes of air at changing speed
36
freezing temperature of jet A1 is -__ celsius
freezing temperature of jet A1 is -47 celsius
37
the additive FSII is added to fuel as an ___ inhibitor
the additive FSII is added to fuel as an ICE inhibitor
38
FSII is used to prevent _____
FSII is used to prevent ICING
39
specific fuel consumption is an indication of overall engine _________
specific fuel consumption is an indication of overall engine EFFICIENCY
40
SG of jet A1 is approximately 0.__
SG of jet A1 is approximately 0.81
41
the SG of a fuel is _______ with temperature
the SG of a fuel is VARIABLE with temperature
42
spur gear scavenge pumps have greater _______ than pressure pumps due to longer teeth
spur gear scavenge pumps have greater CAPACITY than pressure pumps due to longer teeth
43
last chance filters are fitted between pressure ______ and oil ____
last chance filters are fitted between pressure FILTERS and oil JETS
44
the engine oil reservoir is vented through the gearbox and _________ breather
the engine oil reservoir is vented through the gearbox and CENTRIFUGAL breather
45
MCD's are fitted in the _______ side of oil system
MCD's are fitted in the SCAVENGE side of oil system
46
capacity of scavenge pump is ______ than pressure pump
capacity of scavenge pump is HIGHER than pressure pump
47
in a gas coupled turbo prop, the propeller is driven from the ______ turbine
in a gas coupled turbo prop, the propeller is driven from the POWER turbine
48
free turbine of turbo-prop drives _________
free turbine of turbo-prop drives PROPELLER
49
overspeed devices on a turbo prop prevent propeller ________
overspeed devices on a turbo prop prevent propeller FAILURE
50
the throttle via the FCU controls the ______ of the gas generator in a turbo shaft engine
the throttle via the FCU controls the SPEED of the gas generator in a turbo shaft engine
51
the energy left in the exhaust of a turbo prop engine is ____ than a turbo jet but is still used to produce thrust
the energy left in the exhaust of a turbo prop engine is LESS than a turbo jet but is still used to produce thrust
52
exhaust of a turbo prop is directed to produce extra ______
exhaust of a turbo prop is directed to produce extra THRUST
53
free turbine engine turbo props are normally started with the propeller in the _______ position
free turbine engine turbo props are normally started with the propeller in the FEATHER position
54
in a turbo shaft engine, only the ___ stream connects the free turbine to the rest of the engine
in a turbo shaft engine, only the gas stream connects the free turbine to the rest of the engine
55
________ power if turbo shaft = SHP + net jet thrust
EQUIVALENT power if turbo shaft = SHP + net jet thrust
56
in a free power turbine, the power turbine rotates _______ than the gas generator
in a free power turbine, the power turbine rotates SLOWER than the gas generator
57
free turbine overspeed system on turbo shaft engine will _______ auto shut down of a surviving engine
free turbine overspeed system on turbo shaft engine will INHIBIT auto shut down of a surviving engine
58
_______ ratio of fan engine is the ratio between fan and core engine
BYPASS ratio of fan engine is the ratio between fan and core engine
59
operation of an engine at fixed take off RPM would mean _____ thrust when humidity is high
operation of an engine at fixed take off RPM would mean LOWER thrust when humidity is high
60
on a hot day, airflow scheduling on an axial flow compressor will automatically adjust to a ______ RPM range
on a hot day, airflow scheduling on an axial flow compressor will automatically adjust to a HIGHER RPM range
61
in take-off, EPR is maintained to altitude, N1 would be _____ but thrust would be ____
in take-off, EPR is maintained to altitude, N1 would be HIGHER but thrust would be LESS
62
cooling of accessory equipment in the air is by ducted _________ air
cooling of accessory equipment in the air is by ducted ATMOSPHERIC air
63
engine LP cooling air outlet _________ gives indication of mechanical failure within an engine
engine LP cooling air outlet TEMPERATURE gives indication of mechanical failure within an engine
64
engine anti-icing is selected ________ from the cockpit and _______ engine thrust
engine anti-icing is selected MANUALLY from the cockpit and REDUCES engine thrust
65
anti-icing on take-off will ________ available thrust
anti-icing on take-off will REDUCE available thrust
66
accessory units such as generators are cooled on the ground by _______ atmospheric air
accessory units such as generators are cooled on the ground by INDUCED atmospheric air
67
engine air off takes are controlled by _________ operated ______ gate valves
engine air off takes are controlled by ELECTRICALLY operated CARBON gate valves
68
air gap igniters use a _______ voltage than surface discharge plugs
air gap igniters use a HIGHER voltage than surface discharge plugs
69
start circuit cancelled after reached self-_________ speed
start circuit cancelled after reached self-SUSTAINING speed
70
on a normal start, starter will shut down by closing ___ _____ valve, selected closed by switch within starter
on a normal start, starter will shut down by closing AIR START valve, selected closed by switch within starter
71
the term _____ start means the engine lights up but fails to accelerate
the term HUNG start means the engine lights up but fails to accelerate
72
on a hung start the engine ignites but fails to __________
on a hung start the engine ignites but fails to ACCELERATE
73
after a normal engine start, the air starter is disengaged from the engine by _____ clutch
after a normal engine start, the air starter is disengaged from the engine by SPRAG clutch
74
water injection injects water directly into the ________ chamber in the direction of flow
water injection injects water directly into the COMBUSTION chamber in the direction of flow
75
water methanol mixture injected into the engine acts as a ________ and fuel
water methanol mixture injected into the engine acts as a COOLANT and fuel
76
when reheat is selected mass flow through the engine stays the _____
when reheat is selected mass flow through the engine stays the SAME
77
an APU on the ground would supply ___ for engine starting
an APU on the ground would supply AIR for engine starting
78
a single shafted APU running at altitude will produce ________ power only
a single shafted APU running at altitude will produce ELECTRICAL power only
79
during speed on condition, the APU FCU will have only ___ spill valve open
during speed on condition, the APU FCU will have only ONE spill valve open
80
APU surge bleed valve, on the ground, will be de-energised ______ regardless of APU bleed valve position
APU surge bleed valve, on the ground, will be de-energised CLOSED regardless of APU bleed valve position
81
an APU is automatically shut down if the oil pressure in the supply line falls below __ psi
an APU is automatically shut down if the oil pressure in the supply line falls below 45 psi
82
in normal APU operations, the immersion thermocouple will cause the APU bleed valve to de-energise, closed, if an over-__________ occurs
in normal APU operations, the immersion thermocouple will cause the APU bleed valve to de-energise, closed, if an over-TEMPERATURE occurs
83
engine mountings allow axial and radial expansion due to __________
engine mountings allow axial and radial expansion due to TEMPERATURE
84
rolling elements in main shaft bearings are constructed from _____ alloys
rolling elements in main shaft bearings are constructed from STEEL alloys
85
bore testing of flexible hoses requires that the ball is __% of diameter
bore testing of flexible hoses requires that the ball is 90% of diameter
86
after manufacture, fuel lines are pressure tested to 1._ times working pressure
after manufacture, fuel lines are pressure tested to 1.5 times working pressure
87
_______ couplings used in air and vapour lines only
SLIDING couplings used in air and vapour lines only
88
engine _____ rates are given for stationary and running conditions
engine DRAIN rates are given for stationary and running conditions
89
fire extinguishers are operated ________ from the flight deck
fire extinguishers are operated MANUALLY from the flight deck
90
continuous loop fire wire produces an _____ return circuit when fire occurs
continuous loop fire wire produces an EARTH return circuit when fire occurs
91
firewall bulkheads are fitted between the hot and cold _____
firewall bulkheads are fitted between the hot and cold ZONES
92
alarm contacts in a pneumatic fire detector are ________ operated and normally ____
alarm contacts in a pneumatic fire detector are DIAPHRAGM operated and normally OPEN
93
engine mounting allow for axial and radial _________
engine mounting allow for axial and radial EXPANSION
94
engine fire extinguishers will discharge into more than one engine only if selected. fire extinguishers usually use halon ____
engine fire extinguishers will discharge into more than one engine only if selected. fire extinguishers usually use halon 1211
95
a bursting disc that is ________ sensitive protects a fire extinguisher
a bursting disc that is PRESSURE sensitive protects a fire extinguisher
96
pneumatic type detectors will give ____ fire and overheat warnings
pneumatic type detectors will give BOTH fire and overheat warnings
97
SOAP analysis produce a _____ showing the results of many samples
SOAP analysis produce a GRAPH showing the results of many samples
98
desalination washing of components done separately, _________ washed first
desalination washing of components done separately, COMPRESSOR washed first
99
shingling of fan blades with no other damage; blades can be un-_______ and engine continue in service back to base after company checks
shingling of fan blades with no other damage; blades can be un-SHINGLED and engine continue in service back to base after company checks
100
if humidity indicator found unsafe after short period, MVP bag needs ______, new _________ fitted and new indicator
if humidity indicator found unsafe after short period, MVP bag needs REPAIR, new DESICCANT fitted and new indicator

Gas Turbine Engines (36 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions