FCCO SOP Flashcards
(154 cards)
1
Q
When will an aircrew members AIRF turn red?
A
A) critical flight information has not been reviewed
B) non-critical flight information has not been reviewed by the 10th of the month
C) monthly or quarterly review is overdue
1) Failure to meet academic training requirements within 10 days of missed training.
2) ALSE expiration date has been reached.
3) No or expired DD 2992 on file.
2
Q
Concerning aviation medicine, all aircrew members will review what to Army Regulations (AR)?
A
AR 40-8 and AR 40-501
3
Q
Concerning the aeromedical program: ACM’s are individually responsible to complete the annual _________________________________.
A(an) ___________________ is required on assignment to the CAB.
A
A) Flight Duty Medical Exam (FDME)
B) new duty up-slip
4
Q
What must aircrew members do after seeing any healthcare provider (civilian or military) other than a CAB FS or APA?
A
They must notify and be cleared by their assigned FS or APA prior to performing flight duties
5
Q
The ATP authority for supported/attached ACMs is the _____________________________. Deviations will be at the discretion of the __________.
A
A) commander of the supporting unit
B) BN CDR
6
Q
The 30-day extension authority is the ______________________.
A
ATP Commander
7
Q
Supported RCMs assigned to operational positions outside of the Brigade can be designated FAC _. Exceptions will be authorized by the _____________.
A
A) 3
B) BDE CDR
NOTE: ACMs with less than 3 years in their initial operational assignments will have FAC designation administered IAW TC 3-04.11
8
Q
Company/Troop RCMs will be designated FAC _. BN and BDE RCMs will be designated FAC _.
A
A) 1
B) 2
9
Q
What tasks must go on the CTL (DA Form 7120-1)
A
Optional tasks must be listed on the 7120-1 with authorized modes and evaluation requirements, regardless of iterations. Mandatory tasks from the MTL in 2000/3000/4000/5000/6000 series must be listed if more than 1 iteration is required.
10
Q
What regulations will aircrew selection be made IAW?
A
AR 95-1, TC 3-04.11, and the ATM. Additionally, all duties will be clearly designated on the DA Form 7120 by the ATP Commander.
11
Q
In order to be a PC, the aircrew member must be…
A
A) Be certified in each crew station in which required to perform duties by an IP/SP
B) Be designated in writing on the DA Form 7120 by the ATP commander.
C) Complete the requirements of the PIC program in this SOP.
12
Q
Who will select flight crews? Who will assist in the selection process?
A
A) Members of the chain of command, not below platoon leader level will select flight crews.
B) Unit instructors and safety officers will assist in the selection process.
13
Q
All flights, D/N/NVG should have ____________________________________________________________________. When not available, ________________ may authorize day or IFR training flights without an NRCM but should include a third aviator to assist with airspace surveillance and clearing the aircraft. _____________________________________________________ meet the third crewmember requirement. FIs/SIs or IPs/SPs conducting NRCM training/evaluations may occupy a forward-facing passenger seat.
A
A) at least one NRCM in a crew station that is qualified and current in all mode(s) and task(s) to be performed
B) ATP Commanders
C) Non-rated crewmember flight instructors (FIs)/SIs or instructor pilots (IPs)/SPs conducting NRCM readiness level (RL) progression/evaluations
14
Q
A minimum crew of 4 is required for what tasks? Who may serve as a fourth crew member and under what conditions?
A
A) When multi-ship operations utilizing combat free cruise formations are briefed or required.
B) When in-flight formation changes are briefed or anticipated.
C) During mission external load operations (minimum required for training is three ACMs), water bucket operations, hoist operations, or fast rope insertion and extraction system (FRIES)/special patrol insertion and extraction system (SPIES) operations.
D) Medical evacuation (MEDEVAC).
E) NOE (< 25’ AHO) (all mode of flights).
F) Contour (> 25’- 80’ AGL) (NVD only).
G) Moderate or greater (dust/snow/obscuration) DVE landings to an unimproved surface (all modes of flight).
For training and qualification, the SP/IP/SI/FI/unit trainer-evaluator (UT/E) may serve as the fourth crewmember or A qualified and task current aviator may be substituted for the additional NRCM when one is not available, but only as a last resort. An SI/FI conducting training/evaluation and the NRCM receiving training or evaluation meet the minimum crew requirement for internal unit sling-load training.
15
Q
For H60 aircrews, mixing of WP or Green NVGs does not increase the risk. But what should be done?
A
It should be mentioned to the briefing officer, during the mission approval process
16
Q
Individuals undergoing ___________, ______________, or ________________ training will be designated RL3.
A
qualification, refresher, or deficiency
17
Q
IAW each MDS ATM, all ACMs will have a minimum of _________ of emergency procedure training annually that will be conducted in the simulator
A
3 hours
18
Q
Crewmembers designated RL2 train in the mission and additional tasks _______________________. RCM designated RL2 may fly with a PC and perform all tasks in each mode of flight ______________________ _____________________________________. NRCM designated RL 2 may fly with ___________________________ ____________________________________.
A
A) selected by the commander
B) as authorized on the CTL previously evaluated as “S” (satisfactory) by an IP/SP
C) a RL 1 flight engineer (FE)/crew chief (CE) and perform all tasks in each mode of flight as authorized on the CTL previously evaluated as “S” (satisfactory) by an IP/SP/FI/SI
19
Q
What are the requirements for someone to be designated RL1 after transferring from another unit?
A
There are two ways:
A) They must have arrived from a similar unit where they had been performing all the 2000/3000 tasks assigned by that unit, and had Commander’s Evaluation / records review and LAO upon arrival.
B) They may be progressed to RL1 after demonstrating proficiency during a PFE in which all 2000 series tasks are evaluated.
After either method, the commander will complete the Commander’s Task List DA Form 7120-R (CTL), prorating the hours and iterations for the remainder of the semi-annual period. The DA Form 7120-R will contain all continuation training requirements.
20
Q
RL1 crew members must complete what in regards to their CTL every annual and semi annual period?
A
RL1 crewmembers must complete all flight hours, task iterations, flight evaluations, and any other requirements the commander lists on the CTL. Crewmembers will be evaluated from each crew station they are authorized to fly in accordance with the ATM and CTL.
21
Q
Can aided and unaided aircraft be mixed in the same formation?
A
No unless it is needed in an urban environment
22
Q
What is the SOP internal lighting configuration?
A
A) Instrument lighting should be adjusted to the lowest usable intensity that will allow unaided viewing.
B) Map lights should be positioned to provide additional lighting on those areas that are not adequately illuminated.
C) Armor plates and glare shields should be extended to reduce internal glare and minimize detection.
23
Q
What is supplemental lighting? What may it consist of? Do all of these devices meet the flashlight requirement of IAW AR 95-1?
A
A) Supplemental lighting is defined as additional interior lighting.
B) It may consist of “lip lights”, “finger lights”, flashlights with filters and other similar devices.
C) Lip lights and finger lights do not fulfill the flashlight requirement IAW AR 95-1.
24
Q
Can you use non-NVG compatible lights in the aircraft?
A
Non-NVG compatible lights and flashlights with red or white light will only in the cargo/passenger compartments at the discretion of the PC. Red and white lights may be used during ground operations.
25
ACMs will fly a minimum of _______ unaided night flight per semi-annual period. Not recommended below ___________ except for takeoff and landing. NVG qualified ACM's should have NVG readily available during night unaided training
A) 1 hour
B) 200'AHO
26
DVE landings, using WP with position lights bright and/or anti-collision lights “ON”, is identified as a potential hazard. To mitigate this…..
ACMs should consider turning position lights from bright to low(dim) and lower anti-collision light “OFF” (as applicable), prior to landing in DVE conditions. Pilots will weigh the risk based on other aircraft in the flight/area. After completion of the task/DVE training, aircraft light will be set based on local procedures and AR 95-1.
27
For no-notice evaluations, ACMs will be notified no earlier than ________ and no later than _______ prior to the flight evaluation.
A) 24 hours
B) 1 hour
28
Each crewmember will receive, at a minimum, ______________ no-notice evaluation per year, preferably _______________________. These evaluations may be given in what three formats?
A) one
B) outside of their APART period
C) Oral, written, or hands-on
29
What is the increased recovery deck height for any tasks that require the aircraft to be established in an autorotative descent (i.e. RPM Check – Power on)?
1000ft AGL
30
Night MTFs are not routine. Who is the approval authority for night MTFs and what is the limitation put in place for RED illumination conditions?
A) First O-5 in the chain of command
B) Will remain inside the traffic pattern
31
What two MTF tasks increase the risk to HIGH at night?
Vibes check and auto RPM check
32
What is the minimum uniform for ground runs (ie. Engine start but no taxi/take-off)?
Flight uniform, flight helmet, and gloves
33
For single pilot maintenance groung run operations (main engine starts), what is the requirement?
A) A qualified technical observer must occupy the other crew station (access to flight controls)
B) MTP will brief NRCM utilizing the “maintenance ground run with non-rated occupant brief” located in the annex of this SOP
34
Who is a “qualified technical observer” concerning MX ground run operations?
Technical observers are NRCMs who are integrated into the unit ATP. NRCMs who are authorized to occupy a crew station with access to the flight controls during ground runs will have “NRCM authorized to perform duties as a technical observer in a crew station with access to flight controls during ground run operations” on their DA Form 7120-3
35
Who are authorized to operate the APU regardless of seat designation unless otherwise restricted by the commander?
RL1 and RL2 aviators
36
What are the IFR training minimums and guidelines?
A) A minimum of 3 hours semi-annually of Hood, Weather, or SFTS “W” time is required for each aviator, of which 1.5 hours will be flown in the aircraft.
B) Crews are encouraged to end on-post and SFTS missions with an IIMC recovery.
C) Units are encouraged to execute formation IIMC breakup/recovery procedures in training.
37
What flights must include detailed IIMC procedures? What must those briefs include?
A) All Multi Ship Briefs must include detailed IIMC procedures utilizing the considerations below.
B) The brief will include, type of IIMC break up (unrestrictive, restrictive) base altitudes for route segments, recover airfield/LZ, associated frequency, and approach to be flown. Additionally, aircrews will incorporate the policies and procedures IAW the FC APG
38
Anytime the visibility and/or ceiling approach minimum briefed weather conditions, the PC or AMC will consider what options?
A) reversing course
B) altering the route to clearer conditions
C) landing at the nearest suitable area
D) initiating an IFR flight plan
E) or aborting the mission
39
What are some considerations when developing the IIMC plan?
A) Aircraft performance and rate of climb limitations. Account for all types of aircraft in the flight, status of De-Ice equipment, ETFs, etc.
B) Obstacles when determining base heading (Terrain, Enemy, PAAs, EAs, etc.).
C) Number of aircraft, formation type and break-up procedure to provide aircraft separation.
D) Recovery facilities and IFR infrastructure available, NAVAIDs, RADAR, etc.
E) Communications procedures during the emergency.
40
What is an unrestrictive IIMC break up plan?
An unrestrictive break up plan is used when there is sufficient room to spread aircraft laterally and separation is achieved by:
A) Heading change of +/-10deg X chalk position to the clear side
B) +/- 500 feet stack up or down
41
What is a restrictive IIMC break up plan?
A restrictive IIMC break up plan is used when terrain does not allow aircraft to separate to the left or right so they must deconflict by airspeed:
A) -10 KIAS for subsequent chalks
B) +/- 500 feet stack up or down
42
In the event that a multi ship formation encounters IFR conditions and one or more aircraft goes IIMC, who makes the call and squawks 7700?
The lead IIMC aircraft
43
What are the recovery procedures for a flight when more than one aircraft goes IIMC?
A) Aircraft control and disciplined procedures are the priority in the initial stage of IIMC. Once all IIMC aircraft have arrived at their assigned altitude and/or airspeed (speed separation type recovery) they will check-in with flight lead with call sign, altitude, airspeed and fuel state in chalk order. “1-2, is 6500', at 100 kts. with 1+20 of fuel”
B) Once the flight has vertical separation, flight lead will prioritize and coordinate aircraft moving to the recovery airfield or LZ. All other aircraft maintain radio discipline and follow ATC and Flight lead/ AMC instructions. If published procedures are available, the flight proceeds IAW those procedures. If published procedures are not available, lead makes the initial request to ATC for recovery.
44
FMAA can be delegated down to the Platoon Leader level if what conditions are met?
A) Scheduled flight is occurring within the platoon leaders same company ATP.
B) The flight remains within the local flight area.
C) The platoon leader has completed MBO/FMAA academics.
D) The AC for the flight is an instructor operator.
45
If a crew member changes after the mission approval process has been conducted, what must be done? What about if it is the PC or AMC?
A) If a crew member changes after mission approval has been conducted PC's, AC's, AMCs will notify the MBO and assess the risk. If the risk has increased, re-approval is required.
B) If the PC or AMC has changed, the RCOP will be re-briefed and approved.
46
What is the normal command and risk level relationship?
A) First General Officer in the chain of command: Extremely High Risk Missions.
B) Brigade Commander High Risk Missions.
C) BN Commander: Moderate Risk Missions.
D) Company/Troop Commander: Low Risk Missions.
E) Platoon Leaders: Ground run maintenance operational checks (MOC) and APU operations or IAW para 2-19(3) above.
47
If VOCO approval is received for a mission, how must it be annotated?
A) If an approval authority cannot be physically present to sign the R-COP, then the term “VOCO” will be entered in the appropriate block, with an entry made in the mission log that a VOCO was received for the mission.
B) Enter the rank, name, and command authority level of the VOCO approval, along with the date-time group.
48
What must Aircrew Members complete prior to their first flight after getting stationed at a new unit?
A) AIRF “green”
B) ACM will receive a new duty DD 2992, all signatures required
C) Copies of the DD 2992 will be given to BN/SQ flight operations and CO/TRP standardization
D) ACMs CTL will be initiated and signed by both the commander and the crewmember
E) ACM will receive ALSE brief and equipment
F) Aircrew Orientation Course (AOC). All ACMs assigned or attached to 4th CAB must complete a Fort Carson AOC, prior to RL1. If the ACM is assigned while deployed, the AOC is not required until redeployment to home-station.
49
Crew members will ensure that their ALSE is turned into the shop NLT __________ prior to it’s expiration
5 days
50
How frequently should ALSS Training be conducted?
Semi annually or as needed and directed by the units ASO and ALSO as part of the unit’s academic training plan.
51
When seated in a crew seat, the seat belts will be utilized, not a personal restraint harness (ie. Monkey-tail) unless the mission requires that it be worn. What are such missions?
Slings, Enroute casualty care, speed-balls, hoist, Bambi buckets, rappelling, etc.
52
When issued, where will the blood chit and combat gauze be placed?
In the left side of flight vest inside the medic pallet
53
What do full mission profile flights (FMP) mean?
Full mission profile (FMP) missions will be conducted in full body armor. Commanders should consider body armor for all non-FMP flights. Crewmembers must learn to configure their equipment to meet their mission. Crewmember should also qualify with their assigned weapon utilizing their flight equipment.
54
What is a HIRTA? What are aviators supposed to do concerning them?
A) A HIRTA is a High Intensity Radio Transmission Area.
B) 1) Receive a HIRTA brief from the BN S2 during in-processing. Comply with HIRTA procedures specified in this SOP.
2)Comply with this section of the SOP and local regulatory requirements when suspected EMI is encountered during flight and report such encounters to the commander and Aviation Safety Officer.
55
What rule of thumb will be used when positive identification of a target is not confirmed.
A) Inform the next higher chain of command.
B) Verify present position, target position, and navigation accuracy (ask questions).
C) Have second aircraft attempt to identify and confirm target.
D) Engage only if the tactical situation is critical to friendly elements directly threatened.
56
What will all landing plan diagrams include?
A) No-fire areas
B) Friendly troop locations
C) Weapons engagement fans.
These control measures must consider the location of friendly forces and planned landing formation.
57
What are the weather requirements for a CRBN Flight Evaluation?
Flight evaluations will only be conducted in VMC protective equipment may be worn provided the wet bulb temperature is below 75 deg F.
58
What is the minimum equipment required for a CBRN evaluation?
The protective mask is the minimum equipment required for training/evaluation; however, MOPP 4 is authorized provided all appropriate aviation approved clothing is worn under the CBRN equipment.
59
Are you allowed to perform simulated EPs in the aircraft during a CBRN evaluation?
No
60
Are you allowed to conduct dual pilot CBRN operations for training?
No
61
Prior to unit deployment to areas where the weather and terrain are significantly different than that in the local flying area, commanders must implement what measures? What about before a deployment?
A) Commanders must implement well organized training programs that provide the appropriate training for participating flight crews.
B) Academic, SFTS (T-BOS, TFPS, LCT, etc.), and flight training should be conducted prior to deployment.
62
How long are you current in Environmental Training after completion of that training if your remain within that particular extreme environment? What about after you leave that environment?
A) ACMs will remain current with environmental training provided they are continuously operating in the environment, e.g. deployed.
B) If the ACM leaves the environment (e.g. NTC then return to home-station), the ACM remains current for 6 months.
NOTE: Commanders should monitor ACM performance and conduct PFEs, if required.
63
What are the currency requirements for NRCMs to complete the G-COFT/E (GTIII)?
NRCMs will complete a G-COFT/E (GTIII) in an LCT, NCM3, an accredited flight simulator, or the aircraft annually and/or within 180days prior to GTVI
64
What three regulations dictate Army Operations in a tactical environment when not found in the SOP?
FM 3-04 (Army Aviation) and ATP 3-04.1 (Aviation Tactical Employment), and FM 3-99 (Airborne and Air Assault Operations)
65
The Fighter Management Program (FMP) applies to what personnel?
Any individual who has a direct part in aircraft maintenance, refueling, ground movement, APU/engine operation or flight
66
When does fighter management begin?
Fighter management begins each duty day, regardless of location, mission, or activity
67
Who has the authority to make exceptions to the Fighter Management Policy outlined in the SOP?
The BDE Commander
68
What does the SOP say about physically or mentally fatigued soldiers in regards to the Fighter Management Program (FMP)
Soldier fatigue can lead to inattention, errors in judgment, and a deterioration of critical motor skills. Therefore, physically or mentally fatigued personnel will not perform flight or mission support duties.
69
_____________________________ establishes the Fighter Management Policy (FMP) for the CAB and all units under their ________________________________?
A) The O-6 Commander
B) Operation Control
70
What is the responsibility of the Platoon Leaders/Section Supervisors concerning the Fighter Management Program (FMP)?
Monitor Soldiers to ensure they are physically and mentally able to perform the mission tasks required of them. Monitor and manage the flight and duty hours of Soldiers
71
What does the SOP say about Fighter Management Policy (FMP) tracking mechanisms?
Crew members will utilize crew endurance tracking mechanisms while deployed, conducting field exercises or anytime crew endurance management constraints could impact unit mission accomplishment. During FTX's, tracking mechanisms will be maintained on file until redeployment and completion of the exercise.
72
What does the SOP say concerning the Fighter Management Program (FMP) about extensions? Who is the only person who can pre-approve an extension?
A) Requests for extensions will be made prior to exceeding any crew endurance limit, not after the fact. All extensions must be requested and may not be forced on a crewmember/crew. A thorough risk assessment will be performed prior to granting any extension and will be based on the crew, not the individual. All extensions will be annotated on the DA Form 5484-R or DA Form 7525-R.
B) The BDE Commander is the only person who can pre-approve an extension.
73
Concerning the FMP, what does the SOP say about of Duties that count as starting your Duty Period?
Performance of military obligations or functions such as stand-to formation, physical training, briefing, preflight, mission planning, maintenance, aviation related duties, etc.
74
Concerning the FMP, what does the SOP say about the Duty Period?
The duty day starts with arrival at work and ends with release from duty. The commander should not plan duty days that exceed a maximum of 12 hours total. Commanders should inform all ACMs of planned duty day extensions due to operational deployments or exercises via memo format in the reading card file
75
Concerning the FMP, what does the SOP say about Rest Periods?
Rest periods are defined as the 10 hours after release from duty until the start of the next duty day. The most important aspect of rest for every crewmember is seven (7) to eight (8) hours of uninterrupted sleep. Sleep is for your brain and is critical for optimal performance
76
Concerning the FMP, what does the SOP say about an Interruption of Rest Periods?
An interruption is when an individual is required to perform/report for an obligating duty. A phone call in garrison and/or momentary awakening (< 30min) during other than garrison operations is not considered an interruption. If a rest period is interrupted for more than 30 minutes the command has two options:
(1) Restart the Individuals rest period. (If new rest period is less than 12 hours, ensure risk is accepted at the appropriate level for the amount of continuous rest received prior to start of duty day).
(2) Begin the individual's duty day at the moment of interruption. (Ensure risk is accepted at the appropriate level for the amount of rest received prior to interruption)
77
Concerning the FMP, what does the SOP say about Rest Days?
A period of 24 consecutive hours in which no duty related tasks are performed. Individuals should be scheduled for a reset day every 14 days. Checking the flight schedule, emails, completing R-COP, and other minor routine tasks during a rest day are acceptable and does not violate the rest policy.
78
Concerning the FMP, what does the SOP say about Time Zone changes?
Time zone changes between 6 and 12 hours require a 24-hour adjustment period before beginning missions. Changes greater than 12 hours require a 48-hour adjustment period before beginning missions.
79
Concerning the FMP, what does the SOP say about a shift in duty day cycle?
A shift in an individual duty day cycle by 6 or more hours earlier requires a 24 hour reset, unless approved by the BN
80
What are your flying hour limitations for each mode of flight per the SOP?
8 hours: D only (SR-SS)
7 hours: ANY Combination Day, Night, NVD, Hood, Instrument, or Weather
6 hours: NVD
3 hours: CBRNE (MOPP3 or 4)
74 hours: w/in 14 days
100 hours: w/in 30 days
110 hours: w/in 30 days requires BDE Commander approval
81
What are the Duty Periods for a day?
12 hours: standard
14 hours: standard for QRF or when BN/TF Commander has authorized 14hr duty days.
16 hours: may be extended to on a case-by-case basis
82
What are the guidelines for Company Commanders to approve duty day and/or flight hour extensions?
A) Duty Day. May extend the duty day up to 14 hours, on a case-by-case basis, to meet operational needs for low RCOP missions. The Company Commander will inform the BN Commander as soon as practicable of each extension.
B) Flight Hours. May extend mission duration flight hours an additional 1 hour for low RCOP missions. C) Extensions will not exceed 5 consecutive days. The 6th consecutive extension will be a moderate risk level decision.
83
What are the guidelines for BN Commanders to approve duty day and/or flight hour extensions?
A) Duty Day. May extend duty day up to 16 hours, on a case-by-case basis, to meet operational needs. B) Flight Hours. May extend mission duration flight hours up to 2 hours. If the delegated low risk approval authority has already authorized a 1 hour extension, the moderate risk approval authority may authorize an additional 1 hour.
C) Rest periods. May decrease the rest period to 8 hours on a case- by-case basis to meet operational needs, for no more than 2 consecutive days.
D) These extensions will not exceed 3 consecutive days. The fourth consecutive extension will be a high risk level decision
84
What are the guidelines for the BDE Commander to approve duty day and/or flight hour extensions?
A) Duty Day. May extend duty day beyond 16 hours on a case-by-case basis for a specific mission/operation.
B) Flight Hours. May extend mission duration flight hours as needed on a mission-by-mission basis.
C) May extend 14/30 day maximums as needed on an individual basis.
D) Rest periods. May decrease the rest period to less than 8 hours. A reset day should be given at mission completion.
85
No later than ________ prior to performing terrain flight at other military installations or on unit deployment, what must be done?
A) 72 hours
B) current hazards information will be obtained from local safety personnel and disseminated to and posted by all participating aircrews.
86
All ACMs undergoing refresher training will have a minimum of ____ hours of simulator EP training, prior to being designated RL1. Who is the waiver authority?
A) 2
B) Waiver approval authority is the BDE CDR
87
What is the minimum hour requirement for EP training annually? What will it be conducted in?
IAW each MDS ATM, all ACMs will have a minimum of 3 hours of emergency procedure training annually that will be conducted in the simulator
88
Where will EP training to the ground be conducted and who designates and authorizes those locations? What about in R-2601, what is the limitation?
A) Emergency Procedure Training (EPT) in the aircraft will be conducted IAW AR 95-1, the appropriate task in the ATM, and TC 3-04.11. Commanders (O5 and above) must designate and authorize locations to train emergency procedures to the ground, if not conducted at BAHP (KFCS)/ KPUB/ KCOS.
B) Limited EP training to the ground may be conducted anywhere within R-2601 with the following limitations: The EP must not require manipulation of Engine Power Control levers, degradation of AFCS, or any other system adjustment that would not be considered part of normal operations. EP training to the ground will be annotated on the RCOP and assessed under additional mission complexity as a mitigatable moderate risk. The MBO will assess the risks and mitigate as required.
89
What are the WX requirements for conducting RL3 and RL2 training NVD training?
> 1000' ceilings and > 3 miles
90
What are the IIMC Procedures for R-2601, MTAs, and PCMS?
A) If operating within R-2601, crews will turn generally south east avoiding the impact area, climb to a MSA of 7,800, squawk 7700, and contact Colorado Springs approach control for instrument recovery.
B) If operating in the mountain training areas, crews will generally turn south east avoiding high terrain, climb to a MSA appropriate for the MTA operating in, squawk 7700, and contact Denver Center for instrument recovery. Pilots-in-command and Air Mission Commanders will plan and brief an IIMC plan that provides the best routing with appropriate altitude gain required for obstacle clearance relative to the MTA in which they are operating.
C) If operating at PCMS (R-2603) crews will climb to 7,500 MSL minimum, squawk 7700 and contact Denver Center for recovery.
91
When must detailed IIMC recovery procedures be briefed? What is to be included in the brief?
A) Multiship flights
B) The brief will include, type of IIMC break up (unrestrictive or restrictive) base altitudes for route segments, recover airfield/ LZ, associated frequency, and approach to be flown.
92
Who is responsible for supervising mission planning and coordinating any mission changes with the supported unit?
The AMC. To expedite planning, specific tasks can be assigned to a specific chalk number aircraft. The AMC may modify assignments and tracking method based on mission requirements.
93
All graphics and mission planning symbology will be IAW what Army Publication?
ADP 1-02
94
What is the standard for marking hazards along a route for tactical mission planning?
Hazard Markings are marked with red ink at least 5 kilometers either side of the selected course in case in-flight deviation becomes necessary. Mark antennas with altitude if available. Use parenthesis around AGL altitudes
95
Crews should avoid planning route segments that require heading changes of more than ____ degrees. If there are planned turns greater than that, what must be done to address that?
A) 60
B) Turns greater than 60 degrees will be briefed during the AMB/ team brief.
96
What are the standards for SP selection
A) Choose a point 3-8 KM from the departure point and aligned within a 30- degree arc from the course.
B) SP quality is more important than distance and azimuth.
97
What are the standards for ACP Selection?
A) Choose a point 5-20 KM apart.
B) Barriers that funnel to or signal over flight are critical.
98
What are the standards for RP selection?
A) Choose a point 3-8 KM from the landing zone and within 30 degrees from the landing zone heading.
B) The importance of a good RP cannot be over emphasized.
99
What are the standards for arriving at the LZ?
A) Land ± 50 meters of the ground tactical commanders intended landing point.
B) Land ± 30 seconds from the air movement table touchdown time.
C) Land ± 15 degrees from the planned landing heading.
100
Left side tick marks will include….
Left Side Tick Marks – The distance tick marks will vary in intervals of 10 KM, 5 KM, and 1 KM apart. The tick mark intervals will decrease as the course line approaches the next checkpoint. The tick mark labels will indicate distance remaining to the next checkpoint.
101
Right side tick marks will include…
Right Side Tick Marks – The time tick marks will vary in intervals of 10 minutes, 5 minutes, and 1 minute. The tick mark intervals will decrease as the course line approaches the next check point. The tick mark labels will indicate elapsed time or time remaining from takeoff and/or the last checkpoint passed.
102
What are the standards for annotating Hard, Soft, Elapsed, and Intermediate times?
A) Hard Time “00:00:00” – Used for time driven missions (H-hour).
B) Soft Times “0000” – Used for scheduling items such as preflight time.
C) Elapsed Times “00+00+00” – Used for event driven missions.
D) Intermediate Times “00:00:00”– Used as a tool to ensure you will arrive on time.
103
What are the minimum standards for accuracy of times/distances/degrees etc. when planning?
A) Ensure all times are within + 2 seconds.
B) Ensure distances are within + 300 meters or 0.2 NM.
C) Ensure headings are within + 2 degrees.
D) Ensure coordinates are within + 300 meters for military grid reference system (MGRS) or + 20 seconds for Latitude and Longitude.
104
What is a passage point?
A passage point is a specifically designated place where the passing units will pass through the stationary unit. It is an important coordination measure that enables ground maneuver, artillery, ADA, and aviation forces to reduce fratricide risks and facilitate mission command. Planners should consider selecting a point that is easily identifiable and use near and far recognition signals (IFF turn on/ turn-off lines, aircraft lighting signals, BFT, radio comms, etc.) to reduce the risk of fratricide.
105
What are the mandatory components of a mission packet? Is it limited to these products?
A) COMM Card, TDH, EA/ LZ/ PZ Sketch (as applicable), FARP and HA Sketch (if applicable), and IIMC Break-up.
B) No
106
What should be included in a scatter/displacement plan? What is the NLT that this product must be refined/published? When should it be initially created?
A) Displacement plans will consist of the initial departure direction, routes, altitudes, commo plan, and sequence for leaving the assembly area, as well as the location of holding areas, and alternate assembly areas. Areas to which the unit will displace must be coordinated through higher headquarters.
B) NLT 12 hours after TAA Occupation
C) Prior to TAA Occupation
107
What are the different rehearsal types?
A) Back-Brief: briefing by subordinates to the commander to review how subordinates intend to accomplish their mission (FM 6-0)
B) Combined Arms Rehearsal: a rehearsal in which subordinate units synchronize their plans with each other in time and space.
C) Support Rehearsal: helps synchronize individual warfighting functions with the overall operations.
D) Fire Support Rehearsal: verifies the fire support plan and the communication links for mission execution.
E) Sustainment Rehearsal: validates the plan of support to the operation by ensuring synchronization of various sustainment functions.
F) Communications Rehearsal: a complete rehearsal verifying equipment function and reporting to system linkage.
G) Battle Drill or SOP Rehearsal: ensures that all participants understand a technique or a specific set of procedures.
108
What are the different rehearsal methods?
A) Full Dress: produces the most detailed understanding of the operation and includes every participating soldier and system.
B) Key Leader: involves only key leaders of the organization and its subordinate units.
C) Terrain Model: the most popular type of rehearsal method and takes less time and fewer resources than a full dress rehearsal.
D) Digital Terrain Model Rehearsal: virtual representations of the AO and is common in aviation units that have aircraft simulators with realistic terrain databases.
E) Map Rehearsal and Sketch Map: most expeditious method that follows the same as for a terrain model rehearsal except the commander uses a map or sketch.
F) Network Rehearsal: conducted over a wide-area networks or local area networks.
109
What is the minimum standard mission debrief/AARs?
AARs begin when all mission aircraft have landed. Must be conducted per task 1500 standards. Company AARs should be kept on file for 60 days. Refer to SOP for Mission Debrief topics.
110
When do aircraft PCCs begin?
Pre-Combat Checks (PCC) begin with the previous missions post-flight.
111
What are the disorientation procedures?
Formation. If chalk 1 becomes disoriented they announce that they are disoriented and chalk 2 vectors them back on course.
Single-Ship.
A) Use the GPS and identify your present position.
B) Return to the last known point.
C) Fly a cardinal heading, search out a landmark, and find it on the map.
D) Contact approach and request assistance.
112
What is the SOP light signal for MX Support needed?
Flash Bright
113
What does REDCON 1 entail?
A) Response time: immediate
B) ENG: 100%
C) APU: OFF
D) WPNs: Safe/Clear
E) COMMO: Mission Freqs
F) Status: Ready for T/O
114
What does REDCON 2 mean?
A) Response time: 15 minutes
B) ENG: OFF
C) APU: ON
D) WPNs: Installed
E) COMMO: Mission Freqs/Internal
F) Status: Crew at A/C
115
What does REDCON 3 mean?
A) Response time: 30 minutes
B) ENG: OFF
C) APU: OFF
D) WPNs: Installed
E) COMMO: portable/CP
F) Status: Crew on standby
116
What does REDCON 4 mean?
A) Response time: 1 hour
B) ENG: OFF
C) APU: OFF
D) WPNs: installed
E) COMMO: CP
F) Status: preflight complete
117
What does REDCON 5 mean?
A) Response time: 1-2 hours
B) ENG: OFF
C) APU: OFF
D) WPNs: installed
E) COMMO: on call
F) Status: briefing/planning
118
What does REDCON 6 mean?
A) Response time: > 2 hours
B) ENG: OFF
C) APU: OFF
D) WPNs: OFF
E) COMMO: Planning
F) Status: Planning
119
Are there mandatory briefing items for PC/AMCs for multiship operations? If so, where can you find them?
A) Yes
B) Para 4-14 in the 4 CAB SOP
120
What are the standards for doing a multiship COMMO check?
A) Identify a band to troubleshoot on (VHF/UHF)
B) Set all times to GPS time
C) Lead initiates COMMO check
D) If a chalk does not respond in 10 seconds, next chalk picks up the COMMO check.
E) Lead announces when complete or directs trouble shooting while AMC reassigned chalk duties as needed.
Example: Lead: “Flight, this is lead on FM1, lead on Uniform, lead on Victor, lead on FM2, lead is green on SATCOM, digital and BFT”.
121
What are the taxi and line-up procedures?
Lead set in a position that allows separation for minimum power take off (if possible), and turn 90 degree to flight lineup direction (if required to observe preceding aircraft). All other aircraft will orient in the takeoff direction in the briefed formation and inform lead of REDCON 1 by turning off their lights (FAA or IR); lead will acknowledge when the flight is REDCON 1 by turning off their lights. After lead turns off their lights, each aircraft will resume briefed lighting configuration. Lead will take-off by picking the aircraft up to a hover, turning to direction of takeoff, pausing for 5 seconds, then takeoff on time. Lead can inform the flight via a radio call (in addition to this procedure); however, this formation takeoff procedure will be used to prepare for no-comms missions. If environmental conditions do not allow for the standard lineup/takeoff procedure (positioning limitations or DVE), the AMC will brief an alternate takeoff procedure.
122
What standard airspeed, climb rate, and rate of turn does flight lead use for take-off and climb out unless otherwise briefed?
Lead will take off and smoothly accelerate to 60 KIAS, climbing < 500 fpm, and use ½ standard rate turns
123
When lineup is not possible, aircraft can execute what two forms of take-off? What do both forms of takeoff require?
A) Simultaneous take off from different locations or a Take-Off-When-Ready-In-Chalk-Order (TOWRICO)
B) Both forms of takeoff require an in-flight link-up.
124
What is the proper execution of simultaneous departure from multiple locations as a flight?
1) Aircraft report REDCON 1 in chalk order, then LEAD reports the flight is REDCON 1.
2) Lead will take off on time, unless dictated otherwise (AMC/ATC, etc.). LEAD will depart and Call “1-1 is CLEAR” when the aircraft is up and out of its position. Lead will depart to the SP at 60 KIAS or as briefed.
3) If taking off at an unplanned time, lead will announce his intentions to take off a minimum of 5 seconds prior to departure.
4) Subsequent aircraft will depart with a 5-second separation or as environmental conditions permit. Each aircraft will call clear i.e. “1-2 is CLEAR”. (By exception, aircraft not able to make take off time will advise lead)
5) All aircraft should maintain visual contact with the aircraft ahead of them if possible and will follow the briefed route accelerating to join the flight. As aircraft close within 10 rotor disks, adjust closure rate to <10 KIAS above the briefed airspeed. Do not fixate on the preceding chalk. Close on a parallel course, so that if the rate of closure is misjudged, the aircraft will overshoot to the side avoiding a collision.
6) At 10 rotor disks separation announce “CHALK # CLOSING.” The preceding aircraft acknowledges the CLOSING call by responding with “ROGER, CHALK # is CLOSING” and then display briefed formation lighting.
7) When trail aircraft has closed with the formation it will announce “SADDLE with # in flight and FENCE OUT.” Lead will acknowledge the “SADDLE” call and accelerate to the briefed in route airspeed.
125
What are the procedures in the event of a LAME DUCK?
During a TOWRICO departure, if an aircraft experiences any delays it can put all subsequent aircraft at risk. Any aircraft experiencing significant delays (1 minute or as briefed) will announce chalk position and “LAME DUCK.” The LAME DUCK aircraft now becomes the trail aircraft.
All aircraft will join the flight following the procedure previously discussed: Close on a parallel course until within 10 rotor disks, adjust closure rate to <10 KIAS above the briefed airspeed. Announce “CHALK # CLOSING” when a 10 rotor disks. Preceding aircraft acknowledges the CLOSING call by responding with “ROGER, CHALK # CLOSING” and then display briefed formation lighting. When trail aircraft has closed with the formation it will announce “SADDLE with # in flight and FENCE OUT.” Lead will acknowledge the “SADDLE” call and accelerates as briefed.
126
What are Fence-out/in level off checks? Which aircraft in the flight announces them?
A) Flight crews will conduct individual WAILRM Fence-out posture as follows:
W – Weapons armed / safe as required.
A – ASE set as desired.
I – IFF / Transponder mode 1,2,3,4 on as briefed.
L – Lighting as briefed
R – Recorder on (if installed).
M – MPD / MFD / BFT configured (as appropriate).
B) Trail
127
Rotor disk separation will be selected based on what requirements? What are the four levels of separation?
A) Rotor disk separation will be selected based on mission requirements. Separation may increase after applying METT-TC considerations.
B) Definitions for briefing purposes: Tight = 1-2 disk separation, Close = 3-5 separation, Loose = 6-10 and Extended which is greater than 10 rotor disk
128
Explain formation changes per the SOP
Formation Changes announced by LEAD or directed by the AMC.
A. LEAD announces “At my command execute ______ (formation), acknowledge.”
B. All aircraft acknowledge in CHALK order.
C. LEAD announces “Execute (Formation).”
D. Flight moves to new formation IAW ACB or as directed by Flight Lead/AMC.
E. Trail announces “SADDLE” once flight is in the new formation.
129
Explain lead changes per the SOP
A. A lead change will be initiated by the lead aircraft announcing “LEAD CHANGE Right or Left” on the internal frequency indicating request for lead change and which side of the formation Lead intends to exit. All chalks will acknowledge in chalk order.
B. Aircraft departing the flight makes a heading change of 30-90 degrees and departs the formation. He maneuvers the aircraft to a minimum of 8 rotor disks to the announced side (clear side).
C. The subsequent chalk will advise when the former lead has attained the proper separation. At that time, the former lead will adjust his flight path to parallel the formation and reduce airspeed by 10 KIAS. As each aircraft in formation passes, they announce Chalk number and “CLEAR” (e.g. “Chalk 3 CLEAR”).
D. In most cases requiring a lead change, the former lead will assume trail position within the flight. If it is determined the former lead aircraft requires constant observation (due to a malfunction, etc.) the AMC will direct positon within the flight. The Subsequent A/C will increase to a minimum of 10 rotor disks of separation and reduce 10 KIAS. Subsequent aircraft will call the former lead “Clear to rejoin” the formation in the positon in front of subsequent aircraft allowing the former lead to rejoin the flight. (6) Once complete, the trail aircraft will announce “SADDLE # of A/C in flight”.
130
What are the procedures for an in-flight link up?
A. The AMC will establish a common link-up point. Preferably an ACP on the route.
B. AMC will establish an arrival sequence at the link-up point.
C. AMC will determine the base altitude, airspeed, and lighting for the first aircraft to reach the link-up point. It is preferred the aircraft continue on the route at airspeed that allows the other aircraft to join the flight.
D. If it is determined aircraft must hold at an ACP, they should hold on the far side of the ACP (consider threat). Subsequent aircraft will not proceed past the ACP until they are able to safely join the flight. The threat will determine the altitude to arrive at the link-up point (ACP) consider an altitude separation of 200' below the preceding aircraft's altitude; if threat situation allows.
E. As A/C approaches the formation, they will announce their arrival and Chalk #.
F. Once established visual contact, aircraft will descend to the briefed base altitude for the holding pattern.
G. When the trail aircraft has closed with the formation, it will announce, “SADDLE.” Lead will acknowledge the “SADDLE” and accelerate to normal en-route airspeed.
H. Aircraft will depart the holding pattern in Chalk order per the AMC's guidance.
131
What are the two types of Go-Arounds and how are they executed?
Go-around Procedures: The AMC will plan and brief the go around procedures in detail considering the threat, formation type, obstacles, hazards, routes, minimum force required on the objective, and time between serials.
A. A flight go-around will occur when Flight Lead or AMC determines that the formation approach must be aborted, and announces “Flight go-around” on flight internal. All aircraft will follow lead.
B. An individual Aircraft go-around can occur if an individual aircrew determines it is unsafe to continue the approach. The Individual aircrew will announce, “Chalk # go-around and direction” on the flight internal. Subsequent aircraft in the flight may follow the go-around aircraft or land IAW the procedures as briefed in the OPORD. The Aircraft executing the “go-around” will land behind the last aircraft in the LZ and assume that chalk position or land in the assigned chalk position IAW the procedures briefed. p. Standard Weapon Control Measures
132
Explain the loss of visual contact procedures per the SOP
In the event aircrews lose visual contact with each other they are to perform the following steps to regain contact (it is imperative to immediately announce that aircraft is blind. DO NOT let pride cause a mid-air collision):
A. Utilize all digital equipment / tools IOT gain and maintain situational awareness of the location of other aircraft (e.g. TSD, EDM, GPS, FCR/ ATM, PP request, BFT, etc.).
B. Procedures:
(1) Verbally announce loss of visual contact on the internal frequency, e.g. “Flight, 1-3 is blind with 1-2”.
(2) Aircraft with which visual contact has been lost will announce heading, indicated airspeed, MSL altitude, distance and bearing from a common reference point (such as a planned CP or WP), and display appropriate trail aircraft lighting.
(3) Aircraft that has lost visual contact will decelerate 10 KIAS less than the airspeed announced by the preceding aircraft and coordinate altitude de-confliction by climbing 200' above or descending 200' below the announced altitude (pending on initial altitude deviance). Ensure consideration of threat environment when choosing method of altitude deviation.
(4) Subsequent aircraft follow the aircraft initiating lost visual contact procedures, maintaining visual contact with aircraft to their front and assist with re-establishing formation visual contact.
(5) Once visual contact is regained, accelerate to an airspeed not more than 10 knots greater than the airspeed announced by the preceding aircraft to rejoin the formation and announce “closing.”
(6) Aircraft with which visual contact has been lost will then return to the correct assigned altitude and display appropriate lighting.
(7) When join-up is complete, trail aircraft announces “SADDLE”.
C. Use available means to regain contact if mission allows (e.g. lights, or flares). Conduct in-flight link up procedure located in this SOP.
133
Explain lost communications procedures per the SOP
A. Aircraft experiencing lost communication will apply the appropriate visual signal.
(1) D / UH-60M: Night Anti-collision
(2) N / UH-60M: Flash visual search light or white flashlight.
B. Adjacent or trail aircraft then maneuvers to be clearly seen by the preceding gun/chalk while maintaining 3-disk (5-disk at night) minimum separation.
C. Aircraft experiencing lost communication will continue to apply the appropriate visual signal until acknowledged.
D. Aircraft receiving the visual signal will acknowledge by responding with its own lost commo visual signal.
E. Unless otherwise briefed, aircraft remain in gun/chalk order. Aircraft experiencing lost commo must remain in visual contact with an unaffected aircraft. If necessary, gun/chalk position changes will be made on the ground at the next secure landing location.
F. AMC reassigns communications duties as necessary. An assessment whether to continue or abort the mission will be made by the AMC. If the mission is aborted the flight departs on the briefed return route in briefed formation.
G. If lead has lost commo, conduct a lead change after receiving the lost commo acknowledgement. For flights of 3 or more trail will decelerate and allow spacing for the former lead to join as the second to last aircraft in the flight.
134
What are actions on contact / evasive maneuvers?
A. CONDUCT EVASIVE MANEUVERS AS REQUIRED. Flights will conduct evasive Maneuvers based of the type of enemy contact (Direct fire, radar, laser beam rider, etc.). Mission planning, briefings, and rehearsals will address break contact actions and consider the size of formations, mission profile, concealment available, type of threat systems.
B. IMMEDIATE SUPPRESSION IF ABLE. Depending on the threat location, range, ROE, weapons status and mission; Flights should immediately suppress the threat enabling the formation to break contact. In a multi-ship flight it is important to announce actions to the flight, so all aircrews don't get target fixated potentially causing a mid-air collision, fratricide, or unnecessarily expend ammunition.
C. DEPLOY TO COVER or MANEUVER OUT OF CONTACT. Flights should maneuver in a manner that prevents the threat from maintaining contact and deploy to an area that provides cover or concealment, while taking into account ASE capabilities and limitations.
D. DEVELOP THE SITUATION AND DECIDE ON A COURSE OF ACTION. Considering the threat, ROE, By-Pass, engagement, and displacement criteria, the AMC should select a COA and execute. If available the AMC should leverage indirect fires to enable maneuver and execute the COA.
E. REPORT RAPIDLY AND ACCURATELY. As time permits the AMC should report the contact and the COA. Additionally, the AMC should consider the impacts to the mission timeline, SEAD, TOT, etc., and report/ request adjustments.
135
What are the three types of CASEVAC? What are some basic distinguishing aspects of each?
A) Dedicated CASEVAC: Dedicated aerial CASEVAC consists of dedicated aircrews and aircraft identified and reserved exclusively for the aerial CASEVAC mission. This is the highest level of classification for aerial CASEVAC, and is usually a specified in an OPORD or as a task from higher headquarters and should be for a specific period of time
B) Designated CASEVAC: Designated aerial CASEVAC assets perform other roles during the operation such as an air assault or air movement, but are also specifically tasked with aerial CASEVAC operations as a contingency.
C) Lift of Opportunity: Given the opportunity, any available Army utility or cargo aircraft is capable of performing aerial CASEVAC operations. Opportune aerial CASEVAC may be a necessity during operations, but represents the lowest level of CASEVAC and is the highest risk of morbidity and disability to the casualty.
136
What guidance/SOP does dedicated CASEVAC follow?
Dedicated aerial CASEVAC operations and procedures should be similar in conduct of the MEDEVAC mission approval and launch procedures found in 4-16 and Chapter 7 of the 4th CAB SOP and be fully integrated into the patient movement system, to include augmentation with medical providers and equipment as well as procedures for receipt of mission and launch approval.
137
Downed aircrew actions will be IAW the 4 CAB AMS program, 4th CAB personnel recovery SOP, the on-scene commander checklist, SPINS, and take what general actions per the 4th CAB SOP?
A) Select a suitable extraction site based on the tactical situation. Establish initial contact on UHF guard on the CSEL radio IAW current SPINS. Subsequently, switch to preset “A” frequency (SAR-A).
B) Be prepared to transmit your location in reference to the “SARDOT” IAW current SPINS.
C) Be prepared to give threat warnings to inbound rescue aircraft.
D) Be prepared to provide Forward Air Control for attack helicopters or TACAIR.
E) Be prepared to authenticate IAW current SPINS and / or mask your location.
F) Be prepared to Escape and Evade the crash site and find a suitable hide location if rescue assets are not immediately available.
G) Following an emergency landing, the crew must immediately determine the security of the area. If secure and the aircraft can be safely recovered, remain with the aircraft, establish communication on aircraft radios or CSEL radio, and coordinate aircraft / personnel recovery efforts.
138
VIP operations are to be conducted IAW what two regulations?
AR95-1 and 4th CAB SOP
139
For HSL (Helicopter Sling Load) Operations, what are the responsibilities of the PC?
A) Briefing all crewmembers on mission details, crew duties, safety, and emergency procedures.
B) Ensures all crewmembers are qualified in conducting external and internal cargo operations.
C) Ensures an authorized restraining device and blue/green filtered flashlight is available for the crew chief / flight engineer.
D) Ensures cargo hook lighting is operational or a blue/green filtered light is available for the crew chief/flight engineer.
140
What are some of the considerations for External Loads?
A) Review the Sling Load Inspection Record and confirm the weight with the planning weight.
B) Loads not classified as “certified” or “suitable” are unique loads and require the Brigade Commander's approval.
C) BDE Standardization will maintain a list of authorized locally produced external loads and ensure inspections are conducted of the blocks quarterly, at a minimum.
D) Review frustrated Load Procedures and Bump Plans with all crew members.
E) Mission profile parameters for external load operations.
F) Hook-ups should be conducted into the wind.
141
What are the Emergency Procedures for sling loads during the Hook-up phase and the Enroute phase?
A) Hook-up Phase.
a. The load is released, aircraft maneuvers left and lands.
b. Hook-up personnel depart to their left (aircraft 3 o'clock).
B) En-route Phase.
a. The PC will determine actions.
b. Consideration is given to aircraft capabilities and current location.
c. The PC will determine when and if to jettison the external load.
d. If the Crew Chief/ Flight Engineer determines that the situation will not allow him to advise the PC of an unsafe, critical situation, he is authorized to manually jettison the external load.
e. The survivability of the aircraft is the determining factor in all decisions.
142
What are the procedures for Self Hook-up on external loads?
A) Land to the clevis.
B) Ground taxi forward until the clevis is in a position where the crew chief can physically attach he clevis to the cargo hook.
C) The crew chief guides the aircraft to a position over the load.
D) Approach and release procedures remain the same.
143
Who is the mission approval authority for FRIES missions?
The BDE Commander
144
During FRIES operations, what is the PC responsible for?
A) Inspecting FRIES equipment installed in the aircraft IAW relevant / recent AWR and ensuring a copy of any applicable AWRs are in the aircraft logbook.
B. Ensuring all aircrew members understand their Fast Rope responsibilities for normal and emergency procedures.
C. Issuing time warnings to CE and FRM.
D. Keeping the aircraft at proper altitude and centered over the LZ, not exceeding 80 KIAS with bars extended.
E) Addresses the following if suppressive fire is to be provided by aircraft door guns:
(1) When suppressive fire will begin and end.
(2) Conditions for automatic lifting and shifting of fires other than a weapons malfunction or a wounded gunner.
145
What are the four FRIES emergency procedures?
(1) Aircraft emergency.
a. STOP STICK ... Command by PC to cease FRIES operations.
b. FRM and NRCM ensure ropers are clear.
c. PC performs appropriate emergency procedures.
(2) Unsafe drift or premature lift-off.
a. Ropers on ropes will lock-in.
b. STOP STICK ... Command by PC to cease FRIES operations.
c. Pilot on the Controls repositions aircraft over the LZ.
d. Continue the mission when cleared by the PC.
(3) Hung rope.
a. FRM and NRCM ensure ropers are clear.
b. Pilot on the controls performs vertical descent.
c. FRM or NRCM release the hung rope and personnel untangle the rope from obstacles.
(4) No communications: Fast rope operations will be aborted if communications are lost between aircrew and FRM.
146
What are the emergency procedures for Paradrop operations?
(1) Below 1,500 feet AGL and an in-flight emergency occurs, the PC directs the jumpers to land with the aircraft. The jumpmaster ensures jumpers are seated with seatbelts secured. The jumpmaster also ensures deactivation of all parachute automatic opening devices.
(2) Above 1,500 feet AGL and an in-flight emergency occurs, the PC directs the jumpers to bail out of the aircraft; the jumpmaster ensures an orderly exit of all jumpers.
(3) The following contingencies will be pre-coordinated with the jumpmaster.
a. Towed or hung jumper: If the jumper cannot be freed, the PC will find a suitable landing area and land the aircraft. The NRCM and jumpmaster will direct the PC during the landing phase to allow for the jumper to land safely.
b. Inadvertent deployed parachute in the aircraft: The jumper and the jumpmaster will attempt to contain the canopy inside the aircraft.
c. Ensure static lines remain secured to the anchoring device until the aircraft has landed. If recovery of the static lines is impossible, execute a roll on landing to avoid entangling the static lines in the rotor system.
(4) Lost communications. Any loss of communications with the jumpmaster or the DZSO/ CCT will result in a mission abort until communications can be reestablished.
(5) Jump refusals: Persons refusing to jump will not be forced to jump. The jumper will remain in the aircraft and the jumpmaster will deactivate the automatic opening device if installed.
(6) The PC may cease all operations if he determines safety and control may be compromised.
147
How many EFBs must be in the cockpit if paper pubs are not brought? Can a person EFB act as one of those?
A) A minimum of two EFBs are required per cockpit if paper FLIP is not carried by the crew.
B) A personal device, if authorized by the AWR, and properly configured IAW this SOP, may be used as a back-up for issued EFB. Paper FLIP must be carried if redundancy cannot be achieved.
148
What is the definition of a mountainous environment per the 4th CAB SOP?
Any area generally west of I-25 and HWY 115 with elevations greater than 7,000' MSL. All other locations will be defined by the Brigade, if not already defined by local publications, policies, or regulations.
149
What is considered Mountain Operation Training per the 4th CAB SOP?
Any aircraft operating below 500' AGL with the intent to land, hover, or takeoff at any designated HLZ within the MTAs as listed in the FC APG/ AOC.
150
What are the required publications per the SOP?
VFR Sectional (all that apply)
VFR Terminal Sectional (if applicable)
Flight Information Handbook
VFR Supplement (if available)
IFR En-route Charts (all that apply)
IFR Approach Charts (all that apply)
IFR Area Charts (all that apply)
Local Hazard Map (if required)
Local Aviation Procedure Guide (if required)
Publications required by DA PAM 738-751
Appropriate approach/departure charts
Appropriate Operator's Manual and checklist
DD Form 365-4(s) adjusted for current configuration
SF44 and AvCards as appropriate
151
What are the responsibilities of the PC concerning ALSE / ALSS?
A) Ensures that ALSE commensurate with the mission and the operational environment is available on the aircraft.
B) Ensures that aircrew members and passengers are briefed on its location and use; PCs will give ALSS personnel as much notice as possible to prepare commensurate ALSE for all modes of flight and all geographical environments that are expected.
C) Ensures the required ALSE is on board the aircraft appropriate for the mission and environment to be flown.
D) During crew mission brief, ensures ALSE was inspected and operational checks are performed, confirms ACMs understand how to use personal and mission ALSE, and brief passengers on how to use ALSE (if required).
152
Prior to performing flight below ______-feet AGL outside military reservations, a map reconnaissance for hazards will be performed and crews will adhere to the procedures in the local flying rules. What else is expected time permitting?
A) 500
B) Time permitting, a day flight reconnaissance will be performed to identify hazards prior to performing terrain flight. Any hazards identified that are currently not depicted on local hazard maps or VFR sectionals will be forwarded to the battalion/squadron/TF ASO for consolidation and dissemination.
153
Avoid flight routes that within _________ of towers or wires that have a height within __________of the en route altitude for that segment of the flight.
A) 1 km
B) 100 ft-AGL
154
If unable to avoid wire crossings during route planning, what must be included in the plan?
If a route must cross known or suspected wires, the planners will incorporate detection, prevention and/or crossing procedures according to TC3-04.4, the applicable ATM, and local SOP.
