FCOM: 27 - Flight Control System Flashcards

1
Q

What protections are available in normal law?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Alternate law, reduced protection: what are the main differences from normal law?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Alternate law without protection. What is the main difference from alternate law with reduced protection?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What warnings are available in direct law?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In direct law, which spoilers are used for roll control?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is alpha lock?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

At what speed does auto flap retract take place?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If you go around from Config 2 or 3, and select Config 1, what slat/flap position results?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe what happens as you move the sidestick rearwards (with reference to the characteristic speeds and protections in normal law) if the thrust levers are at idle.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What protection has priority over all other protections?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When high speed protection is activated, how does this affect the aircraft’s stability in roll?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe how high speed protection works with regard to sidestick position.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What modes are available in normal law?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe bank angle protection

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Up to what bank angle is automatic turn coordination available?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

If doing a steep turn, is it necessary to hold a back pressure on the sidestick?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the normal range of rudder trim?

And why?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What indication on the PFD is missing in alternate law?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is abnormal attitude law?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How does the SRS work?
(engagement conditions)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When does SRS engage on take off?
What speeds are commanded?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How many SRS modes are there?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How does the SRS work on go around?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which hydraulic systems do the flaps use?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which hydraulic systems do the slats use?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Outboard ailerons use which hydraulic system?
Inboard ailerons use which hydraulic system?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which hydraulic systems are used by which spoilers?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which hydraulic system does the THS use?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which hydraulic system do the elevators use?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which hydraulic system does the rudder use?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the usage priority of the SFCCs for both the slats and the flaps?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How is the aircraft controlled in pitch?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the maximum elevator deflection and the maximum THS deflection?

A
34
Q

In normal configuration, how are commands to the elevator translated into movement?

A
35
Q

How is mechanical control exercised in pitch?

A
36
Q

Discuss active, damping and centring modes for the elevator.

A
37
Q

How is the stabiliser moved?

A
38
Q

What are the 5 conditions that will inhibit speedbrake extension?

A
39
Q

Is the flap overspeed warning based on flap position or lever position?

A
40
Q

What is the difference between Alpha Floor, Alpha Prot and Alpha Lock?

A
41
Q

What is the purpose of mechanical backup?

A
42
Q

How can you tell if the aircraft is in Mechanical backup?

A
43
Q

What is LAF?

A
44
Q

How do the FACs receive information about speedbrake position?

A
45
Q

What is the maximum bank angle when α protection is in force?

A
46
Q

What’s the maximum bank angle when high speed protection is in force?

A
47
Q

When in α prot what happens when you release the sidestick?

A
48
Q

What is the max pitch available in clean configuration? and config full?

A
49
Q

What is the max g load in clean and other configs?

A
50
Q

Once out of the α-floor condition, what thrust mode would you expect to see and how would you recover?

A
51
Q

What is Vls and what is its relation to the stall speed?

A
52
Q

Can high speed protection be overridden?

A
53
Q

Draw the speed tape in alternate law and in normal law.

A
54
Q

When might you see “USE MAN PITCH TRIM” and when might you see “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY”?

A
55
Q

What is α Lock and when might you see it?

A
56
Q

Explain high and low speed stability in alternate law.

A
57
Q

What protections do we have in direct law?

A
58
Q

What control surfaces have a mechanical link to the flight deck?

A
59
Q

What is the purpose of aileron droop and how do you know if your aircraft is fitted with it?

A
60
Q

In pitch, how long does it take to transition from ground to flight mode?

A
61
Q

What is ground mode?

A
62
Q

What is flare mode?

A
63
Q

What computer controls the characteristic speeds displayed on the PFD?

A
64
Q

What is the low energy alert and when would it occur?

A
65
Q

Explain the purpose of the β target and when you might see it?

A
66
Q

What does it mean when the red arrow is displayed in front of you?

A
67
Q

When do you see the sidestick indication on the PFD, and when does it disappear?

A
68
Q

Explain the movement of the flaps and slats between lever position 2 and position 3.

A
69
Q

What is the difference between selecting flaps 1 in the air and on the ground?

A
70
Q

Vfe & Vfe next are based on what?

A
71
Q

Overspeed warnings, and Vls are based on what?

A
72
Q

What protections may come into play when operating at heavy weights?

A
73
Q

With a dual channel failure or loss of flaps and slats why is it still necessary to select CONF 1?

A
74
Q

In the flap and slats jammed failure, why is it recommended to maintain Vapp or Vls, (whichever higher)?

A
75
Q

Which spoilers act as speed brakes and which act as roll spoilers?

A
76
Q

At what speed will the ground spoilers deploy?

A
77
Q

Explain phased lift dumping and its purpose.

A
78
Q

What is the effect on Vls when operating the speedbrakes?

A
79
Q

What is the effect of the speedbrakes when operating at high mach numbers?

A
80
Q

Approximately how long does it take for the speed brakes to retract from full?

A