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RANZCOG WRITTEN EXAM > Feb 2010 MCQ > Flashcards

Feb 2010 MCQ Flashcards

1
Q

The fertilised human ovum reaches the uterus approximately
A) 5 hours after ovulation
B) 36 hours after ovulation
C) 5 days after ovulation
D) 7 days after ovulation
E) 9 days after ovulation

A

C) 5 days after ovulation

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2
Q

Which of the following is LEAST correct regarding Tibolone?
A) it alleviates postmenopausal vasomotor symptoms
B) It does not stimulate the endometrium
C) It prevents osteoporosis
D) It inhibits proliferation of human breast cells
E) It improves the lipid profile with an increase in serum HDL cholesterol
F) It lowers sex hormone binding globulin increasing the bio-availability of endogenous testosterone

A

E) It improves the lipid profile with an increase in serum HDL cholesterol

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3
Q

A 26 y/o multigravida woman at 30/40 comes to the delivery suite of a level II hospital with a frank breech presentation at +3 station. Delivery begins to occur spontaneously until exclusion of the fetal thorax, when the cervix is noted to be incompletely dilated and the head entrapped. Which of the following would be of the MOST VALUE in this clinical situation?
A) nitrous oxide and oxygen
B) Thiopentone
C) Fentanyl
D) Glyceryl Trinitrate (GTN)
E) Salbutamol

A

D) GTN

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4
Q

Which of the following is MOST TYPICAL of cord blood gas measurements after normal labour and delivery at term?
A) arterial cord pH 7.27 and venous 7.34
B) arterial cord pH 7.34 and venous 7.26
C) arterial cord pH 7.30 and venous 7.37
D) arterial cord pH 7.37 and venous 7.30
E) arterial cord pH 7.37 and venous 7.34

A

A) arterial cord pH 7.27 and venous 7.34

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5
Q

Which of the following statements is LEAST CORRECT?
A) The perinatal mortality rate in Papua New Guinea is approximately 20/1000
B) The maternal mortality rate in Aus/NZ is approximately 1/10,000
C) The maternal mortality rate in Papua New Guinea is approximately 1/250
D) There are approximately 1500 maternal deaths worldwide each day

A

A) The perinatal mortality rate in PNG is approximately 20/1000

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6
Q

Which of the following is true concerning uterine fibroids?
Uterine fibroids:
A) undergo sarcomatous changes in 1% of cases
B) are associated with nulliparity
C) characteristically cause pain
D) Should be removed at Caesarean section if larger than 2cm

A

B) are associated with nulliparity

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7
Q

What effect does an electrosurgical waveform have if it is high current, low voltage and elevates the tissue temperature rapidly (>100deg) to produce vaporisation?
A) Cutting
B) Fulguration
C) Coagulation
D) Blend
E) Desiccation

A

A) Cutting

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8
Q

Each of the following is ovarian germ cell neoplasm EXCEPT:
A) Gynandroblastoma
B) Embryonal carcinoma
C) Gonadoblastoma
D) Polyembryoma
E) Endodermal sinus tumour

A

A) Gynandroblastoma (sex cord)

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9
Q

Which of the following would be the MOST APPROPRIATE next step in treating a woman with severe idiopathic cardiomyopathy who has just had a 1500ml PPH and is continuing to bleed? (syntocinon 5 units IV has been given for 3rd stage)
A) Ergometrine 0.25mg IV
B) Further 10 units oxytocinon IV
C) Prostaglandin F2 alpha 1.5mg intramyometrially
D) Oxytocinon 40 units in 1L Hartmanns over 4 hours
E) Misoprostol 200-400mcg orally

A

A) Ergometrine 0.25mg IV

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10
Q

Which one of the following is INCORRECT?
A) a fetus affected by Anti-bell antibodies and requiring intrauterine transfusion, can be given RBC from its mother
B) The amniotic fluid bilirubin is less reliable in detecting disease severity with Anti Kell antibodies compared to Anti- Duffy antibodies
C) A woman at 19/40 with AntiKell 1/2048 and a husband with a homozygous phenotype KK should have fetal blood sampling
D) Anti Kell antibodies both suppress erythropoiesis and cause haemolysis
E) The commonest Kell phenotype in the population is Kk

A

E) the commonest Kell phenotype in the population is Kk

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11
Q

a woman delivers a 3kg baby at term with ambiguous genitalia. The karyotype is 46XX and the 17-OH progesterone is 100 (normal is <20). The baby undergoes surgical correction of its genital anomalies successfully and is commenced on steroid replacement therapy. In her next pregnancy you would recommend?
A) commencement of dexamethasone at the diagnosis of pregnancy
B) commencement of prednisolone at the diagnosis of pregnancy
C) amniocentesis to diagnose fetal sex and commence dexamethasone if fetus is female
D) amniocentesis to diagnose fetal sex and commence prednisolone if fetus is female

A

A) commencement of dexamethasone at the diagnosis of pregnancy

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11
Q

The MOST COMMON chromosomal error observed in the abortuses from spontaneous abortion is?
A) autosomal trisomy
B) Triploidy
C) Sex chromosome abnormalities
D) Chromosomal translocation

A

A) autosomal trisomy

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11
Q

On withdrawing the main trocar inserted through the umbilicus during a diagnostic laparoscopy, and prior to inserting the viewing telescope, fecal matter is seen on the tip of the trocar. Should the surgeon?
A) remove the cannula, discontinue the operation, give antibiotics and wait and see?
B) remove the cannula and perform a laparotomy to find and repair the damaged bowel?
C) leave the cannula where it is and perform a laparotomy using a low transverse incision?
D) leave the cannula where it is and perform a laparotomy using a midline incision?
E) insert the telescope through a new puncture and attempt repair of the bowel using new laparoscopic techniques for suturing?

A

D) leave the cannula where it is and perform a laparotomy using a midline incision

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12
Q

In the HAIR-AN syndrome, the mechanism by which insulin resistance occurs is through?
A) abnormalities associated with the insulin receptor?
B) obesity related changes to ovarian function
C) alterations in ovarian steroidogenic enzymes
D) underlying diabetes mellitus
E) alterations in adrenal steroid synthesis pathways

A

A) abnormalities associated with the insulin receptor

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13
Q

Which of the features below would be MOST LIKELY to be found in a patient with Turners syndrome who presents for evaluation of primary amenorrhoea at the age of 18 years?
A) Uterus present, breasts undeveloped
B) Uterus present, breasts developed
C) Uterus absent, breasts undeveloped
D) uterus absent, breasts developed
E) Uterus present, clitoromegaly

A

A) Uterus present, breasts undeveloped

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14
Q

A 26 y/o multip who has T2DM had a spontaneous vaginal delivery 72 hours ago with a pudendal block anaesthesia and a midline episiotomy. A third degree laceration occurred at time of delivery. She now has a temp of 39.0C. her pulse is 120 bpm, RR of 32, and BP of 90/60. The uterus is 2cm below the umbilicus and is minimally tender to palpation. the lochia is equivalent to menstrual discharge but is malodorous. The perineum and lower vulva and vagina are oedematous but not tender to touch. The perineal skin and vagina are pale grey. Sensation to pinprick is markedly diminished in this area. Of the following the MOST LIKELY diagnosis is:
A) Perirectal abscess
B) Rectovaginal fistula
C) Endometritis
D) Necrotising fasciitis

A

D) necrotising fasciitis
( I think I would’ve put endometritis as MOST LIKELY??)

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15
Q

Which of the following is the KEY mode of current therapy for fetal alloimmune thrombocytopenia?
A) maternal immunoglobulin infusion
B) In-utero fetal platelet transfusion
C) Corticosteroid therapy with prednisolone
D) Plasmapheresis

A

A) maternal immunoglobulin infusion

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16
Q

A patient at 12/40 is found to have anti-Fya red cell antibodies on routine testing at a titre of 1:16. The MOST APPROPRIATE next step in management is to:
A) Quantify the antibody concentration using radioimmunoassay
B) Perform ultrasound at 18/40 to exclude any early hydrops fetalis
C) Ascertain the partner’s phenotype
D) Repeat the antibody test at 16/40
E) Reassure the patient that anti-Fya antibodies are non-haemolytic

A

C) ascertain the partners phenotype

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17
Q

A 27 year old patient with documented hypothalamic amenorrhoea who desires pregnancy asks you about induction of ovulation with gonadotrophin releasing hormone (GnRH). You tell her that the induction of ovulation with GnRH is effective:
A) If the drug is administered as a continuous subcutaneous infusion until follicular maturation occurs
B) Only if human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) is used to trigger ovulation
C) Only if human menopausal gonadotrophins (hMG) are administered simultaneously
D) If the hormone is administered in a pulsatile fashion

A

D. if the hormone is administered in a pulsatile fashion

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18
Q

A 40 year old woman from India presents for a routine pap smear. On examination, you notice a small group of vesicles on her right buttock. On questioning, she claims that this is a problem she has had intermittently for many years. The MOST LIKELY diagnosis is:
A) Lymphogranuloma venereum
B) Recurrent HSV 2
C) Dermatitis artifacta
D) Drug eruption

A

B. recurrent HSV2

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19
Q

A 27 year old woman presents with acute virilization and normal pelvic examination. The results of investigation are LH 2, FSH 3, 17OHP 2.9, Testosterone 8.9, DHEAS 5.3

(normal ranges for assays reported are, LH 4-25, FSH 3-25, 17OHP <5.5, Testosteone 0.5 – 2.5nmol/l, DHEAS 0.9-11.7)

Which ONE of the following is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

A) Sertoli-leydig cell tumour
B) Late onset congenital adrenal hyperplasia
C) Adrenal cortical adenoma
D) Polycystic ovarian syndrome with inuslin resistance
E) Cushing syndrome

A

A – Sertoli-leydig cell tumour

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20
Q

In the human fetus, behaviour state 2F is characterized by

A) Breathing and eye movements with frequent accelerations of the heart rate
B) Absent eye and breathing movements with minimal variability of the heart rate
C) Infrequent body movements but continual breathing and eye movements
D) Occurring most of the time by term gestation
E) High voltage, slow wave EEG patterns

A

A. Breathing and eye movements with frequent accelerations of the heart rate

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21
Q

Which organism is responsible for donovanosis?
A) Haemophilis ducreyi
B) Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
C) Gardnerella vaginalis
D) Corynebacterium donovaniae

A

B. Calymmatobacterium granulomatosis

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22
Q

A 32 year old primigravida had a midtrimester maternal serum screening test arranged by her family doctor. Her result indicates that the pregnancy is at an increased risk of Down syndrome. She has been sent to you for management. What would you do first?

A) Arrange a CVS to karyotype the fetus
B) Arrange an amniocentesis to karyotype the fetus
C) Arrange an USS to check the gestational age of the fetus
D) Arrange a termination of the pregnancy for Down syndrome
E) Arrange a contact with the down syndrome support grouyp in case she wishes to continue the pregnancy

A

C. Arrange an USS to check the gestation age of the fetus

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23
Q

All of the following are true about complications associated with clomiphene EXCEPT?
A) Ovarian enlargement has been reported in approx. 15% of women but true hyperstimulation occurs rarely.
B) Major malformation rates in clomiphene citrate related pregnancies are not distinguishable from rates in an age matched population
C) The chance of twins is approximately 20%
D) The pregnancy losses are similar to those of normal population

A

C) the chance of twins is approximately 20% (not true)

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24
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the androgen insensivitiy syndrome is correct?
A) The testosterone is below that of a normal male
B) The gonads should be removed as soon as the diagnosis is made
C) The risk of dysgerminoma or other gonadal neoplasm is high until 20 years of age
D) Pubescence is delayed because of the absence of endogenous hormone
E) The syndrome is a x linked recessive

A

E – the syndrome is x linked recessive

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25
Q

A 50 year old patient has received conflicting advice concerning hormone therapy. Which of the following would be CORRECT information to relate to this patient?

A) Bone loss is most rapid in the first 3 years after the onset of menopause
B) Ingestion of 1500mg of elemental calcium per day will lead to an increased incidence of kidney stones
C) HT is not indicated after the age of 60
D) HT increases the incidence of coronary heart disease
E) HT increases the risk of colorectal cancer

A

A – bone loss is most rapid in the first 3 years after the onset of menopause

26
Q

The primary group of lymph nodes that drain the vulval is the:

A) Deep inguinal
B) Deep femoral
C) Obturator
D) Superficial inguinal

A

D – superficial inguinal

27
Q

All of the following statements regarding genital herpes are correct EXCEPT?
A) The acquisition of HSV type I offers some protection against HSV type II infection
B) HSV type II is more commonly associated with genital herpes than is HSV type I
C) Acyclovir treatment of the acute disease significantly reduces the recrudescence rate
D) Women with cervical carcinoma have a higher prevalence of HSV antibodies

A

C – acyclovir treatment of the acute disease significantly reduces the recrudescence rate

28
Q

approximately what percentage of patients with vulvar intra-epithelial neoplasia (VIN) are 40 years of age or younger?
A) none
B) 10%
C) 20%
D) 50%
E) 90%

A

D) 50%

29
Q

The statistical power of a study is MOST LIKELY to be increased by
A) selecting an outcome end point occurring at high frequency
B) selecting an outcome end point occurring at low frequency
C) increasing the sample size
D) selecting a beta value of 80%
E) employing a statistician

A

C) increasing the sample size

30
Q

The current perinatal mortality rate (for births at least 400g or 20/40) in Australia is CLOSEST to?
A) 5 per 1000 live births
B) 5 per 1000 total births
C) 10 per 1000 live births
D) 10 per 1000 total births
E) 15 per 1000 live births
F) 15 per 1000 total births

A

D) 10 per 1000 total births

31
Q

what is the MOST COMMON cause of introital dyspareunia?
A) manilial vulvo-vaginitis
B) herpes genitalis
C) inadequate arousal
D) vaginismus

A

C) inadequate arousal

32
Q

Delayed puberty (no secondary sexual characteristics by 13 or no menses by 15 years of age) would be expected to occur in approximately what percent of the female population?
A) 0.1%
B) 0.25%
C) 1.0%
D) 2.5%
E) 5.0%

A

D) 2.5%

33
Q

A multigravida presents at 38/40 with SROM for 20 hours and early labour. She has not had any antenatal care. She is not febrile. CTG is normal.
the MOST APPROPRIATE Group B strep prophylaxis is?
A) 1g Ampicillin STAT
B) 500mg erythromycin orally 6 hourly
C) 1.2g Benzylpenicillin STAT
D) GBS prophylaxis is not required

A

C) 1.2g Benzylpenicillin IV STAT

34
Q

100 high risk patients undergo a fetal BPP. 10 patients have a +ve test. 2 stillbirths result. Both of which have a +ve BPP. The sensitivity of the BPP in this population is?
A) 0%
B) 2%
C) 20%
D) 80%
E) 100%

A

E) 100%

35
Q

Which of the following is false regarding oxytocinon in pregnancy and parturition?
A) oxytocinon is a nonopeptide
B) oxytocinon works largely via a non oxytocinon receptor initiating a G-protein dependent activation of phospholipase C, Inositol triphosphate, and sarcoplasmic reticulum calcium release
C) oxytocin receptors in the decider lead to PGF2 alpha production
D) Oxytocin receptor concentrations markedly increase with advancing gestation under the influence of rising progesterone

A

D) oxytocin receptor concentrations markedly increase with advancing gestation under the influence of rising progesterone

36
Q

which of the following is related to a preventable increase in pre term delivery?A) periodontal disease
B) dental caries
C) endodontal disease
D) impacted wisdom teeth

A

a) periodontal disease

37
Q

A rhesus negative woman in her 2nd pregnancy with antenatal screening which shows the presence of anti D (titre of 1:64 and quantitative concentration of 10 iu/L). in her first pregnancy her baby was born at term and required phototherapy. the MOST APPROPRIATE surveillance of her fetus is?
A) regular assessment of maternal anti D titre/quantification
B) regular USS to exclude the presence of hydrops fetalis
C) regular USS assessment of the MCA PSV
D) regular amniocentesis to assess the OD 450 of the amniotic fluid

A

C) regular USS assessment of the MCA PSV

38
Q

The alpha fetoprotein concentration is significantly elevated in the amniotic fluid of pregnant women with any of the following EXCEPT?
A) a fetus that has spina bifida occulta
B) fetus that is dead
C) a fetus with meningomyelocele
D) a fetus with exomphalos
E) contamination of the fluid with fetal red cells

A

a) a fetus that has spina bifida occulta

39
Q

which of the features below would be MOST LIKELY to be found in a patient with mullerian agenesis, who presents for evaluation of primary amenorrhoea at age of 18 years?
A) Uterus present, breasts underdeveloped
B) Uterus present, breasts developed
C) Uterus absent, breasts underdeveloped
D) Uterus absent, breasts developed
E) Uterus present, clitoromegaly

A

D) Uterus absent, breasts developed

40
Q

Which of the following statements regarding monozygotic twins is NOT TRUE?
A) approximately 30% of monozygotic twins are diamniotic dichorionic
B) approximately 25% of twins are monozygotic
C) placental vascular anastomoses are present in approximately 95% of monochorionic twins
D) splitting of the embryo before day 8 post conception will result in dichorionic twins, splitting after day 8 results in monochorionic twins
E) monochorionic twins occur in approximately 1 in 400 births

A

D) splitting of the embryo before day 8 post conception will result in dichorionic twins, splitting after day 8 results in monochorionic twins

41
Q

In patients who receive clomiphene citrate for induction of ovulation, the frequency of ovarian hyper stimulation syndrome is?
A) less than 1%
B) 5-10%
C) 15-20%
D) 25-30%
E) 35-40%

A

A) less than 1%

42
Q

In a population of low risk obstetric patients undergoing routine ultrasound screening, the LOWEST rate of detection of abnormalities (sensitivity) is usually found for abnormalities of which system?
A) gastrointestinal
B) cardiac
C) central nervous system
D) genitourinary
E) skeletal

A

B) cardiac

43
Q

all of the following risk factors are associated with pre term delivery EXCEPT?
A) hyperemesis gravidarum
B) bleeding in the first trimester
C) oligohydramnios
D) placenta praaevia
E) multiple gestation

A

A) hyperemesis gravidarum

44
Q

which one of the following is LEAST true of depot medroxyprogesterone acetate?
A) amenorrhoea is expected in approximately 50% at 12 months
B) amenorrhoea is expected in approximately 95% at 24 months
C) there may be a modest reduction in bone mineral density compared to controls
D) a satisfactory regimen is depot medroxyprogesterone acetate 150mg intramuscularly every 12 weeks
E) Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate is good contraception for women with epilepsy

A

B) amenorrhoea is expected in approximately 95% at 24 months

45
Q

which organism is responsible for lymphogranuloma venereum?
A) Haemophilis ducreyi
B) calymatobacterium granulomatis
C) chlamydia trachromatis
D) corynebacterium donovaniae

A

C) chlamdyia trichomatis

46
Q

a 27 year old woman at 26/40 complains of a swollen, cold and painful right leg. On examination, the leg is cool, swollen, and has a sluggish venous return. a doppler USS shows no DVT and normal blood flow in the leg veins. the NEXT step is to:
A) organise MRI of the pelvis
B) commence on a prophylactic dose of clexane
C) organise a CT venogram of the pelvis
D) reassure the patient and send her home

A

A) organise a MRI of the pelvis

47
Q

which one of the following statements about spontaneous miscarriage is CORRECT?
A) BV is associated with an increased risk of first trimester miscarriage
B) among chromosomal abnormal spontaneous abortuses, the most common chromosomal abnormality is triploidy
C) in utero exposure to DES increases a women risk of spontaneous miscarraige
D) the karyotypic abnormalities in spontaneous abortuses are similar to those in liveborn neonates

A

C) in utero exposure to DES increases a women risk of spontaneous miscarraige

48
Q

which of the following statements concerning stillbirth is INCORRECT?
A) the rate of stillbirth is increased with a true knot in the cord
B) in each week of pregnancy between 26 and 40/40 the rate of stillbirth is approximately 0.03%
C) between 41:0 and 41:6, the rate of stillbirth is approximately the same as between 38 and 38:6
D) approximately 1:500 women will have a stillbirth at or beyond 38/40

A

C) between 41:0 and 41:6, the rate of stillbirth is approximately the same as between 38:0 and 38:6

49
Q

a 32 year old woman has been shown to have grade 4 endometriosis on a diagnostic laparoscopy. Her pouch of Douglas is completely obliterated with sigmoid colon adherent to the back of the uterus. she attends outpatients to plan definitive surgery. The definitive surgery should be managed by:
A) the general gynaecological unit
B) colorectal surgeons performing the definitive surgery with a gynaecologist assistant
C) an experience gynaecologist laparoscopist in consultation with a colorectal surgeon
D) gynaecological oncologist

A

C) an experienced gynaecologist laparoscopist in consultation with a colorectal surgeon

50
Q

oral contraceptives are associated with a decreased risk of each of the following EXCEPT:
A) PID
B) Ectopic pregnancy
C) endometrial cancer
D) cervical cancer
E) endometriosis

A

D) cervical cancer

51
Q

a blood assay of which of the following steroids is the MOST DIRECT measure of adrenal androgen activity?
A) androstenedione
B) cortisol
C) DHEAS
D) Testosterone

A

C) DHEAS

52
Q

The best test to diagnose 21- dehydroxylase deficiency congenital adrenal hyperplasia is?
A) serum testosterone and androstenedione
B) dexamethasone suppression test
C) ACTH stimulation test
D) serum 17-OH progesterone

A

D) serum 17-OH P

53
Q

which of the following statements is false:
A) base deficit is defined as the bicarbonate ion concentration below normal
B) after bicarbonate, haemoglobin is the next most important acid base buffer for the fetus
C) an increase in the anion gap is commonly seen in DKA
D) the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve in the fetus is shifted to the right when compared to the adult

A

D) the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve in the fetus is shifted to the right when compared to the adult

54
Q

Following ovulation, the survival of the unfertilised human ovum is approximately:
A) 12-24 hours
B) 24-48 hours
C) 2-3 days
D) 4-5 days

A

A) 12-24 hours

55
Q

A 35 year old primigravid woman is referred from a general practitioner at about 30/40. USS examination is performed to check fetal growth. This shows that the pocket of amniotic fluid measures 15cm and the amniotic fluid index is 35. Which of the following congenital anomalies is LEAST LIKELY to be associated with this finding?
A) Duchenne muscular dystrophy
B) Myotonic dystrophy
C) Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
D) Hydrocephaly

A

A) Duchenne muscular dystrophy

56
Q

At the routine antenatal screening tests, a 20 year old woman from Nauru has negative PRP (rapid plasma regain) and positive TPHA (treponema pallidum haemagllutination)
The MOST LIKELY explanation is that:
A) The patient probably has early syphilis
B) The patient probably has latent syphilis
C) The result is probably a biological false positive
D) The patient has probably been treated for syphilis in the past

A

D) The patient has probably been treated for syphilis in the past

57
Q

Which of the following is INCORRECT?
A) Norethisterone and norethynodrel are first generation progesterons and were used in the oral contraceptives
B) Levonorgestrel is a second generation progestogen and more potent than norethisterone
C) Triphasic oral contraceptive pills containing 2nd generation progestogens are associated with a less favourable lipid profile than monophasic preparations containing the same progestogens
D) Desogestrel, Gestodene, and norgestimate are 3rd generation progestogen and are less androgenic than levonorgestrel
E) Oral contraceptive pills containing 3rd generation progestogens have been associated with 2 fold increase in VTE although this may have been due to a prescription bias

A

C) Triphasic oral contraceptive pills containing 2nd generation progestogens are associated with a less favourable lipid profile than monophasic preparations containing the same progestogens

58
Q

Which one of the following is LEAST CORRECT?
A) A finding of no difference between the two arms of an RCT may reflect the fact that the study did not have a sufficient sample size to detect a clinically important difference
B) Where a RCT that addressed a clinical problem has been performed, this will outweigh all other evidence
C) The incorporation of mulitiple trial centers facilitates the achievement of a large sample size often required for an RCT, but may necessitate flexible trial protocols to accommodate a broad spectrum of clinical opinion
D) Flexible entry criteria facilitiate the achievement of a large sample often often required for a RCT, but at the cost of a conclusion drawn from a heterogenous population that may not apply to subgroups within the population

A

B) Where a RCT that addressed a clinical problem has been performed, this will outweigh all other evidence

59
Q

Which of the statements concerning anticoagulation with warfarin sodium is CORRECT?
A) The effects of the drug are reversed most rapidly by the administration of fresh frozen plasma
B) Paracetamol administration in normal therapeutic dosage may cause a drug interaction
C) Treatment should be monitored by measuring the partial thromboplastin time
D) Breast feeding is contraindicated
E) In pregnancy, it is only safe to use during the second trimester

A

A) The effects of the drug are reversed most rapidly by the administration of fresh frozen plasma

60
Q

Which of the following statements about actinomyces is NOT TRUE?
A) It is associated with toxic shock syndrome
B) It can be recognized by cervical cytology
C) It occurs with a Lippes loop IUD
it is best treated by intra muscular penicillin

A

A) It is associated with toxic shock syndrome

61
Q

Which of the following actions and activities in the physician/patient relationship does NOT constitute sexual misconduct
A) When the patient and physician mutually consent to the sexual relationship
B) A romantic relationship between a physician and a current patient in which emotional cousnelling has taken place
C) A romantic relationship between a physician and a former patient in which emotional counselling has taken place
D) None of the above

A

D) None of the above

62
Q

Which of the following decreases sex hormone binding globulin concentrations
A) Pregnancy
B) Weight loss
C) Hyperinsulinaemia
D) Hyperthyroidism
E) Oestrogen

A

C) Hyperinsulinaemia

63
Q

A 62 year old woman comes to see you requesting a sterilization of her 20 year old daughter who has down syndrome. The mother states that her daughter is sexually active and is not on any form of contraception. She lives at home with her parents and is dependent on them. You tell her that:
A) This can be performed once reversible options have failed
B) This can only be done with her daughter’s consent
C) This can be done as reversible long term options aren’t appropriate
D) That state guardianship approval is necessary for this to be done

A

D) That state guardianship approval is necessary for this to be done

64
Q

The failure rate among typical users of which method of contraception is less than 1%?
A) Combined oral contraceptives
B) Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate
C) Progesterone only contraceptive pills
D) Condoms

A

B) Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate

65
Q

Which of the following is NOT TRUE of hepatitis C
A) Sexual transmission is rare (<1%)
B) Vertical transmission occurs in approximately 5% of carriers
C) After seroconversion, approximately 50% will become carriers
D) Vertical transmission is very rare with breast feeding

A

C) After seroconversion, approximately 50% will become carriers

RANZCOG WRITTEN EXAM (5 decks)

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