Fellows Review Flashcards by Sarah Gillen

Q

Principles of osteopathic medicine

A

The body is a unit

The body is capable of self regulation

Structure and function are reciprocally interrelated

Rational treatment is based on understanding of first 3 principles

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Q

Year that AT Still’s children died and he started thinking about osteopathic medicine

A

1864

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Q

Day AT Still flung to the breeze the banner of osteopathy

A

June 22, 1874

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Q

Year first school of osteopathy opened

A

1892

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Q

Year KCU established

A

1916

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Q

Year of the Spanish flu outbreak

A

1917-1918

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Q

Year DO’s started being able to serve in the military

A

1957

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Q

Years of the California Referendum

A

1961-1974

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Q

Acute or chronic:

Pale, dry, achy

A

Chronic

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Q

Acute or chronic:

Blanching, hypertonic, sharp

A

Acute

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Q

5 principles of lymphatic diagnosis

A

Indications and risk-to-benefit ratio
Central myofascial pathways
Fluid pumps
Spinal involvement
Peripheral/regional pathways

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Q

Which lymphatic duct drains the majority of the body

A

Thoracic duct

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Q

What does the right lymphatic duct drain

A

Right side of the head, neck, and thorax

Right upper limb

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Q

Transition zones of the spine and transverse restrictors

A

OA, C1, C2 (tentorium cerebelli)

C7, T1 (thoracic inlet)

T12, L1 (thoracolumbar diaphragm)

L5, Sacrum (pelvic diaphragm)

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Q

Principles of lymphatic treatment (4)

A

Open pathways to remove restriction to flow (transverse myofascial restrictors, regional lymphatic drainage)
Maximize diaphragmatic functions (abdominal and pelvic diaphragms)
Increase pressure differentials or transmit motion (fluid pumps)
Mobilize targeted tissue fluids (localized to specific SDs)

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Q

The thoracic inlet is always opened first. What would your next treatment area be for an HEENT problem?

A

Suboccipitals

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Q

The thoracic inlet is always opened first. What would your next treatment area be for a problem below the diaphragm?

A

Abdominal diaphragm

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Q

The thoracic inlet is always opened first. What would your next 2 treatment areas be for a lower extremity problem?

Study These Flashcards

A

Abdominal diaphragm

Pelvic diaphragm

Q

Which of the following types of contraction is contraction of a muscle with approximation of origin and insertion?

A. Isometric contraction
B. Concentric isotonic contraction
C. Eccentric isotonic contraction
D. Isolytic contraction

Study These Flashcards

A

B. Concentric isotonic contraction

Q

Which of the following types of contraction is considered non-physiologic?

A. Isometric contraction
B. Concentric isotonic contraction
C. Eccentric isotonic contraction
D. Isolytic contraction

Study These Flashcards

A

D. Isolytic contraction

Q

Which of the following types of contraction is contraction of a muscle with no change in distance between the origin and insertion?

A. Isometric contraction
B. Concentric isotonic contraction
C. Eccentric isotonic contraction
D. Isolytic contraction

Study These Flashcards

A

A. Isometric contraction

Q

Which of the following types of contraction is attempted concentric contraction with an external force causing separation of origin and insertion?

A. Isometric contraction
B. Concentric isotonic contraction
C. Eccentric isotonic contraction
D. Isolytic contraction

Study These Flashcards

A

D. Isolytic contraction

Q

Which of the following types of contraction is contraction of a muscle with separation of origin and insertion?

A. Isometric contraction
B. Concentric isotonic contraction
C. Eccentric isotonic contraction
D. Isolytic contraction

Study These Flashcards

A

C. Eccentric contraction

Q

What are 2 other names for articulatory technique?

Study These Flashcards

A

Springing technique

Low velocity/high amplitude

Steps for BLT

1. Move toward position of ease (shifted neutral) 2. Activating force: breath hold in position of ease 3. Hold until air hunger 4. Return to neutral 5. Reassess

Steps for FPR

1. Neutralize sagittal plane 2. Apply compression 3. Place in position of ease 4. Hold 3-5 seconds 5. Return to normal 6. Reassess

Steps for Still Technique

1. Place in position of ease 2. Add compression 3. Move through RB to AB 4. Remove compression 5. Return to neutral 6. Reassess

Which cervical vertebrae are typical vs. atypical?

Typical = 3-6 Atypical = atlas (c1), axis (c2), and C7

Why is C7 considered atypical

Vertebra prominens = non-bifid, with small or absent foramen transversarium

The atlas is bounded anteriorly on the dens by the ______ ______ and posteriorly by the __________ ________ ligament

Anterior arch Transverse atlantal ligament

When looking at imaging for the C spine and examining the different lines in the lateral view, which type of fractures are we concerned about because they are unstable?

Lamina fractures

Major vs. minor motions at OA

Major = flexion, extension Minor = sidebending, rotation

Why do rotation and sidebending tend to occur in the same direction for C2-7?

Theoretically d/t uncinate processes

MET Lumbar Type 1 (neutral) SD, Lateral recumbent, long lever technique

NUDR Neutral dysfunction, ptp Up, patient force Down, Recumbent

MET Lumbar Type 2 Flexed SD, Lateral recumbent, long lever technique

FDDR Flexed dysfunction, ptp Down, pt force Down, lateral Recumbent

MET Lumbar Type 2 Extended SD, Lateral Recumbent, long lever technique

SUUE Modified Sims, ptp Up, pt force Up, Extension dysfunction

T/F: in the lumbar spine, spinous processes are in the same plane as the transverse processes

True

The most superior portion of the iliac crests corresponds with the spinous process of what vertebrae?

L4

Which nerve root corresponds to patellar reflex

L4

An L4 nerve root would be affected by disc herniation at which of the following? A. L2-L3 B. L3-L4 C. L4-L5 D. L5-L6

B. L3-L4

Which nerve root corresponds to the achilles reflex

S1

Which nerve roots correspond to the following: Ankle dorsiflexion Great toe dorsiflexion Ankle plantarflexion

Ankle dorsiflexion = L4/5 Great toe dorsiflexion = L5 Ankle plantarflexion = S1

Positive vs negative hip drop tests

Negative (normal) = hip on unsupported side drops 15 degrees Positive = hip on unsupported side does NOT drop 15 degrees, indicating pathology on unsupported side [ex: right iliac crest drops 10 degrees = positive R hip drop test --> problem with lumbar left sidebending]

The straight leg raise test is used to test for sciatic nerve irritation by stretching the dura. How is the test performed and what are the possible results?

Patient supine. Physician extends knee, medially rotates and adducts pt's hip, then flexes hip while maintaining knee extension. Positive test = pain in the BACK of the leg If pain is felt at <30-35 degrees or in opposite leg, may indicate disc protrusion or rupture radiculopathy Dura stretch starts at 30 degrees, pain above this may indicate nerve root irritation, but greater than 70 degrees may be mechanical LBP