Fianl Flashcards
1
Q
The mare ovaries are more fixed in location than the cow. What anatomical structure is responsible
A
Broad ligament fixes the ovaries to the dorsum
2
Q
In what anatomical structure of the mare is Contagious Equine Metritis (CEM) harbored
A
Clitoral sinus
3
Q
Why swab the mare’s clitoral sinus
A
To test for Contagious Equine Metritis (CEM)
4
Q
What structure in the mare provides a barrier from the environment of the vaginal vault to the vagina
A
Vestibule vaginal seal
5
Q
What organ of the mare is most sensitive to hormonal stimulation
A
cervix
6
Q
In what tissue is the ovary embedded
A
mesovarium
7
Q
How many folds do the cervix and uterus have
A
12-14
8
Q
Which cervix is from a mare in estrus? Top or bottom
A
Top is estrus
Bottom is diestrus
9
Q
Where in the mare is sperm stored
A
Oviduct
10
Q
Where does fertilization take place in the mare
A
Oviduct
11
Q
Where are unfertilised ova retained in the mare
A
oviduct
12
Q
At how many days is the fertilized embryo transported to the uterus in the mare
A
5.5 days after fertilization
13
Q
What hormone causes the uterotubular junction to open, allowing the embryo into the uterus
A
Progesterone E (PGE)
14
Q
Fertilization happens in the mare oviduct. Where specifically
A
ampulla of the oviduct
15
Q
Sperm is stored in the mare oviduct, where specifically
A
Isthmus
16
Q
What hormone is responsible for maternal recognition of pregnancy in the horse
A
Progesterone E2 from live embryo
17
Q
How long after fertilization should a mare be flushed for embryo transfer
A
7-8 days to give time for the embryo to enter the uterus
18
Q
between which vertebrae are the ovaries in a mare located
A
between 3rd and 4th lumbar vertebrae
19
Q
In the horse what is the site of ovulation in the ovary called
A
ovulation fossa
20
Q
how big is a mature follicle
A
40+ mm
21
Q
Where are most condular fractures in young horses
A
Lateral MC3 condylar fracture 85%
22
Q
What cast can be used to stabilize a MCIII fracture for transport
A
Kimzey splint cast
23
Q
What is the condylar fracture treatment in the horse
A
Internal fixation with transcortical screws in lag fashion
24
Q
When repairing a condylar fracture in a horse, where must the first screw go
A
closest to the joint in the epicondylar fossa
25
RTR prognosis for nondisplaced condylar fracture in horse?
Displaced?
Nondisplaced 70-80%
Displaced 50%
26
27
Most common long bone fracture in horse
diaphyseal fractures of MCIII and MTIII
28
What is the optimal treatment for cannon bone fracture repair
Double Plate Fixation- on the tension side of bone
29
What GI disorder is associated with bone pain
cecal impaction
30
What is the maximum compression that can be achieved using a fraction compression plate
4mm- 1 mm per screw (2 each side)
31
What are the benefits of a **limited contact** dynamic compression plate over a dynamic compression plate
Bends uniformly
improved blood supply under the plate
32
What screw size is used in the equine specific locking compression plate
5.5 mm
33
What is the max number of screws that can be under compression with plate fracture repair
2 screws per side- each gains 1 mm (total of 4 mm compression possible)
34
What is the maximum screw angle that can be used with a DCP (Dynamic Compression Plate)
25 degrees
35
What is the max screw angle that can be achieved with a LC-DCP (Limited Contact Dynamic COmpression Plate)
40 degrees
36
For what species is a 5.5 mm LCP (Locking Compression Plate) designed
Equine specific
37
The 5.5 mm LCP is specifically designed for horses. Which screws are 5.5 mm
cortical screws
38
What is the strongest plate for use in horse cannon bone fractures
5.5 LCP (Locking Compression Plate)
39
What type of Ulnar fracture
1A
40
A. Olecranon
B. Anconeal process
C. Trochlear notch
D. Head of the radius
E. Styloid process of ulna
41
A. Olecranon
B. Anconeal process
C. Trochlear notch
D. Head of the radius
E. Interosseous space
42
Where does the triceps insert in young horses
Apophysis of the olecranon
43
Where does the triceps insert
olecranon
44
What movement in a horse is associated with ulnar fracture
rearing up
45
What is the presentation of a horse with a ulnar fracture
Dropped elbow with carpus in flexion
46
What is likely wrong with this horse
Ulnar fracture after rearing up
47
What's likely wrong with this horse
Ulnar fracture- probably olecranon
48
What splint is used
Modified Robert Jones
49
What tape is used to secure this Modified Robert Jones Splint
2 inch white tape
50
What type of fracture is this
Salter Harris Type I
51
52
If this horse weights less than 250 kg, what repair can be used? If over 250?
Under 250 tension band
Over 250 use plate
53
This is a Salter Harris 1b fracture. What structure is indicated by the black arrow
The anconeal process is fractured and displaced (comminuted)
54
What is this plate called
Hook Plate
55
At what age can screws used to repair fractured olecranon engage the radius
1 year
56
What is an **ORIF** fracture repair
Open Reduction Internal Fixation (ORIF)
57
What is the name for this pathology, and what type of fracture
Common: Slipped Capital physical fracture
Salter Harris I
58
When can a femoral head osteotomy be used in large animals
Never
59
What is the name for this apparatus
Dynamic Hip Screw (DHS)
60
Describe the fracture
Laterally displaced proximal tibial physeal fracture with large metaphyseal fragment
61
What is the device
External coaptation - **Thomas Schroeder Splint**
62
Describe this fracture
Salter Harris II, medially displaced proximal tibia
63
What nerve can be injured during an ORIF repair of a fractured humerus
Radial Nerve
64
Describe fracture
Short oblique mid diaphysis fracture of humerus with over-riding
65
What are the minimum pins needed for a transfixing pin and casting (TPC) application
2 pins per fragment
66
What type of device is indicated by red line
Positive profile centrally threaded Steinman pin
67
What are type 2 external fixators used for fracture rfepair
Pins placed mediolaterally
68
What are type 3 external fixators used for fracture repair
craniocaudal half-pins
69
How many type 2 and how many type 3 fixators are used
4 type 2 that go medial to lateral
2 type 3 that are half-pins and go cranial to caudal
70
What is Lute
a substance like cement for packing a joint or coating a porous surface
71
What is plate luting
Packing cement under a plate to increase bone contact
72
How old should ruminates be before bones are strong enough for fixators
at least 4 months
73
What is stack pinning
using more than one pin in the medullary canal to fix a fracture
74
What is success rate for femoral fracture repair in foal
50%
75
What are the distractive tension sides of the femur for placing plates
cranial and lateral
76
What artery runs in the mandible that should be avoided when placing screws
Palatine artery
77
Why are compression bands needed when doing mandibular plating
Can only plate on the compression tension side of bone. Wire needed to oppose forces
78
What type of pasture predisposes a foal to flexor deformities
Sudan Grass pasture
79
How long does it take for foal to recover from immobilization induce tendon laxity
The same length of time it was immobilized
80
What is the approach for a superior check ligament desmotomy
Just lateral to the chestnut
81
Inferior check ligament desmotomy is a surgical option for what angular limb deformity
flexor deformity of coffin joint- Club foot
82
A. Reticulum
B. Rumen
C. Omasum
D. Abomasum
E. SI
83
T/F
It's normal to find the abomasum caudal to the last rib
True
84
What is the most common treatment for LDA
Right Flank omentopexy
85
A simple abomasal displacement is also called what?
RDA
86
Abomasal volvulus twists in what direction
**Counterclockwise** from behind **and** from the right side
87
How much weight is lost in a cow per day off feed
10 kg
88
What is the preferred surgical option for RDA
Right Flank omentopexy
89
During a R. Flank approach to the abomasum, what would be seen in a **normal** cow
the descending duodenum and omentum. But with RDA they are displaced so only see the serosa of the abomasum in RDA
90
Through what tissue should a purse string in the abomasum to hold a decompression tube be tied
seromuscular layer
91
How should the abomasum be pulled to resolve a RDA
lateroventral and caudally in counterclockwise fashion
92
How do you know you've resolved a RDA using the R. flank approach
You can see the pylorus from your right flank incision
93
Which approaches are used for LDA, but not RDA
L flank abomasopexy
Closed suture or bar technique
94
What is the clinical sign for a cecal problem in a cow
A ping that is only heard in the right paralumbar fossa
95
T/F
Dont use ketamine in head trauma cases
T- contraindicated
96
What muscle is dissected through for trachea approach during tracheostomy procedure
sternothyroid muscle
97
What activity is associated with calvarial fractures in horse
flipping over backward
98
What is blood inside the eye called
Hyphaema
99
100
What fracture
Basilar fracture
101
What is the procedure that uses radiographic contrast to evaluate the nasolacrimal duct called
Dacryocysto-rhinography
102
Dacryocysto-rhinography
radiographic contrast evaluation of the nasolacrimal duct
103
chemosis
swelling of eye conjunctiva
104
swelling of eye conjunctiva
chemosis
105
How much distraction is appropriate for bone lengthening
1 mm per day (0.5 mm BID)
106
What is fractured
Dens of the axis
107
108
What anatomical feature of a horse is indicated by the blue arrow
Curve of Spee
109
How deep are incisor cups?
How fast do cups wear?
6 mm deep
Wear 2 mm/year
110
Which sides of a horse tooth are long? Buccal and lingual
maxillary: buccal side is long
Mandible: lingual side is long
111
In the horse where are points found
points are found on the buccal side of the maxillary teeth and lingual side of the mandibular teeth
112
swale's mouth gag
113
Hausmann mouth gag
114
Which tooth has a hook
PM2 of maxilla
115
At what age does a horse have a full mouth
5 years
116
What tooth has a ramp
M3 of mandible
117
What is a wolf tooth in a horse
rudimentary P1 of the maxilla
118
Molar forceps
119
What are features of dentigerous cyst of horse
congenital abnormality of dental elements in a cyst. may see lesion draining at the base of the ear
120
Epidermal Inclusion Cyst
121
What respiratory noise is made with redundant alar folds
Expiratory noise
122
wry nose
123
From what tissue does ethmoid hematoma arise
the mucosa of the ethmoid turbinates
124
T/F
Ethmoid turbinates can be scoped with a nasal endoscope
F
need trephine hold and use 4 mm arthroscope
125
A. Arytenoids
B. Cricoid
C. Epiglottis
D. Thyroid
126
127
128
129
A. Thyroarytenoideus
B. Arytenoideus
C. Cricoarytenoid dorsalis
D. Cricoarytenoideus
E. Cricothyroideus
130
What grade is normal for a horse's arytenoid
grade 1 is normal
131
Grade 1 equine arytenoids
normal
132
grade 2 equine arytenoids
asynchronous, but can be abduct
133
Grade 3 equine arytenoids
asymmetry at rest, full abduction not achieved
134
grade 4 equine arytenoid
no movement
135
What is another name for laryngoplasty in a horse
Tieback
136
What is the goal and procedure of laryngoplasty surgery in the horse
To tie the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage back toward the dorsal cricoid cartilage. The suture2 (2) lie under the cricopharyngeus muscle.
137
What is the procedure that removes the horse's laryngeal ventricles called
Ventriculectomy (Sacculoectomy)
138
What instrument is used to remove the horses ventricles
Roaring bur
139
What is the procedure for reinnervating the cricoarytenoid muscle
Neuromuscular pedicle graft
140
What is the term for inflammation and thickening of the arytenoid cartilage
Arytenoid chondritis
141
What is left in a partial arytenoidectomy surgery
articular process (muscular process)
142
What is the preferred treatment for arytenoid chondritis
Partial arytenoidectomy - 50% return to race
143
What is the common name for dorsal displacement of the soft palate
choking up
144
What muscle pulls the larynx caudally, and used to be cut for treatment of DDSP
Sternothyroidhyoideus "strap muscle"
145
What is the preferred treatment for DDSP
Laryngeal Tie-forward
146
What is a cause of DDSP that the recommended treatment overcomes
Thyrohyoideus muscle innervation is disturbed and it cont contract to pull the larynx rostrally
147
What structures are engaged in a Laryngeal tie-forward procedure
Thyroid cartilage caudally and basihyoid bone rostrally
148
What is the importance of loose mucosa below the epiglottis
It allows the epiglottis to flip back (resisting entrapped epiglottis)
149
Bistoury- used for epiglottic entrapment
150
what is a common cause for illium impaction in horse
sand
151
where do sand impactions tend to occur in horse
illium
Right Dorsal Colon
152
How much water does a horse drink in a day
5 gallons (19 L)
153
How much does a horse defecate in a day
8-11 piles
154
What eggs are these
strongyle egg
155
What is another name for hepatosplenic entrapment of hosre colon
Left Dorsal Displacemnt
156
A Left Dorsal Displacement can also be called Nephrosplenic entrapment
157
What structure is involved in a Right Dorsal Displacement of horse colon
Pelvic flexure?
158
What aspect of the horse bowel is associated with impaction related to salmonella
Descending colon
159
What pathology is the descending colon of the horse know for
Salmonella
160
What structure joins the L. ventral colon and the L. dorsal colon
Pelvic flexor
161
What equine parasite is this
*Strongylus* *vulgaris*
162
What is the most common tape worm of horses
*Anoplocephala* *perfoliata*
163
What is a common etiology of equine ileocecal intussusception
Tape worm - *Anoplocephala* *perfoliata*
164
Where do Bezoars/Enteroliths tend to cause problems in horses
Transverse colon
165
What are the boundaries of the epiploic Foramen of the horse
Caudate process of liver
Portal vein
Gastropancreatic fold
166
What can predispose a horse to Epiploic Foramen Entrapment (EFE)
Cribbing
167
In which direction do EFE (epiploic foramen entrapments) tend to occur
Left to Right
168
What is a specific complication of EFE (epiploic foramen entrapment) surgery
Portal vein rupture
169
What are the risk factors for large colon torsion in the horse
post parturient mare
new green pasture
170
171
What is the order of the flow for digesta in the horse
SI
Cecum
Right Ventral
Sternal flexor
L Ventral
Pelvic flexor
Left Dorsal
Diaphragmatic flexor
Right Dorsal
Transverse Colon
Descending Colon
Rectum
172
In the horse, Ultrasound is confirmatory diagnostic test for what 4 pathologies
**LDD** (Left Dorsal Displacement)
## Footnote
**SI distention**
**Bowel thickening**
**Free Fluid**
173
What are the FLASH abdominal windows depicted
1. Ventral abdomen
2. Gastric window
3. Splenorenal window
4. Left middle 1/3 (of abdomen)
5. Duodenal Window
6. Right middle 1/3 (abdomen)
7 (T). Cranial Ventral Thorax
174
Using FLASH ultrasound technique, from which side of the horse is the duodenum viewed
Right side- mid thorax
175
Using FLASH ultrasound technique, from which side of the horse is the stomach viewed
Left via the Gastric Window
176
Using FLASH ultrasound technique, which side of the horse is the Spleenorenal window
177
If correctly placed, which side of the neck will a nasogastric tube be palpated
Left- in the esophagus
178
When tubing a horse, when is spontaneous reflux normal
NEVER
179
T/F
The minimum database for colic includes lactate
T
ALso: PCV, CBC/Chem
180
What is the location for abdominocentesis in a horse
4 fingers caudal to xiphoid (most ventral)
Right of midline
181
Equine peritoneal fluid should normal values
WBC: (adult and foal values)
TP:
Lactate:
WBC: adult less than **5000,** foal **1500** /ul
TP: less than 2
Lactate: less than 2
182
What percent of horses with a lactate less than 6 survive colic?
Greater than 7?
less than 6, 90% survive
greater than 7, 30%
183
What is Rompun
Xylazine
184
185
What is Sedivet
Romifidine
186
What opioid do most vets use for colic pain
Butorphanol
187
What is the normal IgG in a foal
800
188
What is the partial failure of passive transfer IgG in foal
600
189
What parasite is an impaction problem in foals
Ascarid
190
What are the dimensions of the foal umbilicus by ultrasound?
Umbilical vein= 1 cm
Umbilical artery = 1.3 cm
urachus and arteries= 2.5 cm
191
Where can the urachus be ultrasounded in the foal
just cranial to the bladder
should be less than 2.5 cm
192
G- organisms are a common umbilical problem in foals. What G+ organism is a common etiology of umbilical infection in foal
*B.* *haemolytic* streptococcus
193
What is top differential for colic in 3 hour old foal
Meconium impaction
194
Top 3 differentials for 2-5 day old foal colic
Ruptured bladder
GI ulcer
Enteritis
195
Where do fillies tend to rupture their bladders
at the urachus
196
What is the maximum horizontal diameter in the Foal
2.5 cm across
197
What is the youngest age to use Xylazine in foal
2 weeks old is the soonest to use xylazine
198
xylazine is not used in foals less than 2 weeks of age, what sedative is used instead
Benzodiazepine- Diazepam (valium)
199
Why should Alpha 2s (xylazine) not be used in foal less than 2 weeks old
the young foal cant adjust stroke volume to adjust for hypotension associated with Alpha 2
200
Ranitidine is the gastric protectant for use in foals, what is the youngest Omeprazole can be used
30 days is the youngest
201
What is the appropriate gastroprotection to use in foals
Ranitidine
202
Where do male foals tend to rupture bladder?
fillie?
male- dorsal aspect of bladder
female- urachal
203
What electrolyte abnormalities are seen in ruptured bladder
Hyperkalemia
Hyponatremia
Hypocalcemia
204
Why do fillies rupture their bladders
secondary to urachal infection
205
a creatinine level of peritoneal fluid higher than serum creatinine suggests what abnormality
Rupture bladder
206
What chemistry abnormality can be found when comparing Serum and abdominocentesis fluids
1:2 Serum:Peritoneal creatinine ratio
207
tremors and arrhythmias are pathognomonic for what chemistry abnormality in foals
Hyperkalemia- greater than 5.5 mEq
208
How can a foal with hyperkalemia be medically stabilized?
Ca++ to protect the heart
Insulin and glucose to drive K+ into cells
209
How many umbilical arteries does the foal have
2
210
What suture is associated with Urolith formation in foals
Dexon
211
What Ascaris is associated with foal impaction
*Parascaris* *equorum*
212
A. Intussuscipien
B. Intussusceptum
213
What is a risk factor to illiocecocolic intussusception in the horse
Tape worms
214
Why is Ca++ given to horses with hyperkalemia
Cardioprotective
215
What 7 aspects of the GI can not be exteriorized
Stomach
Duodenum
Distal Ileum
Base of cecum
Distal RDC
Transverse colon
Terminal small colon
216
What aspect of the intestinal tract is seen first during cystocentesis
Sparky (the cecum)
217
Why can't the duodenum be exteriorized during abdominal cystocentesis
It is fixed to the dorsal abdominal wall by the duodenocolic ligament
218
How many L isotonic saline must follow 1 L hypertonic saline
10 L iso for each 1 hyper
219
Gross visual assessment of tisue is 54% accurate. What is the gold standard
Histopathology
220
What are the maintenance requirements for fluids in the equine
50 ml/kg/hr (1L/hr)
221
How many L/hr of fluids does a horse need for maintenance
1 L/hr
222
What is a common electrolyte abnormality in the horse post colic surgery
**hypomagnesemia** - leads to hypocalcemia
223
What is the maximum K+ that can be given
0.5 mEq/kg/hr
224
Reasonable indicators that fluid therapy post colic surgery is "good enough"
HR
PCV
TP
HR \<80
PCV \<50%
TP\>4.1
225
What is the most common treatment for POI (post-op ileus)
Lidocaine
226
What fluid type is commonly used after colic surgery, and why
colloids commonly used due to endotoxemia associated protein loss
227
What is the endotoxemia management dose of flunixin meglumine
1/4 dose is endotoxemia dose
228
What is Biosponge (DTO) used for
Biosponge (Dr-tri-octhahedral) is pumped into colon to bind endo and entero toxins
229
What antibiotic also binds lipid A
Polymyxin B binds endotoxin
230
What is the prognostic indicator for POI after colic surgery
Hyperglycemia
231
What is the most common lesion leading to POI
strangulating SI
232
3 prokinetic agents for use in the post-op colic horse
**Lidocaine**
Metoclopramide
Erythromycin
233
What direct action does Lidocaine have as a pro-kinetic
Directly stimulates smooth muscle
234
What clinical signs are seen with lidocaine toxicity in the horse
muscle fasciculations, ataxia, **seizure**
235
If POI (post-op illius) is refractory to lidocaine, what is the next therapy to use in the horse
metoclopramide
236
Two treatments for POI in the horse are Lidocaine and Metoclopramide. Both cause seizures, but there is a difference. What is the difference
Metoclopramide can cause seizures at normal dose
237
What are the extrapyramidal effects of metoclopramide
Excitement, restlessness, sweating, SEIZURE
238
Post colic surgery the incisional infection complication rate is up to 37%. What is the most common negative sequelae to incisional infection
Incisional hernia
239
How long after a colic surgery related incisional hernia should the defect be fixed
3 months minimum
240
#1 and #2 reason for repeat colic surgery in horse
#1- POI
#2- Adhesions
241
What is Carboxy Methly Cellulose (Belly Jelly) used for
Adhesion prevention post colic surgery
242
What is the post colic surgery mortality rate for horses that get septic peritonitis
56%
243
What Serum-peritoneal glucose difference is diagnostic for peritonitis
Serum lower than peritoneal by 50 mg/dL
244
Serum glucose lower than peritoneal by 50 mg/dL is diagnostic of peritonitis in the horse. What other abnormality would be seen in a horse with peritonitis and glucose difference of 30 mg/dL
peritoneal pH less than 7.2 and glucose difference of 30 = peritonitis
245
What pH and serum-peritoneal glucose difference are diagnostic for peritonitis
glucose difference of 30 mg/dL
with
pH \> 7.2
246
How much is the risk of laminitis increased in a horse with endotoxemia
5X
247
What is the most common hernia in the horse
**Indirect (True)** **inguinal** **hernia** is most common in horses
248
How should Standardbreds be castrated
Closed castration due to increase breed disposition for inguinal hernia and intestinal eventration
249
What is the usual type of hernia seen with the equine inguinal hernia
true indirect (without a tear)
250
Which structures are most commonly herniated in a horse
ileum and distal jejunum
251
What structure attaches the vaginal sac to the scrotum
scrotal ligament
252
A non-reducible, firm hernia in a foal is suggestive of what pathology
**Richter hernia** (antimesenteric ileum incarceration)
253
With out treatment what is a bad sequelae to a Richter hernia
Enterocutaneous fistula of the ileum
254
Another name for a parietal umbilical hernia in a foal
Richter hernia
255
What are the features of an umbilical hernia that can be managed conservatively
less than 5 cm
reducible
foal younger than 4 months
256
What is the preferred surgical treatment of foal umbilical hernia
Open herniorrhaphy
257
What is an umbilical infection called
omphalitis
258
What is the most common birth defect in cattle
Uncomplicated umbilical hernia- tend to contain abomasum
259
T/F
Uncomplicated umbilical hernias in calves often contain abomasum
T
260
What structure is most commonly involved in umbilical infection of calves
Urachus
261
What is an infection of a calves umbilical vein called
Omphalophlebitis
262
An epiglottis in a horse is graded as 1, what does this mean
normal
263
What are the 4 guttural pouch approaches
Hyovertebrotomy
Viborg's triangle
Whitehouse
Modified White House
264
Guttural Pouch Approaches
A. Hyovertebrotomy
B. Viborg
C. Modified Whitehouse
D. Whitehouse
265
What are the margins of Viborg's triangle approach to guttural pouch
Sternomandibular muscle
linguofacial vein
Caudal border of the verticle ramus of mandible
266
Which guttural pouch approach is ventral to linguofacial vein
Modified Whitehouse
267
What is pus in the guttural pouch called
Empyema
268
What nerves are located around the guttural pouch
9, 10, 11, 12
269
What is the importance of performing an angiogram prior to occluding vessels before gutteral pouch mycosis therapy
need to determine where the occipital artery diverges- anatomical differences
270
What is the common term for vulvoplasty
Caslick's operation
271
What suture pattern is used for a Caslick's procedure
Vertical mattress
272
What is the procedure of opening a Caslick's called
Episiotomy
273
Which reproductive surgery of the mare does not result in a decrease in vulvar or vestibular opening size
Perineal body transection
274
What is another name for urine pooling in the mare
Vesicovaginal reflux (VVR)
275
The surgery that provides caudal relocation of the transverse fold is called what?
vaginoplasty
276
What are the 4 techniques for urethroplasty (Caudal urethral extension)
**Brown**
**McKinnon**- Austraila
**Shire**- former Dean
**Monin**
277
Which urethroplasty uses mucosa to mucosa contact
Shire's technique
278
T/F
Asymptomatic carriers of salmonella are common in swine
T
279
What are the 2 most common etiologies of salmonellosis in swine
* S.* *choerasuis*
* S.* *typhimurium*
280
What are the 2 host adapted Salmonella strains
* S.* *cholerasuis*
* S.* *typhisuis*
281
Salmonella disease is not common in pigs, but when it does occur, what age groups are effected.
Weaned/growing
282
Where do asymptomatic swine harbor Salmonella
tonsils,
intestine,
lymph nodes,
gal bladder
283
Rodents and Birds are important disseminators of what cause of diarrhea in swine
Salmonella
284
What Salmonella is not host adapted to swine
*S.* *typhimurium*
285
What is the morbidity and mortality of S*almonella* *cholerasuis* in swine
morbidity low
mortality high (in sick)
286
T/F hyperthermia is associated with Salmonella of swine
T- up to 107 F
287
What causes **septicemic** salmonellosis
*S.* *cholerasuis*
288
What causes enterocolitic salmonellosis
*S.* *typhimurium*
289
What is the etiology of blood, fibrin and mucus in diarrhea of pigs
*Salmonella typhimurium*
290
How is Salmonellosis diagnosed in swine
culture
291
Which form and etiology of salmonellosis in swine require parenteral treatment
Septicemic (*S.* *cholerasuis*)
292
T/F
Salmonella can cause cyanotic ears in swine
T
293
What is the etiology of Porcine Proliferative Enteritis in swine
*Lawsonia* *intracellularis*
294
3 names of the disease caused by *Lawsonia* *intracellularis*
Ileitis
Intesrinal adenomatosis
Porcine proliferative enteritis
295
PPE (Porcine Proliferative Enteritis) is an enteric disease characterized by hyperplasia of what tissue
crypt enterocytes
296
What stage life is PPE (Porcine Proliferative Enteritis) seen in swine
usually during grower stage
297
T/F
The carrier phase of PPE (*Lawsonia* *intracellularis*) is long
T
As is the incubation and recovery
298
T/F
Carrier sows can infect their litter with *Lawsonia* *intracellularis* as early as 6 days
T
299
T/F
Infection with *Lawsonia* *intracellyularis* is often subclinical
T
300
301
302
What percentage of horses have communication between the Femoropatellar Joint and the MFT
60-65%
303
What % of horses have communication between the Femoropatellar joint and the LFT
1-25%
304
What toxin and associated disease causes gangrenous soughing of tails ears and hooves in swine
Claviceps purpurea fungus
Ergotism
305
What disease related to a toxin inhibits mammary development
Ergotism
