fifth Flashcards

1
Q

which antibiotic leads to tendinopathy ?

A

Ciprofloxacin

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2
Q

should never be prescribed with methotrexate

A

Co-trimoxazole contains trimethoprim

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3
Q

had a full course of tetanus vaccines, with the last dose < 10 years ago

A

no vaccine nor tetanus immunoglobulin is required, regardless of the wound severity

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4
Q

full course of tetanus vaccines, with the last dose > 10 years ago

A

if tetanus prone wound: reinforcing dose of vaccine

high-risk wounds (e.g. compound fractures, delayed surgical intervention, significant degree of devitalised tissue): reinforcing dose of vaccine + tetanus immunoglobulin

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5
Q

If vaccination history is incomplete or unknown for tetanus

A

reinforcing dose of vaccine, regardless of the wound severity

for tetanus prone and high-risk wounds: reinforcing dose of vaccine + tetanus immunoglobulin

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6
Q

Indications for aortic endovascular stenting include in dissection ?

A

Rapidly expanding dissections (>1cm per year)
Critical diameter (>5.5cm)
Refractory pain
Malperfusion syndrome
Blunt chest trauma
Penetrating aortic ulcers

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7
Q

thyroid cancer TX ?

A

any lump greater than 1cm in size or has any signs of metastatic spread should undergo thyroidectomy instead of a lobectomy

thyroid lumps greater than 4cm in diameter regardless of extrathyroid disease; those with lumps between 1 and 4cm in diameter and extra-thyroid disease; and all with high-risk histology such as aggressive histological subtypes benefit from radioiodine ablation

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8
Q

known cirrhosis the management of varices

A

No varices
Rescope 2-3 years

Grade 1 varices
Rescope 1 year

Grade 2 or 3 varices or signs of bleeding
Non-cardio selective beta blocker

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9
Q

sympathetic or parasympathetic for trochlear or occulosmotr ?

A

surgical causes of third nerve palsy (eg the above, or a tumour - posterior communicating artery aneurysm
fixed dilated or sluggish pupil indicates that the parasympathetic fibres have been wiped out (eg by external compression from an aneurysm or tumour), leaving unopposed sympathetic tract flow within this nerve (dilating the pupil).

medical causes, eg diabetes or vasculitis
The blood supply to the nerve is within its internal portion, meaning medical causes like diabetes or vasculitis wipe out the sympathetic portion of the nerve, leaving unopposed parasympathetic flow and consequently a constricted pupil.

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10
Q

MELAS and CADASIL difference

A

MEALS : short stature,
recurrent migraines,
vomiting,
muscle weakness,
seizures and then
development of multiple strokes at an early age (normally before 40 for diagnosis to be considered) along with progressive dementia.

!!!!!!There is also a raised lactic acid level in the blood and skeletal muscle biopsy will show ragged red fibres

CADASIL would also present with migraines and stroke at an early age, lactic acidosis is not a feature and subcortical infarct would be more typical

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11
Q

CAH features

A

21- hydroxylase: 1 at back only so: no HTN, only virilisation
11-hydroxylase: 1 in both front and back- so both HTN and virilisation
17- only 1 in front- so only HTN,no virilisation

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12
Q

gastric carcinoma tx ?

3 cm ulcer in the body of the stomach. with penetration of the tumour into the subserosal connective tissue.

enlargement of the right and left gastro-epiploic lymph nodes

A

T3N1M0 gastric carcinoma (Stage IIB disease). Standard of care within the UK for stage II / III disease would be for neoadjuvant chemotherapy prior to radical surgery

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13
Q

Appropriate treatment of Pseudomonas positive bronchiectasis failing to respond to ciprofloxacin

A

IV tazocin, ceftazidime, aztreonam or meropenem

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14
Q

difference in ecg between brugada and arrythmogenic right

A

Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy
V1-3, typically T wave inversion. An epsilon wave is a terminal notch in the QRS

convex ST segment elevation > 2mm in > 1 of V1-V3 followed by a negative T wave

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15
Q

3 groups of patients that tend to benefit from r lung volume reduction surgery in emphysema ?

A

Upper lobe emphysema and low exercise capacity

predominantly upper lobe emphysema and high exercise capacity.

non-upper lobe emphysema and low exercise capacity

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16
Q

Porphyria’s

A

Neurovisceral only====

Acute intermittent porphyria (AIP)
- autosomal dominant
- defect in porphobilinogen deaminase
-abdominal symptoms, -neuropsychiatric symptoms
hypertension and tachycardia common
-urine turns deep red on standing

Aminolaevulinic acid dehydrogenase porphyria

JUST PHOTOSENSITIVE ====
Porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT)
defect in uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase
classically photosensitive rash with bullae, skin fragility on face and dorsal aspect of hands
urine: elevated uroporphyrinogen and pink fluorescence of urine under Wood’s lamp
manage with chloroquine

Congenital erythropoietic porphyria

Erythropoietic protoporphyria

========
BOTH

Variegate porphyria
autosomal dominant
defect in protoporphyrinogen oxidase
photosensitive blistering rash
abdominal and neurological symptoms
more common in South Africans

Hereditary coproporphyria

17
Q

Early diastolic murmur is not just aortic regurgitation can also be ?

A

Pulmonary hypertension
Pulmonary regurgitation
Graham steel murmur

18
Q

Lithium features of toxicity

A

coarse tremor (a fine tremor is seen in therapeutic levels)
hyperreflexia
acute confusion
polyuria
seizure
coma

Dialysis indication
A lithium concentration greater than 5.0 mmol/L in patients with acute lithium overdose and who are not prescribed lithium

A lithium concentration greater than 2.5 mmol/L in patients with chronic poisoning

19
Q

thyroid nodules follow up

A

TSH normal/elevated → Thyroid USS → Suspicious features → FNA cytology

TSH suppressed → Thyroid uptake scan → Cold/iso nodule → FNA cytology

TSH suppressed → Thyroid uptake scan →Hot nodule → No FNA required

20
Q

Which diabetic medication causes pancreatitis ?

A

GLP1!!!!!! Liraglutide

21
Q

Endocarditis prophylaxis given to ?

A

HCOM

22
Q

exacerbate myasthenia

A

Magnesium
Penicillamine
Quinidine
Procainamide
Beta-blockers
Lithium
Phenytoin
Antibiotics: gentamicin, macrolides, quinolones, tetracyclines

23
Q

Anaerobic bacteria caused by aspiration

A

Bacteroides
Prevotella
Fusobacterium
Peptostreptococcus

24
Q

Diagnostics used for phaeochromocyta?

A

MIBG scan - radioactive iodine as a tracer

25
Q

Diagnostic for medullary carcinoma in MEN 2

A

Pentagastrin stimulation test

one injects the patient with pentagastrin and looks for an abnormally high release of calcitonin as a response, is not a suitable first test

26
Q

carcinoid syndrome doesn’t present with these symptoms until it has metastasised to

A

liver

27
Q

Consumed weedkillers and insecticides - Paraquat poisoning

A

pupils are pinpoint and poorly reactive
Tender abdomen

28
Q

Paraquat poisoning diagnosis

A

colour change noted after the addition of a dithionite solution

29
Q

Zika virus and pregnancy

A

avoid becoming pregnant while travelling in an area with active Zika virus transmission, and for 8 weeks after their return

30
Q

gram positive rods ?

A

ABCDL
acintomyces
bacillus anthracis
clostridium , corynebacterium
diphtheria
listeria

31
Q
A