second Flashcards

1
Q

MS in pregnancy - reduced flare through pregnancy , then 3-6 months post party increases then goes to pre pregnancy levels of flare ,
what increases flare up unlike other autoimmune diseases ?

A

pregnancy increases the likelihood of a lupus flare. It is essential that a patients lupus is well controlled and quiescent for at least six months prior to pregnancy. Given that mycophenolate is teratogenic in pregnancy, it must be stopped. It is common practice to change to azathioprine,

hydroxychloroquine - is safe during pregnancy

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2
Q

In patients who do not undergo HBeAg seroconversion or who relapse what is given

A

pegylated interferon-alpha

tenofovir disoproxil is second line

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3
Q

Domperidone test:

A

Hyperprolactinemia and macroplolactinemia

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4
Q

IGF-1 test + Glucose tolerance test

A

Acromegaly

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5
Q

Insulin Tolerance test

A

Growth hormone deficiency

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6
Q

Arginine- GHRH stimulation test

A

Growth hormone deficiency for cardiac patients

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7
Q

Examples of anaerobic bacteria include for aspiration pneumonia

A

Bacteroides
Prevotella
Fusobacterium
Peptostreptococcs

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8
Q

Features suggesting restrictive cardiomyopathy rather than constrictive pericarditis

A

prominent apical pulse

absence of pericardial calcification on CXR
the heart may be enlarged

ECG abnormalities e.g. bundle branch block, Q waves,LVH

Two-dimensional and Doppler echocardiography can determine diastolic dysfunction and distinguish restrictive cardiomyopathy from restrictive physiology due to constrictive pericarditis. Normal ventricular size and systolic function usually are evident in cases of restrictive cardiomyopathy.

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9
Q

Theophylline poisoning presentation

A

hypokalaemia,
hyperglycaemia,
tachycardia and increased myocardial contractility

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10
Q

Pregnancy Causes what to thyroid levels

A

Raised total T4/T3

normal free T4 and T3

and would not suppress TSH

High amount of thyroid binding globulin

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11
Q

For Myxedema coma tx ?

A

give T3 (liothyronine) 5-20mcg/4-12h IV until sustained improvement (2-3d) then levothyroxine 50mcg/24h

IV steroids - until coexisting adrenal insufficiency has been excluded

Iv fluids

iv glucose

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12
Q

onchocerciasis presentation ?

A

adult worm lives in subcutaneous nodules and produces larvae, which become deposited in the skin and eyes

= clouding of both corneas

=pruritic rash and formation of a leopard-skin

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13
Q

onchocerciasis dx?

A

visualised by microscopy of skin snip

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14
Q

onchocerciasis tx and WHAT treatment should not be used ?

A

treatment of choice is ivermectin;

DEC should not be used because rapid death of the worms can exacerbate damage to surround tissues and even cause complete blindness.

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15
Q

Merkel cell carcinoma tx ?

A

often red or violet in colour and may initially be mistaken for other skin conditions such as a cyst or folliculitis.

cells are very close to nerve endings and help the skin sense light touch.

small round blue cells that can resemble small cell lung cancer or lymphoma

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16
Q

Vemurafenib and dabrafenib are selective BRAF inhibitors that increase overall survival in metastatic melanoma. These drugs paradoxically activates the MAPK pathway in keratinocytes and so can cause

A

squamous cell carcinomas, often within the first three months of therapy. The risk of squamous cell carcinoma with vemurafenib and dabrafenib is higher in older patients and they can occur in sun-protected sites.

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17
Q

True universal dOnar

A

O-ve

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18
Q

True universal recipient

A

AB+ve

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19
Q

absolute contraindications for renal transplant ?

A

active malignancy,

chronic infection,

overt proteinuria,

bilateral renal artery
atherosclerosis

sickle cell disease.

failure of three agents to control his blood pressure

peritoneal dialysis is the renal replacement therapy that would be in keeping with his wish of ‘least lifestyle-restricting’ option, his previous history of laparotomy and unrepaired abdominal hernia are contraindications

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20
Q

In individuals with extremes of muscle mass, estimated GFR calculations based on creatinine levels need to be interpreted with caution alternative marker of kidney function used to estimate glomerular filtration rate is?

A

cystatin C,

measurement of cystatin C in individuals with an eGFRcreatinine of 45-59 sustained for at least 90 days and no albuminuria (albumin:creatinine ratio < 3 mg / mmol) or another marker of kidney disease.

NICE guidance states that chronic kidney disease should not be diagnosed in individuals with eGFR creatinine of 45-59 ml and no other marker of kidney disease if eGFR cystatinC is greater than 60 ml / min / 1.73 m2.

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21
Q

testosterone use ?

A

In healthy males, the testosterone:epitestosterone ratio is typically 1:1.

However, exogenous administration of testosterone does not increase levels of epitestosterone, so anabolic steroid use is associated with an increase in the testosterone:epitestosterone ratio (typically to greater than 4:1)

testosterone is promoted by the release of the gonadotropins luteinising hormone and follicle stimulating hormone by the pituitary gland
low lh and FSH

22
Q

irreversible testosterone use ?

A

Clitoral growth, facial hair growth, voice changes and
male-pattern baldness

23
Q

TB diagnosis ?

A

Mantoux test
6-15 = positive
previous TB infection or BCG

> 15mm
Suggests tuberculosis infection.

False negative tests may be caused by:
miliary TB
sarcoidosis
HIV
lymphoma
very young age

===========
positive IGRA indicate
active or latent TB

24
Q

what is malignant middle cerebral artery (MCA) syndrome

A

After infarction the brain swells

less room for expansion. Subsequently, intracranial hypertension develops. This typically presents 48 hours after onset of stroke with reduced conscious level

urgent decompressive craniotomy = tx

25
Q

listeria meningitis

A

significant proportion of lymphocytes may be in CSF (>25%), instead of predominant neutrophilia. These include TB, rickettsial and cryptococcal meningitis

Only one-third of listeria meningitis patients are likely to grow an organism on Gram stain

Any meningitis in immunocompromised, >50 years or < 2 years should be covered for listeria = ampicillin

26
Q

Adults with cirrhosis should be screened for hepatocellular carcinoma by ultrasound (with or without measurement of serum alpha€‘fetoprotein) every

A

6 months

27
Q

Alport’s patient with a failing renal transplant. This may be caused by the presence of?

A

anti-GBM antibodies leading to a Goodpasture’s syndrome like picture

28
Q

conditions that reoccur in renal transplantation is vital

A

Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis/ mesangiocapillary

igA

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

Membranous glomerulonephritis

29
Q

renal conditions that reoccur most ?

A

Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (notably type II) reoccurs in 80-100% of cases. This is lower in type I.

IgA reoccurs in up to around 60% of patients.

FSGS reoccurs in up to around 50% of patients.

30
Q

methaemoglobin producing drugs ?

A

sulphasalazine, dapsone,
ribavirin and poisoning with paraquat

31
Q

pulmonary eosinophilia types

A

Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
recurrent episodes of eosinophilic pneumonia
dx - recipitating antibodies to Aspergillus species
skin-prick test can be ordered and almost always positive to Aspergillus fumigates. Management is with steroids.

Loeffler’s syndrome. This is caused by Ascaris lumbricoides, Strongyloides, or Ancylostoma
condition is self-limmiting although mebendazole given for 3 days can help.

Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia: caused by the roundworms Wuchereria bancrofti or Brugia malayi, common in the Asian Subcontinent and Africa. The worms are spread via a mosquito vector.
paroxysmal nocturnal cough, wheeze, and breathlessness
Diagnosis is aided by a clinical response to diethylcarbamazine, which is also the main treatment.

32
Q

Rigler’s triad’ of Gallstone ileus

A

pneumobilia (air within the biliary tree)
2. evidence of small bowel obstruction
3. radiopaque gallstone on abdominal radiograph

33
Q

The normal range = 10-18 mmol/L

Normal anion gap ( = hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis)

A

gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss:

prolonged diarrhoea: may also result in hypokalaemia
ureterosigmoidostomy
fistula

renal tubular acidosis - type 1 and 2

drugs: e.g. acetazolamide
ammonium chloride injection
Addison’s disease

Aggressive tx with N saline

34
Q

HIGH anion gap

A

lactate:
shock
sepsis
hypoxia

ketones:
diabetic ketoacidosis

alcohol
methanol

urate: renal failure

acid poisoning: salicylates,

paracetamol

ethylene glycol poisoning

Methanol
Uraemia (renal failure)
Diabetic ketoacidosis
Paracetamol use (chronic)
Isoniazid
Lactate
Ethanol or propylene glycol
Salicylates

35
Q

First line for vomiting in pregnancy

A

antihistamines: oral cyclizine or promethazine
phenothiazines: oral prochlorperazine or chlorpromazine
combination drug doxylamine/pyridoxine: pyridoxine (vitamin B6) monotherapy is actually used commonly outside of the UK

Second : ondansterone

36
Q

differentiate between amoebic abcess and over cyst and different treatment ?

A

Amoebic abscesses- usually single mass in the right lobe,
may be multiple cysts- less common.
amoebic abscesses typically have a fever
tx - metronidazole

hyatid
multiple hepatic cysts.
The ultrasound showed ‘sand sign’, debris within the cyst moving freely
CT scan sister cysts.
tx - surgery albendazole

37
Q

contra for liver needle biopsy ?

A

Contraindications to percutaneous liver biopsy
deranged clotting (e.g. INR > 1.4)
low platelets (e.g. < 60 * 109/l)
anaemia
extrahepatic biliary obstruction
hydatid cyst !!!!!!!
haemoangioma
uncooperative patient
ascites

38
Q

treat post-transfusion purpura

A

High dose immunoglobulin

39
Q

Type 1 RTA (distal) causes

A

idiopathic, rheumatoid arthritis, SLE, Sjogren’s, amphotericin B toxicity, analgesic nephropathy

40
Q

type 2 RTA proximal ?

A

f Fanconi syndrome, Wilson’s disease, cystinosis, outdated tetracyclines, carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (acetazolamide, topiramate)

41
Q

bronchopleural fistula vs chest dian out ?

A

coughing in bronchopulmonary fistula causes more bubbling

42
Q

inclusion body myositis features ?

A

older males
CK is raised
Normal sensations and intact deep tendon reflexes
quadriceps and finger/wrist flexors weakness
involvement of both proximal and distal muscles

43
Q

biopsy show absent dystrophin proteins. ?

A

diagnosis of Duchenne muscle dystrophy

progressive proximal muscle weakness from 5 years
calf pseudohypertrophy
Gower’s sign: child uses arms to stand up from a squatted position
30% of patients have intellectual impairment

44
Q

lichen planus precipitated by ?

A

bisoprolol has precipitated it
as can thiazide diuretics and anti-malarial drugs.

Cutaneous lesions can take up to a year to fully heal and oral lesions can take much longer, with many requiring oral steroids and topical calcineurin inhibitors.

45
Q

starting carbimazole, it is very important to ensure the patient is aware of the risk of ?

A

agranulocytosis,

also important to warn about liver dysfunction which may develop and may necessitate stopping the treatment

46
Q

radionuclide thyroid uptake scan can help determine the cause

A

Graves’ disease there is diffuse high uptake,
in thyroiditis there is low uptake, and if there are nodules then there is uneven uptake

47
Q

multifocal motor neuropathy presentation ?

A

Acquired autoimmune demyelinating motor neuropathy

Anti-GM1

asymmetric muscle weakness, which is slowly progressive,
without sensory signs.

Differential weakness of finger extension is a typical presentation = reflects selectively affecting particular motor fibres within a peripheral nerve (in this case the posterior interosseous branch of the radial nerve).

Weakness without wasting is another typical feature.

Nerve conduction studies show areas of conduction block outside usual areas for compression.

Intravenous immunoglobulin can produce a rapid improvement in weakness.

48
Q

multifocal motor neuropathy vs Motor neurone disease

A

common
- both have fasciculation!!!!
absence of sensory signs/symptoms
relatively preserved reflexes
bulbar weakness is common in MND but rare in MMN

different
- MMN slowly progressive takes years whilst

MND is quick and can cause respiratory failure
MND - wasting of the small hand muscles/tibialis anterior is common whilst in MMN not common

MMN purely lower motor -

MND can be upper or lower
LMN - muscle atrophy, fasciculations (muscle twitching), decreased reflexes, decreased tone, negative Babinsky sign, and flaccid paralysis.

( UMN weakness, spasticity, clonus, and hyperreflexia)

49
Q

Idiopathic intracranial hypertension precipitating drugs ?

A

levothyroxine
tetracycline
lithium
cimetidine

50
Q

Thyrotrophin receptor stimulating antibodies should be checked in hyperthyroidism at what gestation ?

A

36 weeks pregnant , as this can cause thyroid problems for the baby

THYROID stimulating antibiotics checked before pregnancy even if euthyroid ( normal TSH and T4) - as thyroid stimulating antibodies can cross the placenta

51
Q

Examples of anaerobic bacteria include

A

Bacteroides
Prevotella
Fusobacterium
Peptostreptococcus