Final Flashcards
1
Q
Which of the following is not an element of Nonspecific Immunity?
A
Lymphocytes
2
Q
Common blood tests will determine that an animal has cancer.
A
False
3
Q
With active immunity, antibodies formed in one animal are transferred to another animal.
A
False
4
Q
The type of white blood cell which produces antibodies is a ______________.
A
Plasma cell
5
Q
Where do T-cells “go to college”?
A
Thymus
6
Q
Which type of white blood cells is most commonly found within an acute inflammatory response and ingests foreign material through phagocytosis?
A
Neutrophils
7
Q
With passive immunity, antibodies formed in one animal are transferred to another anima
A
True
8
Q
What may be done to reduce an animal’s risk for developing cancer?
A
Maintaining them at a healthy weight
9
Q
The thymus usually increases in size as an animal ages until death.
A
False
10
Q
What is not a characteristic sign of inflammation?
A
wetness
11
Q
Which of the following is not a typical symptom of cancer?
A
Overall weight gain
12
Q
What type of immunity occurs when an animal’s own immune system encounters a pathogen and responds by producing an immune response?
A
Active immunity
13
Q
Antigen binding sites are not a part of an immunoglobulin.
A
False
14
Q
Blood flow through a patent ductus arteriosus in a two-week old puppy is most commonly:
A
From the aorta to the pulmonary artery
15
Q
Which of the following is not one of the diagnostic tests used when evaluating the cardiovascular system?
A
Laparoscopy
16
Q
In the fetus, the foramen ovale allows blood to bypass the lungs by flowing:
A
from the right atrium to the left atrium
17
Q
The prepatency period for heartworms in dogs is roughly __________?
A
6-8 months
18
Q
Which of the following is a diuretic, frequently used to reduce the circulatory blood volume:
A
Furosemide
19
Q
Features of atrial fibrillation include all of the following EXCEPT:
A
A slow heart rate
20
Q
Which of the following drugs is an example of an ACE inhibitor, frequently used for vasodilation in patients with congestive heart failure:
A
Enalapril
21
Q
Which animal is most likely to be infected with canine heartworms, Dirofilaria immitis
A
Middle-age, male, outdoor dog
22
Q
The “lub” heart sound is caused by:
A
The closing of the artioventricular valves
23
Q
The most common cardiac disease of the cat is:
A
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
24
Q
Two of the more common types of cardiac neoplasms that dogs get are:
A
hemangiosarcoma and chemodectoma
25
Endocardiosis, or degenerative valvular disease, in dogs most commonly affects the:
Left atrioventricular valve
26
Cats with thromboembolism most often present with all of the following EXCEPT:
Bounding pulses
27
The intermediate host for Dirofilaria immitis is the:
Mosquito
28
You should advise clients that it is alright to leave pets in a vehicle on a hot day as long as the windows are cracked open a little bit.
False
29
Hypovolemia means
There is a decreased amount of fluid in the vascular system
30
A persistent right aortic arch most commonly results in:
Megaesophagus
31
Cats are equally as likely to get heartworms as dogs?
False
32
A dietary deficiency that has been associated with dilated cardiomyopathy in cats is:
Taurine deficiency
33
Two of the most common causes of hypertension in cats are:
Renal disease and hyperthyroidism
34
The "dub" heart sound is caused by:
The closing of the semilunar valves
35
Which blood vessel carries oxygenated blood
Pulmonary vein
36
Which of the following statements about heartworm disease is true
Sudden death can occur in infected cats
37
The characteristic murmur of a patent ductus arteriosus is described as:
Washing machine (machinery)
38
Blood backing up within the arteries will increase blood pressure
True
39
Common medications used to treat intestinal roundworms and hookworms include:
Fenbendazole and pyrantel pamoate
40
Other than the tapeworm, what intestinal parasite may be seen with the naked eye?
Roundworm
41
Feline panleukopenia virus is closely related to what other virus?
Canine parvovirus
42
A laboratory examination of a patient with diarrhea should always include _________.
a fecal examination for intestinal parasites.
43
Gingivitis is a reversible disease
True
44
Diet changes should be made __________.
Gradually, over the course of a week.
45
Esophagitis can be best visualized using ________.
Endoscopy
46
What enzyme breaks down carbohydrates in the digestive tract?
Amylase
47
Two enzymes which are secreted by the stomach to aid in digestion are _________.
Hydrochloric acid and pepsinogen
48
A distended, gas filled stomach, with a gas filled pylorus displaced dorsally and cranially to the fundus, in a large breed dog with non-productive retching, is most likely caused by _________.
gastric dilatation and volvulus
49
An essential component of pancreatitis treatment is
pain control
50
An examination of what is needed to confirm canine parvovirus diagnosis?
feces
51
IBD in dogs can inhibit the absorption of nutrients.
True
52
Which of the following statements is true?
The distal portion of the esophagus in cats contains smooth muscle.
53
An increased trypsin-like immunoreactivity (TLI) test indicates dysfunction of the __________?
Pancreas
54
How is canine parvovirus typically spread?
fecal-oral route
55
An intussusception is best described as __________.
one portion of the intestine telescoping into an adjacent portion of the intestine
56
What is a typical presentation of a dog with pancreatitis?
History of dietary indiscretion or a high fat meal with subsequent anorexia, lethargy, vomiting, dehydration, and abdominal pain.
57
Puppies are typically vaccinated against parvo...
Every 3-4 weeks starting at 6-8 weeks of age
58
Which pancreatic marker can best evaluate both pancreatitis and exocrine pancreatic insufficiency?
Trypsin-like immunoreactivity (TLI)
59
Normal function of the liver include all of the following except _________.
removing carbon dioxide and adding oxygen to red blood cells
60
There is a cure for feline inflammatory bowel disease.
False
61
Chyle filled lacteals and intestinal lymphatics are features of ______________.
Intestinal lymphangectasia
62
Gastric dilatation and volvulus is most commonly a disease of _________.
large and giant breed dogs
63
Pancreatitis is caused by _________________.
diets high in fat
64
There are many treatments available for progressive retinal atrophy.
False
65
Which of the following is not a possible cause of Cushing's disease:
Iatorgenic caused by prolonged nephrotoxic antibiotic use
66
Patients can have low thyroid hormone levels due to medications or non-thyroidal illnesses (euthyroid sick syndrome).
True
67
Treatments for hyperadrenocorticism include:
lysodren, trilostane, or adrenalectomy
68
Glucose cannot be transferred from the bloodstream to the body's cells without what hormone?
Insulin
69
T4 and fT4 levels in a dog with hypothyroidism will most likely be ________________.
lower than normal
70
Which of the following conditions will not cause mucopurulent discharge from the eye?
Progressive retinal atrophy
71
An older cat with dramatic weight loss, polyphagia, hyperactivity, and excessive grooming would likely have which of the following conditions:
hyperthyroidism
72
Pannus is thought to have a(n) _______________ etiology
immune-mediated
73
What is another name for keratoconjunctivitis sicca?
Dry eye
74
What is the best description of an indolent corneal ulcer
superficial ulcer which fails to heal
75
Dogs with primary hyperparathyroidism most often have ______________.
no clinical signs
76
Which of the following statements regarding epiphora is false?
Treatment is reliant on identifying and correcting the primary cause.
77
Treatments for feline hyperthyroidism include:
methimazaole, radioactive iodine, surgery, and dietary
78
Which is NOT a symptom of diabetes?
Increased activity level
79
Central diabetes insipidus is characterized by
A decrease in the production of ADH
80
Hyperadrenocorticism, or Cushing's disease, is caused by
an increase in cortisol production by the adrenal glands
81
What type of dog is most likely to present with hypoadrenocorticism?
middle aged females
82
With entropion, the eyelids would tend to:
Roll inward toward the cornea
83
What instrument is used to measure IOP
tonometer
84
Detection of ketones in the blood and urine of a dog with diabetes is _____________.
indicative of diabetic ketoacidosis
85
A grey opacity visible through the pupillary opening is seen with ___________.
cataracts
86
If a cat presents with PU, PD, PP and its hocks are dragging on the exam table (plantigrade stance) while the cat walks around, what disease would you be most suspicious of?
Diabetes Mellitus
87
Hypothyroidism is more prevalent in __________________
middle aged female dogs
88
What is not a sign of diabetes mellitus in pets?
itching
89
The disease in which a dogs immune system attacks and destroys its own erythrocytes is called ________________.
IMHA
90
Which of the following statements is true regarding feline leukemia?
Felines are at risk for exposure when they cuddle with and groom each other.
91
Humans can get ringworm from animals.
True
92
A vaccine is no longer available for prevention of feline leukemia.
False
93
Histopathology is needed to grade mast cell tumors.
True
94
In small numbers, demodex mites are part of the normal flora in dogs.
True
95
The most common hematopoietic tumor in both dogs and cats is lymphoma.
True
96
What from of the flea contains the antigen which causes flea allergy dermatitis?
Saliva
97
The etiologic agent which causes ringworm is a _________________.
fungus
98
IMHA most commonly occurs in:
female dogs
99
What is the most efficient way to diagnose feline ear mites?
visualize them with an otoscope
100
A neoplasm which can be caused by infection with feline leukemia virus is:
Lymphoma
101
Common locations for flea allergy dermatitis include
tailhead, lower back, and inner thighs
102
Sarcoptes mange is zoonotic.
True
103
Demodectic mange is zoonotic.
False
104
Treatment for Feline Leukemia is mainly supportive and may include a blood transfusion due to anemia
True
105
Lyme disease is transmitted by fleas
False
106
Pyoderma is a general term meaning:
bacterial infection of the skin
107
Curative treatments are available for feline leukemia virus.
False
108
What is used to make a definite diagnosis of ringworm?
DTM (Dermatophyte test medium)
109
Which medication is most commonly used in treating feline ear mites?
Tresaderm
110
Cats with a progressive infection with feline leukemia virus can not the virus and will be infected for life
True
111
What is the scientific name for ear mites?
Odectes cynotis
112
It is important to treat all animals in the household for ear mites if one of your pets is infected.
True
113
Histiocytomas are skin tumors which can appear similar to other skin tumors, but can spontaneously regress.
True
114
What disease is characterized by a sudden onset of ataxia, disorientation, head tilt, and rapid involuntary eye movements?
vestibular disease
115
Name a disease, other than persistent right aortic arch, which can cause megaesophagus?
Myasthenia gravis
116
What type of intervertebral disc disease to chondrodystrophic (long backs and short legs) breeds most commonly get?
Type I
117
What is the treatment for avascular necrosis of the femoral head?
Excisional arthroplasty
118
A small breed dog with "skipping lameness" would most likely have
patellar luxation
119
Which of the following medications are commonly used to manage epilipsy? Select all that apply.
potassium bromide, phenobarbital
120
A specialized bone biopsy needle is beneficial when trying to obtain a bone biopsy from a patient suspected of having osteosarcoma.
True
121
To try to remember the common locations of osteosarcomas, which of the following statements is correct?
Away from the elbow, towards the knee
122
What is the best way to diagnose intervertebral disc disease?
MRI
123
Which best describes status epilepticus?
a prolonged seizure
124
Neither a vaccine or curative treatment is available for canine distemper
false
125
What best describes the epiphyseal cartilage in a dog with OCD?
thickened and split
126
What endocrine disease should be considered in a cat that has PU/PD that presents with a plantigrade posture (hocks touching the ground)?
diabetes mellitus
127
What is another name for Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease?
Avascular necrosis of the femoral head
128
If the meniscus is torn with a cruciate ligament injury, the damaged portion of the meniscus should be removed as part of the cruciate ligament repair.
True
129
What test is used by specialty practices to evaluate hearing?
BAER
130
Canine distemper can be diagnosed with __________.
PCR
131
What organ are we most interested in monitoring in dogs on phenobarbital therapy?
Liver
132
What are fractures that occur across growth plates called?
Salter Harris
133
What are some clinical signs of facial nerve paralysis?
Ear, eyelid, and lip drooping
134
Which spinal cord disease is caused by an embolism which obstructs the blood supply to the spinal cord?
FCE
135
What is stabismus?
The abnomal positioning of the eye in the orbit
136
What type of breed is mostly likely to have hip dysplasia?
Large breed dog
137
A self-limiting musculoskeletal disease characterized by shifting leg lameness is _________________.
panosteitis
138
For which musculoskeletal disease is a drawer sign used in making the diagnosis.
Cruciate ligament injury
139
Curative treatments are available for feline leukemia virus
False
140
Cats are expected to get very ill, but recover, when infected with Toxoplasma gondii
False
141
Which feline disease may be detected using a canine ELISA test:
Panleukopenia
142
Which type of pyometra is it when the pus or abnormal discharge can drain from the uterus through the vagina and is often seen on the skin/hair/tail/bedding?
Open pyometra
143
The word "leukopenia" means ____________.
all white shortage
144
Rabies is caused by:
a virus that attacks the nervous system
145
What can be done to reduce a cat's risk of contracting FIV?
Keeping the cat indoors
146
Canine parvovirus typically causes what type of diarrhea?
Bloody
147
Rocky mountain spotted fever is spread by ____________.
Dermacentor ticks
148
Which of the following is one of the species most likely to carry rabies?
Bats
149
Toxoplasmosis can be transmitted by ______________________.
fecal-orally and by ingestion of meat from an infected intermediate host
150
Lyme disease can be transmitted to dogs, cats, and humans by which parasite.
A tick
151
Feline panleukopenia virus can survives in the environment for (choose the longest time possible)?
one year or longer
152
When monitoring for parturition in dogs using twice daily temperature checks, a decrease in body temperature by 1-2 degrees F would indicate parturition would most likely occur when?
within an hour
153
The definitive host for Toxoplasma gondii is
the cat
154
Rabies is present in wild and domestic animals in Hawaii
False
155
A dog with icterus will have ___________ mucous membranes
Yellow
156
A cat infected with FIV may not exhibit symptoms of the disease for a long time.
True
157
If the testicles of a male dog or cat do not descend into the scrotum, they are said to be ________________.
cryptorchid
158
Which cell types are not commonly attacked by canine parvovirus?
Renal tubular cells
159
Administration of fluids by which route is most appropriate for a puppy with canine parvovirus.
intravenous
160
Which feline virus can cause a false positive upon testing due to maternal antibodies?
FIV
161
What is a good way to treat an animal for obesity?
Establish a gradual timeline for weight los
162
A dog that recovers from canine distemper may continue to shed the virus for ____ months.
3
163
Clinical signs of eclampsia are caused by __________.
Low calcium
164
Infection with which feline upper respiratory tract pathogen is most commonly associated with arthritis or limping syndrome
feline calcivirus
165
Feline asthma can be transmitted through the air.
False
166
The most common systemic mycotic disease in cats is caused by
Cryptococcus
167
The best way to diagnose stenotic nares is with a radiograph.
False
168
Feline asthma is a short term disease and will not reoccur
False
169
If a veterinarian aspirates fluid from the thoracic cavity of an overweight cat, and the fluid is white to light pink and milky, the condition the cat has is most likely ___________.
chylothorax
170
An orthopneic posture can be best described as ________________.
when the cat stretches its neck and abducts its elbows
171
What the different types of blastomycosis?
Pulmonary, disseminated, localized cutaneous
172
Primary lung tumors are common in dogs and cats.
False
173
All cats that are infected with Dirofilaria immitis will show symptoms.
False
174
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
The bordetella vaccine is 100% effective in protecting dogs from kennel cough.
175
The accumulation of air in the pleural space, which collapses the lung, is called ______________.
pneumothorax
176
What type of microorganism is Bordetella bronchiseptica?
Bacteria
177
Two bacterial causes of pneumonia in dogs include
Bordetella bronchiseptica and Streptococcus canis
178
In long nose dogs, which of the below fungi would most likely be a cause of rhinitis?
Asperigillus sp.
179
Aerosolized medications can be used in treating cats with asthma.
True
180
What test can allow for optimal of treatment of bacterial rhinitis in a dog or cat?
Culture and sensitivity
181
In general, coughing causes irritation of the airways that could lead to more coughing
True
182
Corneal ulcers can be seen with feline viral respiratory infections.
True
183
What are the four components of brachycephalic syndrome?
short (compressed) head, stenotic nares, elongated soft palate, everted laryngeal saccules
184
Canine collapsing trachea has a curable treatment.
False
185
The life span of the adult Dirofilaria immitis in the cat is approximately ____________.
2 years
186
If a dog rapidly inhales through its nose, often repeatedly, this is called a _____________.
reverse sneeze
187
Pleural effusion is more characteristic of failure of which side of the heart.
Right
188
A history of a voice change and quality in animals should raise concerns over the possibility of an infection with what virus?
Rabies
189
What is the newly available test that detects kidney disease earlier?
SDMA
190
In cats that present with the gait disturbance of cervical ventriflexion, which electrolyte needs to be checked?
Potassium
191
What is the life expectancy for a dogs diagnosed with transitional cell carcinoma that do and don't receive treatment?
With treatment: 6-12 months; without treatment 4-6 months
192
What is the best antidote for ethylene glycol toxicosis?
Fomepizole (4-Methylpyrazole)
193
What is the salvage surgical procedure for recurring urethral obstruction in a cat?
Perineal urethrostomy
194
Which of the following in NOT a function of the kidneys?
Producing insulin
195
All of these are potential causes of feline lower urinary tract disease EXCEPT:
Ringworm
196
What is the primary treatment for acute renal failure in most general veterinary practices?
IV fluids and supportive care
197
The development of which type of urolith is often caused by an infection with bacteria which produce urease enzymes?
magnesium ammonium phosphate (struvite)
198
What breed of dog is classically predisposed to developing urate uroliths?
Dalmatians
199
What is the typical signalment of a cat with FLUTD?
Obese male cat eating a dry diet
200
Potassium is typically _________ with acute renal failure and ____________ with chronic renal failure.
high, low
201
Within what time frame do dogs and cats need to be treated with Fomepizole (4 - methylpyrazole) in order for it to be effective?
Dogs need to be treated within 8-12 hours of ingestion; cats need to be treated with 3 hours of ingestion
202
Leptospirosis __________________.
is a bacteria that causes acute renal failure
203
_____________________ is the absence of urine
Anuria
204
What types of crystals can be found in the urinalysis of an animal with ethylene glycol toxicosis?
calcium oxalate monohydrate
205
Which of the following drugs can be nephrotoxic?
Amikacin
206
A dog or cat with an obstructed urethra would be expected to have __________________
post-renal azotemia
207
Bacteria like to live in an alkaline environment, which has a pH higher than ____________.
7
208
What type of epithelial cell is responsible for the most common type of bladder cancer?
transitional
209
Which one of the following is a collection of conditions associated with the bladder and urethra in cats?
FLUTD
210
Bladder stones _________________________________.
are rock-like minerals found in the bladder
211
How could future bladder stones be best avoided?
Dietary management
212
Which is true regarding BOTH acute and chronic renal failure
Symptoms include loss of appetite, vomiting or diarrhea.
213
Which of the following lab panels would match a cat in chronic renal failure?
Increased BUN and Creatinine, decreased USG
