Final Flashcards by Elle F

____ are H2 receptor antagonists that competitively inhibit H+ secretion by _____ cells

Tidines ; parietal

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_____ irreversibly bind to proton pump and prevennt acid release

PPIs

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_______ is a prosaglandin analogue that stimulates _____ cell receptors and ______ cell

misoprostol; parietal; mucus

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_______ forms a viscous gel network by binding to broken parts of mucus lining

sucralfate

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______ is an opioid that can help diminish propulsive activity to treat diarrhea

loperamide

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the hypertension subtype _____ is associated with stiffnness of large arteries and adults > 50

isolated systolic (SBP only)

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the hypertension subtype _____ is associated with narrowing or arterioles and adults < 40

isolated diastolic (DBP)

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______ Hypertension has no known cause wherase _______ hypertension has an identifiable cause

primary (essential); secondary

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(increase or decrease) in angiotensin, aldoseterone, renin is associated with hypertensionn

increase

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increase aldosterone –> (increase or decrease) of Na+ and H20 –> (increase or decrease in BV

increase; increase

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vasodilator deficiency in hypertension is associated with decreased ______ and _______

NO; prostacyclin

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Catopril is an example of an _______that blocks angiotensin II production thus ______ secretion. It also prevents inactivation of bradykinin

ACE inhibitor; aldosterone

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Losartan is an an example of an _______ that blocks ______ by blocking the AT1 receptors.

ARBs. ; action of angiotensin II

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Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide-______ diuretic that prevents reabsorption of ___ and ____ in the ____ tubule by inhibiting the co-transporter

thiaside-type; Na+ and Cl- ; distal

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Chlorthalidone and indapamide are thiazide- ______ diuretics that work to decrease ____, _____ and ________

thiazide-like, BV, CO, peripheral resistance

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amlodipine is a ___________ that is most vascular selective and is associated with side effects such as headache, flushing and peripheral edema

dihydropyridine

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verapamil is a _________ that is most cardiac selective and reduced the calcium influx into cardiac muscle cells.

phenulalkylamine

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Dilitazem is a ________ that inhibits voltage gated L-type Ca2+ channels and is associated with bradycardia

benzothiazepine`

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G protein coupled receptors for ______ hormones include ____, _____, _____ and are located on the cell surface

peptide; Oxytocin, TSH, FSH

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Receptor Tyrosine Kinases include for _____ hormones include ______ and ______ and are located on the cell surface

peptide; insulin receptor, GH

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Steroid hormone receptors include … bind to DNA and cause changes in gene expression

glucocorticoid, estrogen, thyroid hormone

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What are the two ways to treat hypersecretion

drug that interferes with synthesis or block the receptor
remove/ablate with radiation or surgery 1

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Short acting bolus insulin is insulin ______ and should be taken 30-60 minutes before meals

regular

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fast acting bolus insulin is insulin ______, ________, ______ and should be taken at the start of meals

glulisine, lispro, aspart

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Intermediate acting basal insulin is insulin _____ and should be taken at bedtime or twice a day

isphane

long acting basal insulin is insulin ____, _____ is newer and should be taken once or twice a day because it has no peak effect

glargine, detemir

Metformin is an antiglycemic __________ and works by 1. (increase/decrease) _____ gluconeogenesis 2. (increase/decrease) insulin _______ 3. (increase/decrease)______ glucose uptake 4. (increase/decrease) _______ net glucose uptake

biguanide 1. decrease hepatic gluconeogenesis 2. increase insulin sensitivity 3. increase muscle glucose uptake 4. reduce net glucose uptake in intesttine

Glyburide is an antidiabetic ________ that works by (increase/decrease) insulin release from beta cells

sulfonylurea; increase

Acarbose is an oral antidiabetic _____________ that works by (increase/decrease) the breakdown of starches and carbohydrates at the brush border of the small intestine

alpha-glucosidase inhibitor; decrease

Rosiglitazone is an ____________ that is a selective agonist for PPAR and (activates or inhibits) the PPARy receptor to regulate transcription of insulin responsive genes

Thiazolidinedione (TZD); activates

Exenatide is an ___________ that binds to GLP-1 on pancreatic beta cells and (increase/decrease) cytosolic calcium --> (increase/decrease) release of insulin-containing granules

incretin mimetic; increase; increase

SABA and LABAs act as _______ receptor (agonist ot antagonist)

B2-adrenergic receptor; agonists

When _______ bind to receptors on smooth muscle, --> release of ______ ---> removal of _____ via channels ----> ( activation/ inhibition) of myoslin light chain phosphatase ----> uncouple cross bridge = _____

B2-adrenergic receptor agonists --> release of cAMP ---> removal of Ca2+ via channels ----> activation of myosin light chain phosphaase --> uncouple cross bridge = relaxation

When _____ binds to the glucocorticoid receptor complex trans-________ prevents translocation of inflammator TF from cytosol --> nucleus and decreases pro-inflammatory cytokines, proteases, ROS trans-_______ up regulates antinflammatory proteins by binding to ______

Corticosterone trans-repression prevents translocation of inflammator TF from cytosol --> nucleus and decreases pro-inflammatory cytokines, proteases, ROS trans-activation up regulates antinflammatory proteins by binding to GRE

Classical psychedelics are 5HT 2A receptor _______

partial antagonists

______ signalinng is excitatory and Gq coupled and involves the Ca2+ regulation of voltage gated channels in the _____. It also has a role in drug tolerance

Canonical; mPFC

______ signalling involves ___ bound receptors for downstream cascades that control cell growth, proliferation and angiogenesis

non-canonical; arrestin

Psychedlics work as ______by blocking the action of _____ involved in the termination of _____ action in the synapse and inhibits reuptake from synapses and reverses flow by monoamine transporters ______ (MDMA)

MOA inhibitors; MOA; 5HT; SERT, DAT

Ketamine is an glutamate ______ antagonist and activates excitatory_______ signalling

NMDAR; AMPAR

MDMA releases ______ and _________ via transporters

serotonin and dopamine

the _______ pathway is also known as the dopamine pathway and goes from the ____ --> _____-

mesocorticolimbic ; VTA --> NAcc

Mu receptor ________ in the VTA (inhibits/stimulates) GABA release --> dopamine = reward

Antagonism; inhibits

respiratory depression occurs as a result of mu receptor _______ in the ________ that interferes with the breathing signal resulting in breathing

antagonism; brainstem

Buprenorphine/naloxone has a (High/low) binding affinity to MOR receptors as a _________

high; partial agonist

Methadone is a ________ at MOR receptors

full agonist

the mesolimbic pathway is associated with _____ symptoms such as delusions, halucinations, disorganized speech and behaviour and catatonic behaviour

positive

the mesocortical pathway is associated with _____ symptoms such as Alogia, anhedonia, affective flattenninng, avoilition, asociality

negative

the nigrostriatal pathway is asssociated with ______

motor movements

the Tuberoinfundibular pathway is associated with ________

prolactin secretion

FGA are D2 _________

antagonists

SGA are 5HT-2A and D2 ______ and _______ for 5HT-1A which increases dopamine release

antagonists; agonists

TGA are D2 _____ and 5HT-2A ________

partial agonists; antagonists

5HT-2A_______ and D2 ________ increase prolactin release

agonism; antagonism

5HT-2A_______ and D2 ________ decrease prolactin release

antagonism; agonism

Risperidone and Paliperidone are examples of _____

SGA

Chlorpromazine and Haloperiodl are examples of _____

FGA

Aripriprazole and Brexpriprazol are examples of _____

TGA

D2 antagonists (FGA and SGA)____-regulate D2 receptors whereas D2 partial agonnists do not

______ reduces mortality rate

clozapine

Clozapine is an _____

SGA

Prevalence of disease =

= (# with disease)/ (# with disease + # non-disease) Ex. number eligible for trial / total screened

Odds =

= Proportion/ (1- proportion)

Proportion =

= Odds/ (1+Odds)

Incidence rate is the instantaneous risk for developping a disease at any point in time and =

= number of cases / # years per person of follow up

Incidence proportion is the proportion of the population that develops the disease during fixed period of follow up annd =

new cases of disease observed during a defined period of follow up)/ N(aka number at risk during the period)

Risk ratio =

= incidence proportion-r / incidence proportion-p = incidence rate -r / incidence rate - p

Risk difference =

= incidence proportion-r – incidence proportion - p = incidence rate-r – incidence rate-p

Disease odds ratio =

= [ incidence proportion-r/ (1-incidence proportion-r)] \ [incidence proportion-p\ (1-incidence proportion-p)]

number needed to treat =

NNT = (1/ |RD|)

Clinical research take _____ years and with accelerated approval can be. fastter by ____ years

9 ; 3

the median cost to bring a drug to market is ________

1.1 billion

The overall likelihood of approval from phase 1 onward is ____ %

_____ is the study of rare human diseases with extreme traits. For pain it looks at ____ and ______ targets

extreme genetics; lipid targets, ion channel targets

____ mutatin shows extreme genetic pain phenotypes that include ___ functional channels, deficits in channel _____ (easier) and deficits in channel _____ (longer)

SCN9A ; no; opening; inactivation

A clinical trial is an expensive experiment to answer the question:__________

does the medicine (safely) work

4 reasons for potential clinical trial failure

1. lack of clinical efficacy 2. unmanageable toxicity 3. poor drug-like properties 4. lack of commercial need & poor strategic planning

In phase 1 it takes ___ for oncolgy studies ___ for CNS and ___ for ____ to approved In phase 2 it takes ___ years for oncolgy studies ___ years for CNS and ___ years for ____ to be approved

In phase 1 it takes __3_ for oncolgy studies _15__ years for CNS and __33_ for opthamolgy to approved In phase 2 it takes _7__ for oncolgy studies __20_ years for CNS and __34_ for opthamology to approved

Final Flashcards

(77 cards)