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Geography of hazards > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

Earthquakes are measured by ___________

A

seismographs

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2
Q

Earthquakes are compared by ___________

A

Magnitude

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3
Q

D: Seismic Waves

A

The energy released from an earthquake

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4
Q

Earthquakes are

A

The result from the rupture of rocks along a fault

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5
Q

Richter Scale

A

The original way to measure the magnitude of an Earthquake (no longer)

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6
Q

Earthquakes are measured using

A

The Moment Magnitude Scale (M)

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7
Q

The Moment Magnitude Scale is determined by:

A
  • the area ruptured along a fault
  • the amount of movement along the fault
  • the elasticity of the crust at the focus
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8
Q

An M7 earthquake has how much more ground movement than an M6

A

10 times as much

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9
Q

What is the Modified Mercalli Intensity Scale

A

It is a qualitative scale for Earthquakes that is based on damage to structures and the effect on people

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10
Q

Where are Earthquakes most common

A

At or near plate boundaries

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11
Q

Blind faults are

A

located below the surface

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12
Q

What are faults considered

A

Seismic sources

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13
Q

What are the 2 types of geologic faults

A

Strike-slip faults and Dip-slip faults

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14
Q

Strike-slip faults

A

Displacements are horizontal

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15
Q

Dip-slip faults

A

Displacements are vertical

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16
Q

What are the three types of Dip-Slip Faults

A

Reverse Faults, Thrust Faults, Normal Faults

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17
Q

Dip-Slip faults are comprised of what 2 walls

A

Footwall, (where miners placed their feet)
and
Hanging-wall (where miners placed their lanterns)

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18
Q

Reverse Fault

A

Hanging wall has moved up relative to the footwall inclined at an angle steeper than 45 degrees

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19
Q

Thrust Fault

A

Hanging wall has moved up relative to the footwall at an angle less than 45 degrees

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20
Q

Normal Fault

A

The hanging wall has moved down relative to the footwall

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21
Q

What are the 3 categories of faults

A

Active, Potentially Active, Inactive

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22
Q

Active Fault

A

Movement during the past 11,600 years

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23
Q

Potentially Active Fault

A

Movement during the past 2.6 million years

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24
Q

Inactive Fault

A

No movements in the past 2.6 million years

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25
Q

Tectonic creep

A

The slow movement of rock or sediments along a fracture caused by stress

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26
Q

P Waves

A

Primary (or compressed) waves move fast with a push-pull motion and can travel through solids or liquids

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27
Q

S Waves

A

Secondary (or shear) waves move more slowly in an up-and-down motion and can only travel through solids

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28
Q

What are the 2 types of Body waves

A

P waves and S waves

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29
Q

Surface Waves

A

Seismic waves that form when P and S waves reach Earth’s surface and then move along it

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30
Q

What are responsible for damage near the epicenter of an earthquake

A

Surface Waves

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31
Q

What are some factors that determine the shaking people experience during an earthquake

A
  • magnitude
  • distance to epicenter
  • Focal depth (how deep is earthquake?)
  • direction of rupture (how was fault aligned?)
  • local soil and rock types
    local engineering and construction practices
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32
Q

Which type of wave travels faster: P wave or S waves

A

P waves travel faster and appear first on seismograms

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33
Q

How can we find the distance to the epicenter in an earthquake

A

Using the difference in the arrival times of the first P and S waves at different locations

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34
Q

What can influence the amount of ground motion

A

local geology

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35
Q

Where are Earthquakes felt over larger areas

A

Earthquakes in eastern North America are felt over larger areas than those in western North America
(less rock types and big mountains)

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36
Q

foreshocks

A

A small to moderate earthquake that occurs shortly before and in the same general area as the mainshock

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37
Q

Mainshock

A

The largest earthquake in a series of associated earthquakes

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38
Q

Aftershock

A

A small to moderate earthquake that occurs shortly after and in the same general area as the mainshock

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39
Q

Describe the earthquake cycle

A
  • Inactive period
  • Period where strains produce minor earthquakes
  • period of foreshocks (not always)
  • period of mainshock allowing fault to release built up stress
  • Period of aftershocks
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40
Q

What is the formula to calculate how many aftershock there should be after an earthquake

A

aftershock on given day = (# of aftershocks on the first day after / the given day)

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41
Q

If there were 200 aftershock the next day after an earthquake, how many should you expect on day 7

A

= 200/7
= 29

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42
Q

Where do most earthquakes occur:

A

Along plate boundaries:
Pacific Ring of Fire, Himalaya Mountains, Middle East

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43
Q

What are some NA cities that are at high risk for earthquakes

A

Anchorage, Vancouver, Victoria, Seattle, Portland, San Francisco, Los Angeles, Mexico City

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44
Q

Plate boundary earthquakes

A

Earthquakes that occur on faults separating lithospheric plates

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45
Q

The 3 types of plate boundary earthquakes

A

strike-slip earthquakes
thrust earthquakes
normal fault earthquakes

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46
Q

Strike-slip Earthquakes

A

Occur along transform faults where plates slide horizontally past one another (common in California)

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47
Q

Thrust Earthquake

A

Occur on faults that separate converging plates (also called subduction earthquakes)
The strongest types; can produce tsunamis (common in BC)

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48
Q

Normal fault earthquakes

A

Occur on faults associated with divergent plate boundaries
(common along Mid-Atlantic Ridge)

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49
Q

Intraplate Earthquakes

A

An earthquake on a fault in the interior of a continent, far from a plate boundary
(typically smaller than plate boundary earthquakes)

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50
Q

Primary effects of earthquakes

A

Ground shaking, surface ruptures

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51
Q

Secondary effects of earthquakes

A

liquefaction, land-level change, landslides, fire, tsunamis

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52
Q

Liquefaction

A

The transformation of water-saturated sediment from solid to liquid

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53
Q

Natural service functions of earthquakes

A
  • Faults provide pathways for the downward flow of surface water
  • Can channel groundwater to surface discharge points (springs)
  • New material resources can be found
  • Scenic landscapes can develop in fault zones over time
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54
Q

What is the main reason earthquakes cause such death and destruction

A

They occur with little to no warning

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55
Q

What are the safest location during an earthquake

A

Under desks and tables

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56
Q

Where are most volcanoes located

A

Near plate boundaries

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57
Q

2/3 of volcanoes are found where

A

On the “Ring of Fire” surrounding the Pacific ocean

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58
Q

Magma

A

Found within the crust and upper mantle

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59
Q

Lava

A

found flowing from an erupting volcano

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60
Q

what is the relationship between lava and magma

A

lava is essentially magma on the earths surface

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61
Q

What are the most abundant elements in magma

A

Silicon and oxygen

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62
Q

What are the types of volcanic rocks from least silica present to most

A

Basalt
Andesite
Dacite
Rhyolite

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63
Q

What else is contained in magma

A

small amounts of gases (water vapour, CO2)

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64
Q

Describe Magma with high silica content

A

Cooler, more viscous, more gases

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65
Q

Describe Magma with low silica content

A

Hotter less viscous, fewer gases

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66
Q

What influences a more explosive volcanic eruption

A

Volcanoes with higher silica magma

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67
Q

Which 2 types of magma produce volcanoes that tend to flow

A

Basalt
Andesite

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68
Q

Which 2 types of magma produce volcanoes that tend to explode

A

Dacite
Rhyolite

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69
Q

What are volcanoes classified based upon

A

Shape
Appearance
Style of eruption

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70
Q

What are the 4 types of volcanoes

A

Shield
Composite
Volcanic Dome
Cinder Cone

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71
Q

Shield Volcanoes

A

Largest volcanoes on earth
Shaped as broad arcs
Associated with Basaltic Magma
Flows
Common in Hawaii, Iceland

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72
Q

Tephra

A

Fragmented material blown out during an eruption
Compacted together are referred to as pyroclastic rock

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73
Q

Composite Volcanoes

A

More dangerous and explosive eruptions
Less common than shield
Common along the west coast from Alaska to Northern California

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74
Q

Volcanic Domes

A

Steep-sided mounts that form around vents
Contain highly viscous rhyolite magma

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75
Q

Cinder Cone Volcanoes

A

Relatively small volcanoes composed of small pieces of tephra
Found in Mexico

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76
Q

Ice-Contact Volcanoes

A

Erupt beneath or against Glaciers
When the lava contacts glaciers it quickly cools to form pyroclastic rock
Found in Iceland and BC

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77
Q

Geyser

A

Groundwater that boils underwater and periodically produces a release of steam or water

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78
Q

here are Geysers most common

A

About half of all geysers on earth reside in Yellowstone

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79
Q

About how many volcanoes erupt each year

A

50-60 volcanoes

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80
Q

What is an effect volcanoes have

A

Powerful eruptions can impact global climate

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81
Q

Lava flows

A

occur when magma flows out of a central crater

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82
Q

Pahoehoe Lava

A

Low viscosity (a few km per hour), high temperature. When hardened, it has a smooth texture

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83
Q

Aa Lava

A

High viscosity (a few meters per day), lower temperature. When hardened, it has a blocky texture

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84
Q

Lateral Blasts

A

An eruption directed away from a volcano where materials are blown parallel to the surface

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85
Q

Ash Fall hazards

A
  • destroys vegetation
  • contaminates surface water
  • health hazards to people and animals
  • causes aircraft engine failure
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86
Q

Pyroclastic flows

A

Avalanches of ash, gas, and rock that travel down the slopes of a volcano during an explosive eruption
Largest cause of death involving volcanoes

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87
Q

Natural Service functions of volcanoes

A
  • Internal heat from volcanoes can produce renewable geothermal energy
  • Volcanic soils can be good for agriculture
  • Volcanic landscapes attract tourism and recreation
    Eruptions can create new land (Hawaii, Iceland)
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88
Q

What are ways to minimize the volcanic hazard

A

1 Monitor seismic activity ((shallow earthquakes usually precede)
2. Thermal and Hydrologic monitoring
3. Land surface monitoring
4. Monitoring volcanic gas emissions
5. Understanding local geologic history

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89
Q

What are technological hazrads

A

They have a wide and varied interpretation
Can vary from a single toxic chemical accident to an entire industry (e.g. nuclear energy)

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90
Q

T/F: Death tolls from technological hazards are relatively high

A

False

91
Q

T/F The people at the greatest risk involving technological hazards are those involved in the industry

A

True

92
Q

hat are the 3 categories of technological hazards

A

Widespread
Rare events
Relatively common

93
Q

What are some examples of Widespread technological hazards

A

Nuclear accidents
Hazards leading to cumulative effects

94
Q

What are some examples of Rare event technological hazards

A

Airplane crashes
Mine collapses
Shipwrecks

95
Q

What are some examples of relatively common technological hazards

A

Car accidents
Poisons

96
Q

Cumulative effects

A

Conditions that worsen slowly over time as exposure to a concentration increases
(Ex. exposure to toxic chemicals, acid)

97
Q

The second leading cause of lung cancer in North America

A

Radon

98
Q

Why is Radon difficult to detect

A

It is colorless, odorless, and tasteless

99
Q

T/F: Radon can move quickly through non-saturated soil and can seep into homes

A

True

100
Q

Genetically Modified Organisms (GMOs)

A

Organisms that have had changes made tot heir DNA by the transfer of genes

101
Q

What are common crops that have been genetically modified

A

Corn
Soybean
Canola

102
Q

Whay are crops genetically modified

A

To increase yields

103
Q

What do genetically modified crops have greater resistances to

A
  • Changes to temperature and precipitation
  • Herbicides
  • Pests
  • Acidic soil
104
Q

What are the main sources of radiation

A
  • Mining Uranium (Mines produce wastes that can be a radioactive hazard)
  • Production of Electricity (Uranium is used in nuclear power plants)
105
Q

hy are most nuclear plants in NA in the Eastern half of the continent

A

They must be near sources of coolant (rivers or lakes)

106
Q

Nuclear Meltdown

A

Occurs when the heat generated by a nuclear plant exceeds the heat removed by cooling systems

107
Q

What happened during the Chernobyl Nuclear Accident

A

It was the worst nuclear disaster in world history which occurred on April 26, 1986
Accident resulting due to flawed design

108
Q

Why do we push for nuclear plants

A

The concern for greenhouse gas emissions outweigh our concern for possible nuclear disasters

109
Q

T/F: Oil spills are relatively quick to clean up

A

False. clean-up can take months to years

110
Q

Groundwater

A

Water that is found underground within the cracks and spaces in soil, sand, and rock

111
Q

How was the solar system formed

A

Scientists believe a cloud of gas and dust in space was disturbed by a supernova (4.6 billion years ago)

The explosion made waves in space causing the formation of a solar nebula (flattened cloud of gas and dust)

Solar nebula grew hotter and became the sun; outer edges cooled causing clumps to stick together and form planets

112
Q

Galaxy

A

A cluster of billions of stars. Our solar system makes up a tiny portion of the Milky Way Galaxy

113
Q

Star

A

A hot glowing ball of gas that generated energy by converting hydrogen to helium

114
Q

How hot is the core of the sun

A

15,000,000 deg C

115
Q

he solar system is composed of:

A

8 planets
60 moons
millions of bolides

116
Q

What is the order of planets

A

Mercury
Venus
Earth
Mars
Jupiter
Saturn
Uranus
Neptune

117
Q

Bolides

A

Extraterrestrial bodies that originate in outer space

118
Q

Asteroid

A

A rocky metallic material in space 10m to 1000km in diameter originating in the asteroid belt

119
Q

Where is the asteroid belt

A

between Mars and Jupiter

120
Q

Meteoroid

A

Smaller objects in space up to 10m in diameter

121
Q

Meteor

A

A meteoroid that has entered Earths atmosphere

122
Q

Meteorite

A

A meteor that strikes the earths surface

123
Q

Comet

A

Composed of a rocky core of glass and ice
these are distinguishable by a glowing tail of gas and dust.

124
Q

What provides us with evidence of past meteorite impacts

A

Impact Craters

125
Q

How many major extinctions have there been

A

5 in pat 550 million years

126
Q

What is the K-T Boundary Mass Extinction

A

An event 65 million years ago that caused the extinction of the dinosaurs (70% of all plant and animal spiecies at the time)

127
Q

Bolide impacts can cause what other hazards

A

tsunamis
earthquakes
landslides
climate change

128
Q

T/F: We are able to detect approaching large bolides decades in advance

A

True

129
Q

T/F: The best course of action dealing with an approaching bolide is to blow it up

A

False. It is best to push it off course

130
Q

Snow Avalanche

A

A mass of snow many cubic meters in volume that separates from a snowpack and flows downslope

131
Q

T/F: For snow to accumulate the mountain slopes must be at angles less than 75 degrees

A

False. Accumulates at angles less than 60 degrees

132
Q

What are the 2 types of Avalanches

A

Point-release Avalanche
Slab Avalanche

133
Q

Point-Release Avalanches

A

Begin as initial failure after a heavy snowfall
The sliding snow then causes more failures in the adjacent snowpack

134
Q

Slab Avalanches

A

Occur when a snowpack fractures along a weak layer parallel to the surface
These avalanches move as cohesive blocks leaving behind a scarp
*Most dangerous

135
Q

What is the danger zone for slopes

A

30-45 deg

136
Q

How does new snow impact avalanche potential

A

New snow that hasn’t been able to bond to the layer below is susceptible to sliding

137
Q

What are the 2 ways weak layers can be formed

A

From wind or from hoar

138
Q

How does wind create a weak layer

A

Blowing snow can accumulate on the lee slope of mountains

139
Q

T/F: An avalanche cannot go upslope

A

False. Some avalanches are powerful enough to climb opposing slopes

140
Q

Avalanche start zone

A

The area where the snowpack first fails

141
Q

Avalanche Track

A

The area along which the avalanche accelerates and reaches maximum velocity

142
Q

Avalanche Run-out zone

A

The area of deceleration and snow deposition

143
Q

At what angles of slope do most avalanches occur

A

Most occur at angles between 25-60 deg

<25 snow does not easily slide down

> 60 little snow accumulates at the top

144
Q

T/F: Many a times avalanches are caused by people

A

True.

145
Q

What other natural disaster can cause an avalanche

A

Earthquake

146
Q

What are some natural service functions of Avalanches

A
  • May increase local plant and animal diversity
  • Maintain open area in otherwise forested regions
  • Can serve as an important habitat zone for certain plants and animals
147
Q

How do we minimize avalanche risk

A
  • keep infrastructure outside the dangerous areas (using hazard maps)
  • specially build any infrastructure built in danger zone
  • Use deflection structures or splitting wedges
  • Controlled triggers to force avalanches to prevent snowpack buildup
148
Q

What are the 3 Strength and Stability tests to assess a snowpack

A

Compression Test
Shovel Test
Rutschblock Test

149
Q

Compression Test

A

A vertical force is placed on top of the snowpack to detect weak layers

150
Q

Shovel Test

A

It assesses the strength by isolating a column of snow and applying force on the uphill side

151
Q

Rutschblock Test

A

A skier pushes and jumps on a column of snow to detect cohesion of the snowpack
(best assessment)

152
Q

What are some Avalanche survival aids

A

Avalanche Cord
Avalanche Transceiver
Avalanche Dogs

153
Q

What 2 things naturally start many fires

A

Lightning and volcanic eruptions

154
Q

What 3 elements does a wildfire require

A

Fuel, Oxygen, and Heat

155
Q

What are the 3 phases of a wildfire

A

pre-ignition, combustion, extinction

156
Q

Pre-ignition phase

A

As vegetation is heated (to a temp it can ignite), it often loses water

157
Q

Combustion phase

A

Begins with ignition
Can be Flaming combustion or smoldering

158
Q

Flaming Combustion

A

Rapid, high temperature conversion of fuel into heat

159
Q

Smoldering combustion

A

Occurs in areas with burned material and ash that covers new fuel.

160
Q

What are the 3 processes that control the transfer of heat as a wildfire moves across land

A

Conduction - Transfer of heat by molecule to molecule contact

Radiation - Transfer of heat in the form of invisible waves

Convection - Transfer of heat by movement of a liquid or a gas

161
Q

Extinction phase

A

Combustion has ceased; no longer sufficient heat or fuel to sustain a fire

162
Q

What are some types of fuel for a wildfire

A

leaves, woody debris, decaying organic material, grasses, shrubs, etc.

163
Q

Which regions are most at risk for wildfires

A

In Canada the greatest risks are in BC and in the boreal forests of the Canadian shield

164
Q

What are the 2 types of fires

A

Surface fires and Crown fires

165
Q

Surface fires

A

Travel close to the ground and burn shrub, leaves, twigs, grass, etc.

166
Q

Crown fires

A

Move rapidly through the forest
Can be fed by surface fires that move up limbs or tree trunks
They are driven by strong winds and common in boreal forests

167
Q

What are some Natural Service Functions of Wildfires

A
  • Reduces competition for sunlight and moisture in a forest
  • For some species it triggers the release of seeds
  • Can remove some parasites and micro-organisms in the soil
  • Removes diseased trees
168
Q

Pioneer Vegetation:

A

The first plant species to appear after a wildfire

169
Q

Fire regime:

A

The potential for wildfire in an area

170
Q

What does fire management entail

A

Objective is to control wildfires for the benefit of the ecosystem (letting it burn), while also preventing them from harming people and destroying property

171
Q

Fire Break

A

An area with no fuel (ex. rivers, lakes, roads)

172
Q

Describe a fire suppression strategy

A

A strategy is to steer the fire toward a fire break
If one doesn’t exist to create one then do it

173
Q

Prescribed burns

A

These are controlled fires that are purposely ignited to reduce the amount of fuel

174
Q

In which type of fault does the hanging wall move up relative to the footwall at a relatively steep angle?

A

Reverse Fault

175
Q

P and S waves are which type of waves

A

Body Waves

176
Q

What is the term for the largest earthquake in a series of associated earthquakes

A

Mainshock

177
Q

Assume a major earthquake occurred and on the day after 75 aftershocks were reported. How many aftershocks would be forecasted to occur 5 days after the major earthquake

A

=75/5
=15

178
Q

Name a major city in the U.S that is at risk of expecting a strong intraplate earthquake

A

Memphis
St. Louis

179
Q

Data from at least how many seismic stations are required to determine the location of an earthquake

A

3

180
Q

Which type of wave moves in a snake-like motion

A

S wave

181
Q

What is the term for the transformation of solid material to a liquid state

A

liquefaction

182
Q

What is the term for the location where the rocks first rupture during an earthquake

A

focus

183
Q

Which Scale is a qualitative scale to measure earthquakes

A

Modified Mercalli

184
Q

What is the term for an increase in ground motion as body waves transfer to surface waves

A

Amplification

185
Q

Amplification

A

An increase in ground motion during an earthquake

186
Q

Alluvial

A

Soil that was deposited by water (very soft soil)

187
Q

Which type of earthquakes are the strongest on Earth?

A

Thrust Earthquakes

188
Q

Which type of material has been deposited by water

A

Alluvial

189
Q

Where did the strongest Earthquake in Canada Occur

A

British Columbia

190
Q

Which of these has the lowest Viscosity:
a) ketchup
b) water
c) milk

A

b) water

191
Q

Which type of volcano is most common in Hawaii

A

Shield

192
Q

Rank these Volcanoes in order of their last eruption from oldest to most recent:
- Mt. Pinatubo
- Yellowstone
- Mt. St. Helens
- Mt. Tambora

A
  • Yellowstone
  • Mt. Tambora
  • Mt. St. Helens
  • Mt. Pinatubo
193
Q

Mt St. Helens is associated with which feature of plate tectonics?

A

Convergence Boundary

194
Q

What is a general term for fragmented material that is ejected during an eruption

A

Tephra

195
Q

What is the deadliest feature of volcanoes

A

Pyroclastic flow

196
Q

What is another term for mudflow

A

Lahar

197
Q

What is the term for a volcanic crater produced by an explosion from groundwater encountering magma?

A

Maar

198
Q

Maars

A

A circular crater produced by an explosive eruption and filled with water

199
Q

Mt St. Helens is which type of volcano

A

Composite

200
Q

Which type of basaltic lava hardens with a blocky texture

A

Aa

201
Q

What is an explosion directed horizontally out of the side of a volcano?

A

Lateral Blast

202
Q

The eruption of which volcano resulted in the “year without a summer”?

A

Mt. Tambora

203
Q

In North America, on which side of a slope is an avalanche most likely?

A

Southeast

204
Q

Rank These slope angles in order which they would be most likely to experience an avalanche (from highest likelihood to lowest):
- 20 Degrees
- 35 Degrees
- 60 Degrees

A
  • 35 Degrees
  • 60 Degrees
  • 20 Degrees
205
Q

The direction that a slope faces is referred to as the ____________ of the slop

A

orientation

206
Q

What is the name of the area on a slope where an avalanche decelerates, and snow deposition occurs?

A

Run-out zone

207
Q

What is the name of the structure that allows snow to pass over highways and railroads without disruption to traffic?

A

Avalanche Sheds

208
Q

Which stability test involves pushing on the side of an isolated area of a snowpack?

A

Shovel Test

209
Q

In North America, which side of a hill or a mountain would be least likely to experience a wildfire

A

Northeast

210
Q

Which transfer of heat occurs through a liquid or gas

A

Convection

211
Q

What is the name of a vertical rotating funnel-shaped swirl of fire?

A

firenado

212
Q

Match: A large fire that occurs on a forest floor or grassland area

a) Crown Fire
b) Surface Fire
c) Spot Fire

A

b) Surface Fire

213
Q

Match: The fast moving type of fire

a) Crown Fire
b) Surface Fire
c) Spot Fire

A

a) Crown Fire

214
Q

Match: A small fire that is often triggered by embers

a) Crown Fire
b) Surface Fire
c) Spot Fire

A

c) Spot Fire

215
Q

Leaves, twigs, and debris are examples of what?

A

Fuel

216
Q

What is the term for potential for wildfire in an area

A

Fire regime

217
Q

Which of the following is not on of the elements of fire

a) Heat
b) Oxygen
c) Radiation

A

c) Radiation

218
Q

What is the term for the first plant life to appear in an area after a wildfire?

a) Pioneer Vegetation
b) Boreal Forest
c) Colonizing Plants

A

a) Pioneer Vegetation

219
Q

What is the name of the phase of a wildfire that includes flaming

A

Combustion phase

220
Q

What is the term for a purposely set controlled fire?

A

Prescribed burn

221
Q

In which province is the mountain pine beetle most greatly impacting forests?

A

British Columbia

222
Q

Firefighters try to steer a fire toward this, It is an area that lacks fuel

A

Fire break

223
Q

Which physiological system would be least affected by smoke from wildfires

a) Ocular
b) Circulatory
c) Respiratory

A

b) Circulatory

Geography of hazards (4 decks)

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