Final Flashcards
(360 cards)
1
Q
term used for the maintenance of a relatively constant internal enviroment
A
homeostasis
2
Q
what are the macromolecules
A
proteins, lipids, carbohydrates, and nucleic acids
3
Q
where is DNA contained
A
nucleus
4
Q
what is the function of the mitochondria
A
produce ATP
5
Q
where is glycogen found
A
liver
6
Q
where are ribosomes made
A
nucleolus
7
Q
in which type of reaction is water a biproduct
A
condensation
8
Q
what is the definition of an ion
A
a charged atom
9
Q
what are the most abundant organic elements in the human body
A
oxygen, hydrogen, carbon, nitrogen, calcium, phosphorus
10
Q
unique characteristics of organic compounds are
A
functional groups
11
Q
what is the end product of glycolysis
A
2 pryuvate
12
Q
what is the strongest bod
A
covalent
13
Q
if a solution has more solute on the outside than the inside of the cell, the solution is considered
A
hypertonic
14
Q
water moves from ___ solute concentration to ___ solute concentration
A
lower; higher
15
Q
enzymes are made of which macromolecule
A
protein
16
Q
cholesterol adds ___ to the cell membrane
A
structural support and fluidity
17
Q
how many protons, electrons, and neutrons are present in the isomer 34P (atomic number 15)
A
15, 15, 19
18
Q
what is the function of a lysosome
A
engulf
19
Q
where does glycolysis take place
A
cytolasm
20
Q
___ contains a glycerol, phosphate, and 2 fatty acids
A
phospholipid
21
Q
which of the followings is a passive process
A
facilitated diffusion, osmosis, simple diffusion
22
Q
which type of protein folding contains disulfide bridges
A
tertiary
23
Q
what organelle packages lipids and proteins to move around the cell
A
golgi complex
24
Q
how many ATP molecules are produced from cellular respiration
A
32
25
which of the following is an example of a polysaccharide
cellulose
26
NaCl is an example of ___
ionic bond
27
humans are in the kingdom ___
Animalia
28
the most specific classification of an organism is its ___
species
29
this part of an experiment is the factor that is kept constant
control group
30
nucleic acids contain a
phosphate group, five carbon sugar, nitrogenous base
31
the disaccharide sucrose is formed from what 2 monosaccharides
glucose and fructose
32
what is the 5 main characteristics of life
reproduce and grow, sense and responds to change, maintain homeostasis, cellular organization, ability to adapt
33
what is the proper order of events in a negative feedback system
stimulus, receptors, control center, effectors, response
34
what are the domains of life
eukarya, eubacteria, archaebacteria
35
what would be an effector in the regulation of body temperature
sweat glands
36
what substrate is needed to begin the citric acid cycle
acetyl CoA
37
what nitrogen base is found as a nucleotide only in RNA
uracil
38
a substance that has a pH of 12 is considered ___ because it has a higher concentration of ___ in the solution
base; OH-
39
what is produced during glycolysis
2 TP, 2 pryuvate, 2 NADH
40
this organelle contains digestive enzymes and degrades old cells
lysosome
41
what is the monomer of carbohydrates
glucose
42
a red blood cell placed in a hypotonic solution is expected to undergo ___
hemolysis
43
this part of cellular metabolism produces the most ATP
electron transport chain
44
this is the random movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration
diffusion
45
when water is needed in a chemical reaction to break bonds in a molecule making smaller molecules it is called
hydration
46
helices and sheets are localized areas of a protein's ___ structure
secondary
47
what is the function of NADH and FADH
electron transport
48
what are parts of the cytoskeleton
microtubule, intermediate filaments, microfilaments
49
if a unicellular organism had DNA not contained in the nucleus, cytoplasm, and a cell membrane, what cell would it likely be?
prokaryotic cell
50
what is the part of the cell that "tags" the cell as "self"
glycocalyx
51
what is found in an eukaryotic cell membrane
cholesterol, phospholipid, glycoprotein
52
which part of an experiment do you measure for the results
dependent variable
53
___ molecules like/are attracted to water
hydrophilic
54
what functional groups are present on an amino acid
amino, radical, carboxyl
55
if a fatty acid is ___, then it has two or more double bonds in its carbon chain
polyunsaturated
56
human bodies store energy for long term purposes in the form of
triglycerides
57
what organelle is not found in plant cells
mitochondria
58
if i placed baking soda in a beaker of vinegar, the concentration of ___ ions would increase in the vinegar
OH
59
this is broken down in glycolysis
glucose
60
what base pair is held together by 3 hydrogen bonds
G with C
61
spermatogenesis results in __ ___ sperm; oogenesis results in __ ___ ovum
4haploid; 1 haploid
62
what process restores the diploid number of chromosomes in the zygote
fertilization
63
a human cell that has a full number of chromosomes is considered to be
diploid
64
if 15 diploid parent cells undergo mitosis, how many daughter cells would be produced
30 diploid
65
what is the function of tRNA
to bring amino acids to the ribosome
66
which enzyme is responsible for replication
DNA polymerase
67
the location of a gene on a chromosome is the
locus
68
during which stage of translation are peptide bonds formed
elongation
69
sister chromatids separate in
mitosis and meiosis II
70
in which phase of mitosis do the centrosomes start to pull apart and chromosomes condense
prophase
71
which codon is responsible for initiation
AUG
72
interphase is the stage when
a cell grows and duplicates its DNA
73
a DNA molecule is normally made up of __ ___ strands
2 antiparallel
74
if all the offspring of a cross have the genotype Aa, the parents of the cross would most likely be
AA x aa
75
During elongation, the ribosome translocates along mRNA, and we label the three different sites where the ribosome is along the mRNA. What site contains the nascent polypeptide strand for almost the whole process?
P site
76
In which phase do the following steps occur- chromosomes become relaxed chromatin, nucleoli appear, spindle disassembles, nuclear envelope reassembles, and two diploid daughter cells are formed by a ring of actin
telophase of mitosis
77
In a monohybrid cross (homozygous dominant x homozygous recessive), what kind of allele becomes lost in the F1 generation's phenotype?
recessive
78
what is the term for nucleotides that have a single ring nitrogenous base
pyrimidine
79
In order to make mature mRNA, the __________________ must be removed. This will allow for the mRNA to leave the nucleus and for one gene to produce many forms of proteins.
introns
80
how many different gamete possibilities will there be if we cross two individuals for two traits
16
81
the alleles of a gene make up a person's ___
genotype
82
in humans, meiosis splits a ___ into 4 ___
germ cell; gametes
83
replication occurs to copy the DNA in a cell. in which direction is the new cell synthesized
5' --> 3'
84
___ is a process used to separate DNA by size and visualize the amount of DNA
gel electrophoresis
85
what are the names of the perpendicular cylinders at the cell's poles, which together are responsible for the formation of the spindle
centrioles
86
this portion of the sperm contains digestive enzymes that allow it to penetrate and fertilize the oocyte
acrosome
87
the letters inside the punnett square boxes represent
offspring genotype
88
a genotype of "gg" is referred to as
homozygous recessive
89
we call chromosome pairs 1-22
autosomes
90
a human cell that is in prophase will have ___ condensed chromosomes and ___ chromatids
46; 92
91
Huntington disease, which an example of an expansion mutation, ___ change the reading frame of the mRNA codons
does
92
If a (coding) DNA sequence is TACGGCTAAGCCACATATATT what would the primary structure of the polypeptide be once it is translated?
Met - Pro - Ile - Arg - Cys - Ile
93
how many possible codons are there that code for amino acids in most living organisms
61
94
the visual representation of the total number, shape, and size of each chromosome in the cell is the
karyotype
95
sister chromatids are held together at a region called
centromere
96
what is the purpose of polymerase chain reaction
to make copies of a specific DNA sequence or gene
97
this structure contains DNA and proteins, and is condenses chromatin, visible during mitosis
chromosomes
98
If you cross a heterozygous individual with a homozygous dominant individual for the dominant trait of having a widow's peak, what is the probability that the gamete would show this phenotype?
100%
99
If you cross two individuals with the following genotypes for two different traits- (Father) Bb HH and (Mother) bb hh. What is the probability that a gamete would show the dominant phenotype for both traits?
50%
100
DNA replication occurs during this stage of the cell cycle
S phase
101
at the end of oogenesis, the final products will be
1 viable egg and 3 polar bodies
102
a secondary spermatocyte is ___ and will go through ___
haploid; meiosis II
103
what are the 4 major types of tissue
nervous, connective, epithelial, muscle
104
which type of blood vessel is used to maintain homeostasis by constricting or dilating
arterioles
105
Embryonic stem cells are very unique in that they are __________________, which means they have the potential to become __________ kind(s) of cell(s).
omnipotent; any
106
the ___ circuit of the cardiovascular system pumps blood through the right side of the heart and to the ___
pulmonary; lungs
107
what would not contain oxygenated blood
pulmonary artery
108
the function of stratified squamous epithelial is to
protect
109
which oft the following is a specialized loose connective tissue
adipose
110
which type of anemia is caused by the destruction of red bone marrow
aplastic anemia
111
all epithelial tissue cells are connected to the
basement membrane
112
which of the following is an agranular white blood cell
monocyte
113
During a clot formation (using platelets), what are two of the factors that are converted during the "clotting cascade"?
prothrombin and fibrinogen
114
which white blood cell's main function is to fight parasitic infections
eosinophils
115
the serous membrane that protects the heart is called the
pericardium
116
which type of muscular tissue is not striated
smooth muscle
117
what is the function of thrombocytes in blood tissue
clot blood
118
If a patient is diagnosed with a cardiac arrhythmia, and their heartbeat has been constantly low, what would the medical term be for their condition?
bradycardia
119
what is the largest organ in the human body
skin
120
the right ventricle pushes blood out to the ___, whereas the left ventricle sends blood to the ___
lungs; body
121
the function of albumin plasma proteins is
to help maintain osmotic pressure
122
When plaque accumulates in blood vessels, it can restrict blood flow and cause atherosclerosis. If a clot forms and is still attached it is called a ________________, but if it becomes dislodged and floats to another area it is called ______________.
thrombosis; embolism
123
where is a location in the body where you might find simple columnar epithelial tissue
digestive organs
124
what would not increase the amount of blood pumped out of the heart
vasodilation of arterioles
125
what are chordae tendinae
fibers that support valves
126
what kind of tissue makes up your tendons and ligaments, and is strong due to the collagen fibers present
regular dense connective
127
what is the only type of muscle that we have voluntary control over
skeletal
128
what percentage of your blood is water
92%
129
both endocrine and exocrine glands are made of ___ tissue
epithelial
130
hyaline cartilage can be found in the ___, and contains an EM of ___ fibers
nose; fine collagen
131
the ___ valves are located after each ventricle, preventing backflow from the arteries
semilunar
132
what is found in blood tissue
plasma, leukocytes, albumin
133
the pulmonary vein carries ___ blood ___ the heart
oxygenated; towards
134
what is found in muscle tissue
myocytes, actin fibers, myosin fibers
135
What is the name of the blood vessel that collects blood from several different veins around the G.I. system and transports the blood to the liver where it will be filtered before returning to the heart?
hepatic portal vein
136
what is the step in the cardiac cycle when both the atria and the ventricles are relaxed
diastole
137
this type of cell junction connects the cytoplasm of neighboring cells. an example would be intercalated disks
gap junctions
138
what are the main components of bone
calcium salts, collagen fibers, phosphorus salts
139
which type of muscle tissue has only one nucleus per cell
smooth and cardiac
140
which cardiovascular disease is the hardening and thickening of the arteries due to high blood pressure
artheriosclerosis
141
what would a normal systolic blood pressure reading be
120
142
an example of an endocrine gland would be
sweat gland
143
___ tissues is made mostly of extracellular matrix, whereas ___ tissue is made mostly of cells
connective; nervous
144
what is found in cartilage
cell, collagen fibers, lacunae
145
where would you find spongy bone
end of long bones
146
what makes up the extracellular matrix in connective tissue
protein fibers and ground substance
147
if a person's blood pressure is too high, the correct homeostatic response would be
vasodilation of arterioles
148
what is the most uncommon white blood cell in our blood that is physically large and responsible for phagocytosis
monocyte
149
Which cardiovascular disorder results in an abnormal heartbeat because of disordered contraction?
ventricular fibrillation
150
what is the most common white blood cell in your blood
neutrophils
151
the result of the sinoatrial node firing is
atrial systole
152
chondrocytes and osteocytes are found inside of
lacunae
153
Which cell makes the myelin sheath for the brain and spinal chord neurons?
oligodendrocytes
154
Which antigens would be on the surface of a red blood cell in a person who was Type AB blood?
both A and B antigen
155
What antibodies would a person with type AB blood have in their blood plasma?
no antibodies in the plasma
156
Would this person with type AB blood be able to receive blood from a Type A donor? Why?
B. Yes, because they do not have Anti-A and Anti-B agglutinins in their plasma.
157
Who could this person with type AB blood donate blood to?
type AB recipient
158
This type of blood vessel is the only one to have valves inside to prevent backflow.
veins
159
These cells release histamine within the tissue starting the inflammatory response.
mast cells
160
immunity
the ability to combat diseases, can occur naturally or artificially, is the ability to combat cancer
161
What is the term used to describe the movement of air in or out of the body?
ventilation
162
vaccines are a form of this type ___ immunity
artificial active
163
If neutrophils need "back up" or more phagocytic cells at the site of pathogenic infection, they release
interleukins
164
What is the correct order of events in the inflammatory response?
Histamine release -> Vasodilation -> Edema -> Neutrophil phagocytosis
165
what is total lung capacity
vital capacity plus residual volume
166
An allergic response is caused by which of the following antibodies?
IgE
167
passive immunity
an individual given prepared antibodies against a particular antigen, this can happen naturally as antibodies are passed from mother to fetus, it is temporary immunity
168
During expiration, both the ____________ and the ___________ muscles relax, helping air to move __________
diaphragm; intercostal; out
169
A virus in a vaccine that has been killed or cannot infect a cell is termed as ___________________
attenuated
170
where do B cells mature
red bone marrow
171
Antigen-presenting cells require this process to be able to present the antigen of a pathogen on its surface
phagocytosis
172
Cytotoxic T cells release _______________, a chemical that makes the cell membrane of a pathogen to break open
perforin
173
The bronchioles contain cartilaginous rings, called cricoid cartilage, to help support the tubes and keep them open. true or false
false
174
The hallmark symptoms of the inflammatory response includes all of the following except
fever
175
The lower respiratory tract begins when the air hits the __________________
trachea
176
This is the main circulating antibody and is the most common in the body
IgG
177
What is the main purpose of the red pulp in the spleen?
to filter erythrocytes
178
what cells are involved in the removal of norovirus-infected cells
APC, cytotoxic T cells, helper T cells
179
The _______________ zone, which starts at the respiratory bronchioles, includes the alveoli helps to ______________
respiratory; exchange gases
180
The function of the _____________ is to make new formed elements like lymphocytes and erythrocytes
red bone marrow
181
Which of the following is not a cytokine?
IgA
182
What happens to blood vessels during an inflammatory response, which results in leukocytes being able to travel into the infected tissue due to the more permeable vessel walls?
blood vessels are dilated
183
where would you find lymph nodes
groin region, neck, armpit
184
The thymus gland is a ________________ organ of the lymphatic system
primary
185
What proteins raise our temperature in our body as a part of our secondary line of defense
pyrogens
186
Internal respiration would happen between ___________ circuit capillaries and tissue in the ____________
systemic; body
187
What is the purpose of interferon cytokines?
to signal neighboring cells that there is a virus nearby
188
what are examples of autoimmune diseases
multiple sclerosis, chrohn's disease, rheumatoid arthritis
189
what are components of the first line of defense
skin, lysozyme, sebaceous gland
190
If your pH labs come back to say your blood pH is 7.49, what condition do you have? And how will your breathing rate be affected automatically?
alkalosis; breathing will decrease in speed and depth
191
what is found in the dermis layer of the skin
nerve endings, glands, blood vessels
192
Which is the first layer of epidermis cells, right underneath the dead keratinocytes?
stratum corneum
193
Our second line of defense is ___________________ and __________________.
innate; nonspecific
194
What type of white blood cells produce antibodies?
effector B cells
195
What type of tissue is the epidermis made out of?
stratified squamous epithelial tissue
196
What type of cells present the antigens of pathogenic organisms on the surface of their cell in order to initiate a specific immune response?
antigen presenting cells
197
Which of the following cells is not involved in Antibody-Mediated (Humoral) immune responses?
cytotoxic T cells
198
What is the purpose of Cell-Mediated immunity?
to kill nonspecific pathogens
199
______________ is produced by the septal cells in the alveoli to help reduce friction and keep them open for gas exchange.
surfactant
200
______________ result from exposure to harmless substances that provoke an immune attack.
allergies
201
Natural killer (NK) cells are __________________ and stimulate ________________ of infected cells
nonspecific; apoptosis
202
An example of natural passive immunity would be
antibodies going from mother to fetus
203
Which of the following respiratory diseases is not caused by a pathogen?
asthma
204
Some ____ cells differentiate into Natural Killer cells
T cells
205
What type of immunity makes your own antibodies?
active immunity
206
During inspiration, the volume of the lungs becomes _____________, _______________ the amount of pressure inside of the thoracic cavity, forcing air to enter.
larger; decreasing
207
If air is flowing into your body, which part of the respiratory tract would it pass through first?
trachea
208
catabolism
To break down larger molecules into smaller molecules
209
anabolism
Builds up molecules that the body needs and constructs smaller molecules to large molecules
210
stimulus receptor
Monitors the environment and reports changes: sends input signals
211
control center
Receives and evaluates the signal from the stimulus receptor: formulates a response by sending an output signal
212
an effector
Receives the signal from the control center: carries out the response
213
negative feedback system
Operate to reverse, reduce, or eliminate the changes detected by the stimulus receptor
214
positive feedback system
Operate to re-enforce the detected change by the stimulus receptor
215
secondary consumer
Carnivores that feed on herbivores
216
primary consumer
Herbivores that feed on producers
217
tertiary and quaternary
Carnivores that feed on other carnivores
218
How many electrons does the first shell hold?
2
219
How many electrons does the second shell hold?
8
220
How many electrons does the third shell hold?
18
221
isotopes
are same atom with different numbers of neutrons
222
hydrogen bond
weakest bond
223
ionic bond
positive to negative
224
covalent bond
strongest bond. polarity
225
exothermic
Energy is released when the bond is formed; C + O2 = CO2
226
endothermic
To store energy in the body for later release; the formation of longer-chain sugars from short-chain, simple sugars
227
pH scale of acids and bases
acid: (0-7) - [H+] > [OH-]
base: (7-14) - [H+] < [OH-]
228
acidosis
Blood pH below 7.0; leads to coma and death
229
alkalosis
Blood pH increase to 7.8; leads to tetany and death
230
glycocalyx
Layer on cell membrane, defines cells as belonging to a specific organism, defines both blood type and tissue type
231
passive transport
With concentration gradient; No energy required
232
active transport
Against concentration gradient; Requires ATP
233
diffusion
Substance moving toward the area of its lower concentration
234
osmosis
Diffusion of water across a semipermeable membrane
235
isotonic
Equal flow into and out of the cell
236
hypertonic
Causes cell to shrivel up; A higher concentration of solutes than the cytosol
237
hypotonic
Causes cell to burst; A lower concentration of solutes than the cytosol
238
endocytosis
Extracellular molecules and particles are taken into the cell via vesicle formation
239
exocytosis
Secretory products or waste products are removed from the cell
240
rough ER
Proteins synthesized by the ribosomes on its outer membrane
241
smooth ER
Synthesis of fatty acids and steroid hormones; has no attached ribosomes
242
trascription
DNA --> mRNA
243
translation
mRNA --> protein
244
stop codons
UAA, UAG, and UGA
245
initiation
Initiator tRNA with AUG attached binds to mRNA codon
246
elongation
Peptide bonds form between incoming amino acids
247
terminiation
Stop codon; detachment of the new polypeptide
248
rule of segregation
based on predictions from one-trait crosses
249
rule of independent assortment
based on predictions from two-trait crosses
250
genome
The complete set of genes (and alleles) in a certain organism
251
pleiotropy
Wide-ranging effect of one gene
252
codominance
Heterozygous for a trait, but both alleles are expressed
253
penetrance
Probability that someone who inherits an allele will have the phenotype associated with it
254
polygenic traits
Combined expression of several genes
Skin and eye color
255
multifactoral trait
Phenotypes shaped by one or more gene(s) and affected by the environment, ex. height
256
sex-influence traits
Appear more often in one gender than the other, Genes located on autosomes
257
sex-limited genes
Males and females inherit the same genes (on the X chromosome) Only the gene's appropriate for the person's gender are turned on
258
interphase
G1, S, G2
259
prophase
Coiling and condensing of the chromosomes, Microtubules forming, Nuclear membrane begins breaking up
260
metaphase
Nuclear membrane breaks apart, Duplicated chromosomes align midway (metaphase plate) between the poles of the cell
261
anaphase
Sister chromatids split; become independent chromosomes, Pulled by the microtubules toward the pole region, Spindle elongates, pushing the poles farther apart
262
telophase
Chromosomes no longer connected to the spindle, Chromosomes are threadlike, once again form chromatin, Nuclear envelope forms around each cluster
263
How many daughter cells do Mitosis have?
2
264
How many daughter cells do Meiosis have?
4
265
How many chromosomes do mitosis have?
46
266
How many chromosomes do meiosis have?
23
267
cytokinesis
Division of the cytoplasm, Begins toward the end of anaphase, Cleavage furrow forms, Microfilaments pull the plasma membrane inward all around the cell, Pinches the cell in two
268
mitosis
Division of somatic cells, Maintains Diploid Chromosome number (2n --> 2n)
Purpose: Growth, Replace worn out or dead cells, Repair tissue
269
meiosis
Division of germ cells, Halve the diploid number to haploid (2n --> 1n)
Purpose: First stage in sexual reproduction
270
prophase 1
The chromosomes condense, and the nuclear envelope breaks down. crossing-over occurs.
271
metaphase 1
Pairs of homologous chromosomes move to the equator of the cell.
272
anaphase 1
Homologous chromosomes move to the opposite poles of the cell.
273
telophase 1
Chromosomes gather at the poles of the cells. the cytoplasm divides.
274
prophase 2
A new spindle forms around the chromosomes.
275
metaphase 2
Chromosomes line up at the equator.
276
anaphase 2
Centromeres divides. chromatids move to the opposite poles of the cells.
277
telophase 2
A nuclear envelope forms around each set of chromosomes. the cytoplasm divides.
278
reductional division
Reduces the number of chromosomes to a haploid number
279
spermatogensis
In the male, the process that forms four haploid sperm, Diploid germ cell increases in size
280
oogenesis
In the female, the process that forms one haploid egg and up to 3 haploid polar bodies, Female at birth has primary oocytes arrested in prophase I
281
steps of when spermatogenic cells begin producing sperm
1. Divide into spermatogonia
2. That divide into primary spermatocytes
3. That then divide into secondary spermatocytes
4. That finally divide into spermatids
282
chromatin
decondensed DNA
283
chromosomes
condensed DNA visible during Mitosis
284
chromatids
one half of the chromosome
285
centromeres
middle of chromosome. Holds everything together
286
centrosomes
total of all centrioles and microtubles
287
centrioles
rigatoni shaped structure that forms microtubles
288
crossing over
homologous chromosomes exchange material and diversify cells
289
disjunction
pairs separate during anaphase I, Chromosomes move to opposite poles of dividing cell
290
epithelial tissue
cover the body surface or line its cavities and tubes, Skin largest organ, Simple Pseudostratified, Stratified Transitional
291
simple tissue
one layer of cells
292
pseudostratified tissue
one layer but looks like several
293
stratified tissue
several layers of cells
294
transitional tissue
moves from several layers to single layer
295
squamous epithelium
Thin to form a membrane that compounds can move via diffusion
296
cuboidal and columnar epithelia
usually compose mucous membranes
297
simple epithelium
Usually functions as a diffusion or absorption membrane, Lining of blood vessels and the lining of respiratory membranes
298
stratified epithelia
have many layers of cells and are designed for protection, found in the outermost layer of skin and in salivary gland ducts
299
connective tissue
connects, supports, and anchors the body's parts
Most abundant type of tissue
300
fibrous connective tissue
Loose and Dense; soft connective tissue
301
supportive connective tissue
Bone and Cartilage
302
fluid connective tissue
Blood and Lymph
303
loose connective tissue
Flexible, fewer cells and fibers
Soft organs like liver, spleen, and lymph nodes
304
dense connective tissue
Less flexible; stronger, More collagen
305
elastic connective tissue
Stretchy due to elastin fibers
306
adipose tissue
contains adipocytes (fat cells), specialized for lipid storage, does not have an extensive extracellular matrix
307
hyaline cartilage
Fine collagen fibers
Location: Nose, ends of long bones and fetal skeleton
308
elastic cartilage
More elastic fibers than cartilage fibers
Location: Outer ear and epiglottis
309
fibrocartilage
Strong collagen fibers
Location: Disks between vertebrae and knee joints
310
muscle tissue
Function: movement and heat
Muscle fibers (myocytes), protein filaments: Actin and Myosin
311
skeletal muscle
striated; usually attached to bone; voluntary
312
smooth muscle
tapered; walls of internal organs; involuntary
313
cardiac muscle
striated; cardiac wall; special cellular junctions; involuntary
314
integumentary organ system
protecting and covering
315
skeletal organ system
support
316
muscular organ system
movement and heat protection
317
nervous organ system
sensing and responding
318
cardiovascular organ system
transporting fluids and oxygen
319
respiratory organ system
gas exchange
320
urinary organ system
fluid balance
321
endocrine organ system
regulating sequential growth and development
322
digestive organ system
obtaining nutrients
323
lymphatic organ system
immunity
324
reproductive organ system
continuation of species
325
dorsal cavity
Cranial cavity housing the brain, Vertebral cavity contains the spinal cord
326
ventral cavity
Thoracic cavity includes the chest area and houses the heart, lungs, vessels, and lymphatic system
Abdominopelvic cavity: abdominal cavity houses the abdominal organs and is lined with the peritoneum
Pelvic cavity houses organs of urinary system and reproductive system
327
lub
AV valves are closing
328
dub
Semilunar valves are closing
329
intrinsic controls
establish the "normal" heart beat
330
extrinsic controls
modulate the baseline rate to meet the body's immediate demands
331
p wave
SA node fires, causing atrial cell depolarization
332
qrs complex
created by the simultaneous depolarization of ventricular cells
333
t wave
ventricle cells relax and repolarize, marking the return to diastole
334
p-r interval
from atrial depolarization to ventricle depolarization
335
q-t interval
total time of ventricular contraction and relaxation
336
where is blood pressure the highest
arteries (aorta)
337
where is blood pressure the lowest
veins (inferior vena cava)
338
where is blood flow the fastest
arteries
339
where is blood flow the slowest
capillaries
340
pulmonary circuit
To, through, and from lungs
Exchange CO2 for O2 in the lungs
341
systemic circuit
To body's tissues, Brings this O2 (and nutrients) to tissues, Removes CO2 and wastes
342
when does an aneurysm occur
when a vessel wall "balloons" under pressure
343
what are the 3 granular cells
neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils
344
what are the 2 agranular cells
lymphocytes, monocytes
345
neutrophil
Most Abundant, 50-70% of WBC's, multi-lobed nucleus, move out of circulation into tissues to use phagocytosis to engulf pathogens
346
eosinphils
Small percentage of WBC's, contains a bilobed nucleus, Many large granules, function in parasitic infections, combat histamine, & phagocytize antigen-antibody complexes
347
basophils
Small percentage of WBC's, contains a U-shaped or lobed nucleus, release histamine, heparin, & serotonin related to allergic reactions
348
lymphocytes
About 25-35% of all WBC's, Large nucleus that takes up most of the cytoplasm
349
B lymphocytes
antibody mediated immunity
350
T lymphocytes
cell-mediated immunity
351
natural killer cells
Destroy cancer cells
352
monocyte
Relatively uncommon, Most become Macrophages and Dendritic cells
353
macrophages
phagocytic in tissues and blood
354
dendritic cells
phagocytic in the skin
355
secretion
distal convoluted tubule
356
filtration
renal corpuscle
357
reabsorption
proximal convoluted tubule
358
glomerular filtration
separates small components from the blood
359
tubular secretion
large molecules move into nephron tubule
360
tubular reabsorption
useful molecules move out of nephron tubule
