final Flashcards
(300 cards)
1
Q
Skin, lung, and blood vessel walls have which tissue characteristic in common?
a. elastic fibers
b. reticular fibers
c. simple columnar epithelium
d. simple squamous epithelium
A
a. elastic fibers
2
Q
Which is a modification of the simple columnar epithelium that allows for efficient absorption along portions of the digestive tract?
a. dense microvilli
b. cilia
c. fibroblasts
d. thin and permeable
A
a. dense microvilli
3
Q
the body cavities that protects the nervous system are located in the ______ cavity.
a. cranial
b. thoracic
c. ventral
d. dorsal
e. vertebral
A
d. dorsal
4
Q
One of the descriptions below is from the perspective of anatomical study, the rest are from a physiological perspective. Select the description below that comes from an anatomical perspective.
a. the direction of blood flow through the heart is directed by one way valves
b. the extremely thin tissue (simple squamous epithelium) of the lungs allows for the quick diffusion of respiratory gases into and out of the body
c. the cell-to-cell connections between heart (cardiac) muscle cells are strong. they hold the tissue together for a life time of forceful contractions
d. the innermost lining of the lungs is composed primarily of a thin tissue called simple squamous epithelium
A
d. the innermost lining of the lungs is composed primarily of a thin tissue called simple squamous epithelium
5
Q
You are asked to take a person’s heart rate at the popliteal pulse point. You will look for this pulse______.
a. in the distal end of the lower leg
b. on the posterior side of the knee
c. at the posterior side of the wrist
d. on the palmar side of the hand
A
b. on the posterior side of the knee
6
Q
Inability to absorb digested nutrients and secrete mucus might indicate a disorder in which epithelial tissue?
a. simple columnar
b. transitional
c. simple squamous
d. stratified squamous
A
a. simple columnar
7
Q
Glands, such as the thyroid, that secrete their products directly into the blood rather than through ducts are classified as _______.
a. ceruminous
b. exocrine
c. endocrine
d. sebaceous
A
c. endocrine
8
Q
When a bay suckles at its mother’s breast the stimulus at the breast is sent to the mother’s brain (a region called the hypothalamus). The brain responds by releasing hormones to stimulate the production and the ejection of milk from the breast. This helps the newborn to receive nourishment and encourages more suckling. This example is best described as a _______.
a. necessary life function
b. negative feedback
c. loss of homeostasis
d. positive feedback
A
d. positive feedback
9
Q
One of the functional characteristics of life is excitability or responsiveness. This refers to ______.
a. indigestible food residues stimulating the excretory system
b. the necessity for all organisms to reproduce
c. sensing changes in the environment and then reacting or responding to them
d. the nervous system causing all living things to sometimes experience anger
A
c. sensing changes in the environment and then reacting or responding to them
10
Q
A needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which order?
a. granulosum, basale, spinosum, corneum
b. basale, spinosum, granulosum, corneum
c. corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale
d. basale, spinosum, granulosum, lucidum, corneum
A
c. corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale
11
Q
Which cells are commonly found wedged between simple columnar epithelial cells?
a. mast cells
b. goblet cells
c. macrophages
d. fibroblasts
A
b. goblet cells
12
Q
Select the correct statement regarding adipose tissue.
a. mature adipose cells are highly mitotic
b. most of the cell volume is occupied by the nucleus
c. its primary function is nutrient storage
d. it is composed mostly of extracellular matrix
A
c. its primary function is nutrient storage
13
Q
Which layer of the epidermis will be supplied with the highest levels of oxygen from the blood?
a. stratum spinosum
b. stratum corneum
c. stratum granulosum
d. stratum basale
A
d. stratum basale
14
Q
A ciliated version of pseudostratified columnar epithelium containing mucus-secreting goblet cells ________.
a. is more durable than all other epithelia
b. is found in some of the larger glands
c. aids in digestion
d. lines most of the respiratory tract
A
d. lines most of the respiratory tract
15
Q
Which tissue in the wall of the uterus is required for labor contractions?
a. elastic cartilage
b. stratified squamous
c. skeletal muscle
d. smooth muscle
A
d. smooth muscle
16
Q
Which example listed below illustrates homeostasis maintained by a negative feedback?
a. an increase in sebum production in response to androgens (male sex hormones)
b. release of sweat by eccrine glands in response to heat
c. excretion of salts within the sweat
d. lack of pain in third degree burns due to damage to sensory nerves in the dermis
A
b. release of sweat by eccrine glands in response to heat
17
Q
What is the first threat to life from a massive third-degree burn?
a. catastrophic fluid loss
b. loss of immune function
c. unbearable pain
d. infection
A
a. catastrophic fluid loss
18
Q
A light skinned person may appear pink when they become over heated. The best explanation for this is ______.
a. the blood vessels of the dermis have undergone vasocdlation, brining a greater volume of blood to the skin
b. blood flow has increased to the sweat glands in order to increased their metabolic activity
c. the melanocytes are responding to the heat of the sun and change the appearance of the skin with increased production
d. the heart is pumping faster because the person was probably exercising
A
a. the blood vessels of the dermis have undergone vasocdlation, brining a greater volume of blood to the skin
19
Q
Connective tissue extracellular matric is composed of _______.
a. cells and fibers
b. ground substance and cells
c. fibers and ground substance
d. all organic compounds
A
c. fibers and ground substance
20
Q
Which is not part of the dorsal cavity?
a. vertebral cavity
b. spinal cord
c. thoracic cavity
d. cranial cavity
A
c. thoracic cavity
21
Q
Anatomical position is important because _______.
a. it allows a common point of reference for body position to help communicate anatomical relationships
b. it allows diagrams within textbooks to display a greater surface area of the body with one simple diagram
c. it is the position most comfortable to hospital patients
d. it provides the greatest circulation to the extremities
A
a. it allows a common point of reference for body position to help communicate anatomical relationships
22
Q
Homeostasis is the condition in which the body maintains _____.
a. a static state with no deviation from preset points
b. the lowest possible energy usage
c. a relatively stable internal environment, within limits
d. a dynamic state within an unlimited range, depending on circumstances
A
c. a relatively stable internal environment, within limits
23
Q
Melanocytes and keratinocytes work together in protecting the skin form UV damage when keratinocytes _______.
a. accumulate the melanin granules on their superficial portion, forming a UV-blocking pigment layer
b. maintain the appropriate pH in order for the melanocyte to synthesize melanin granules
c. provide the melanocyte with nutrients necessary for melanin synthesis
d. maintain the appropriate temperature so the product of the melanocyte will not denature
A
a. accumulate the melanin granules on their superficial portion, forming a UV-blocking pigment layer
24
Q
True or False:
In the anatomical position, the lateral forearm bone is the radius.
A
True
25
Which is true about epithelia?
a. endothelium provides a slick surface lining all hollow and cardiovascular organs
b. pseudostratified epithelia are commonly keratinized
c. stratified epithelia are associated with filtration
d. simple epithelia are commonly found in areas of high abrasion
a. endothelium provides a slick surface lining all hollow and cardiovascular organs
26
Which tissue type likley functions to add support to an organ?
a. cardiac muscle
b. stratified squamous epithelium
c. transitional
d. hyaline cartilage
d. hyaline cartilage
27
The reason that intervertebral discs exhibit a large amount of tensile strength, which allows them to absorb shock, is because they possess ______.
a. hydroxyapatite crystals
b. elastic fibers
c. reticular fibers
d. collagen fibers
d. collagen fibers
28
The epithelial membrane that lines body cavities open to the exterior membrane
mucous
29
Found lining the digestive and respiratory tracts
mucous
30
Lines the blood vessels and the heart
endothelium membrane
31
Consists of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
cutaneous
32
The epithelial membrane that lines the closed ventral cavities of the body
serous membrane
33
Makes up the pleura and pericardium
serous membrane
34
Some of the nerve endings in the skin are sensitive to changes in temperature. They are part of a negative feedback mechanism regulating body temperature. These nerve endings represent a(n) ____ in the negative feedback mechanism.
a. effector
b. control center
c. receptor
d. homeostatic balance or "ideal" value
c. receptor
35
The major regions of a hair shaft include all of the following except _____.
a. external root sheath
b. cuticle
c. cortex
d. medulla
a. external root sheath
36
What is a vertical section through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior regions called?
a. median
b. frontal
c. transverse
d. sagittal
b. frontal
37
Which tissue would line the uterine (fallopian) tubes and function as a "conveyer belt" to help move a fertilized egg towards the uterus?
a. smooth muscle
b. ciliated simple columnar epithelium
c. stratified squamous epithelium
d. simple cuboidal epithelium
b. ciliated simple columnar epithelium
37
Which epithelia forms the walls of the air sacs across which gas exchange occurs in the lungs?
a. simple columnar
b. simple squamous
c. simple cuboidal
d. pseudostratified columnar
b. simple squamous
37
Prevention of water loss is a necessary function for life that would best fit in the category of ______.
a. maintaining boundaries
b. responsiveness
c. metabolism
d. excretion
a. maintaining boundaries
38
A substance received or given off by your body will likely pass through which tissue type?
a. nervous tissue
b. connective tissue
c. muscle tissue
d. epithelial tissue
d. epithelial tissue
39
The first step in tissue repair involves ______.
a. proliferation of fibrous connective tissue
b. replacement of destroyed tissue by the same kind of cells
c. inflammation
d. formation of scar tissue
c. inflammation
40
Water loss through the epidermis could cause a serious threat to health and well-being. Which of the following protects us against excessive water loss through the skin?
a. glycolipids that are secreted by keratinocytes into extracellular spaces
b. the size and shape the of the cells that make up the stratum spinosum, as well as the thick bundles of intermediate filaments.
c. the dermis is the thickest portion of the skin and water cannot pass through it
d. fat associated with skin prevents water loss
a. glycolipids that are secreted by keratinocytes into extracellular spaces
41
Expiration (breathing out) is how the body removes excessive carbon dioxide from the blood. This is an example of ______.
a. responsiveness
b. maintaining boundaries
c. excretion of metabolic waste
d. metabolism
c. excretion of metabolic waste
42
Sudoriferous (sweat) glands are categorized as two distinct types. Which of the following are the two types of sweat glands?
a. eccrine and apocrine
b. mammary and ceruminous
c. sebaceous and merocrine
d. holocrine and mammary
a. eccrine and apocrine
43
Which statement is the most correct regarding homeostatic imbalance?
a. negative feedback mechanisms are functioning normally
b. the internal environment is becoming more stable
c. it is considered the cause of most disease
d. positive feedback mechanisms are overwhelmed
c. it is considered the cause of most disease
44
One of the descriptions below is from the perspective of physiological study, the rest are from an anatomical perspective. Select the description below that comes from physiological perspective.
a. the pancreas lies deep to the stomach within the abdominal cavity
b. the contraction of smooth muscle in blood vessels (vasoconstriction) can reduce the flow of blood through the vessel
c. the skull is formed by 22 facial and cranial bones
d. the chambers of the heart and blood vessels leading to and from the heart are separated by valves composed of fibrous connective tissue
b. the contraction of smooth muscle in blood vessels (vasoconstriction) can reduce the flow of blood through the vessel
45
How is hyaline cartilage different from elastic cartilage or fibrocartilage?
a. fibers are not normally visible
b. it is more vascularized
c. it allows for great flexibility
d. it contains more nuclei
a. fibers are not normally visible
46
The single most important risk for skin cancer is _______.
a. use of farm chemicals
b. race
c. overexposure to UV radiation
d. genetics
c. overexposure to UV radiation
47
In which body cavities are the lungs located?
a. pericardial, ventral, and thoracic
b. pleural, dorsal, and abdominal
c. mediastinal, thoracic, and ventral
d. pleural, ventral, and thoracic
d. pleural, ventral, and thoracic
48
Apocrine glands, which begin to function at puberty under hormonal influence, seem to play little role in thermoregulation. Where would we find these glands in the human body?
a. in all body regions and buried deep in the dermis
b. beneath the flexure lines in the body
c. in the palms of the hands and soles of the feet
d. in the axillary and anogenital area
d. in the axillary and anogenital area
49
The thoracic cavity contains the ______. It is found ______ to the vertebral cavity.
a. digestive viscera: inferior
b. heart and lungs: anterior
c. kidneys and spleen: deep
d. stomach and liver: superficial
b. heart and lungs: anterior
50
Which is NOT found in cartilage but is found in bone?
a. lacunae
b. organic fibers
c. blood vessels
d. living cells
c. blood vessels
51
Which layer of skin is LEAST protected by melanin?
a. stratum basale
b. stratum spinosum
c. stratum granulosum
d. stratum corneum
d. stratum corneum
52
William has a cut that is superficial, painful but not bleeding. based on this information you would predict that the cut has penetrated to ________.
a. the papillary layer, but not the reticular layer
b. the subcutaneous layer, but no deeper
c. the stratum basale, but not the dermal layers
d. the stratum corneum but not the stratum granulosum
c. the stratum basale, but not the dermal layers
53
Which describes a parasagittal plane?
a. any cut dividing the body into anterior and posterior portions
b. a transverse cut just above the knees
c. two cuts diving the body into left and right halves
d. any sagittal plane except in the midline
d. any sagittal plane except in the midline
54
The reason the hypodermis acts as a shock absorber is that ______.
a. the cells that make up the hypodermis secrete a protective mucus
b. it has no delicate nerve endings and can therefore absorb more shock
c. it is located just below the epidermis and protects the dermis from shock
d. the major part of its makeup is adipose, which serves as an effective shock absorber
d. the major part of its makeup is adipose, which serves as an effective shock absorber
55
Choose the statement that is not completely correct regarding serous membranes.
a. visceral pericardium covers the outer surface of the heart, and parietal pericardium of the heart and parietal pericardium lines the internal walls of the heart
b. serosa are very thin, double-layered structures
c. serous membranes secrete a watery lubricating fluid
d. serous membranes are divided into parietal and visceral membranes with a virtual space between the two
a. visceral pericardium covers the outer surface of the heart, and parietal pericardium of the heart and parietal pericardium lines the internal walls of the heart
56
The function of the root hair plexus is to ______.
a. cause apocrine gland secretion into the hair follicle
b. allow the hair to assist in touch sensation
c. bind the hair root to the dermis
d. serve as a source for new epidermal cells for hair growth after the resting stage has passed
b. allow the hair to assist in touch sensation
57
The terms inversion and eversion pertain only to the ______.
a. feet
b. arms
c. hands
d. hands and feet
a. feet
58
Which is not a function of the skeletal system?
a. production of blood cells (hematopoiesis)
b. support
c. communication
d. storage of minerals
c. communication
59
True or False:
A person who has been diagnosed with a sprained ankle has an injury to the ligaments that attach to that joint.
True
60
Performing "jumping jacks" requires ______.
a. abduction and adduction
b. inversion and eversion
c. pronation and supination
d. flexion and extension
a. abduction and adduction
61
The antebrachium is composed of which of the following two bones?
a. the scapula and the clavicle
b. the humerus and the radius
c. the radius and the ulna
d. the humerus and the clavicle
c. the radius and the ulna
62
When an osteoblast becomes completely surrounded by its own matrix secretions it is referred to as an .
a. osteogenic cell
b. osteoclast
c. chondrocyte
d. osteocyte
d. osteocyte
63
True or False:
All joints permit some degree of movement, even if very slight.
False
64
True or False:
In the anatomical position, the lateral forearm bone is the radius.
True
65
Ossification (osteogenesis) is the process of _______.
a. bone formation
b. making collagen fibers for calcified cartilage
c. making a cartilage model of the fetal bone
d. bone destruction to liberate calcium
a. bone formation
66
True or False:
The hormone that is primarily involved int he control of bone remodeling is calcitonin
False
67
In the classification of joints, which of the following is true?
a. all synovial joints are freely movable
b. synarthrotic joints are slightly movable
c. in cartilaginous joints, a joint cavity is present
d. immovable joints are called amphiarthroses
a. all synovial joints are freely movable
68
What are the major functions of the intervertebral discs?
a. to absorb shock and provide flexibility to the spine
b. to remove the curvatures of the spine and provide springiness to the spinal column
c. to prevent hyperextension and allow rotation of the spine
d. to hole together the vertebra and support the body
a. to absorb shock and provide flexibility to the spine
69
A fibrous joint that is a peg-in-socket is called a ________ joint.
a. syndesmosis
b. gomphosis
c. synchondrosis
d. suture
b. gomphosis
70
Pointing the toes is an example of ________.
a. plantar flexion
b. circumduction
c. pronation
d. protraction
a. plantar flexion
71
Lengthwise, long bone growth during infancy and youth is exclusively through _______.
a. the secretion of bone matrix into the medullary cavity
b. calcification of the matric of the zone underlying articular cartilage
c. interstitial growth of the epiphyseal plates
d. differentiation of osteoclasts into osteocytes
c. interstitial growth of the epiphyseal plates
72
At an archeological site you discover a bone that is cylindrical in shape, about one inch long and a quarter of an inch wide. Choose the correct classification.
a. short
b. long
c. sesamoid
d. irregular
b. long
73
The process of bones increasing in thickness is known as ______.
a. closing of the epiphyseal plate
b. epiphyseal plat closure
c. concentric growth
d. appositional growth
d. appositional growth
74
In symphysis joints the articular surfaces of the bones are covered with _______.
a. hyaline cartilage
b. tendon sheaths
c. synovial membranes
d. fibrocartilage
d. fibrocartilage
75
What kind of tissue is the forerunner of long bones in the embryo?
a. dense fibrous connective tissue
b. hyaline cartilage
c. fibrocartilage
d. elastic connective tissue
b. hyaline cartilage
76
Fibrous joints are classified as ______.
a. sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses
b. pivot, hinge, and ball and socket
c. hinge, saddle, and ellipsoidal
d. symphysis, sacroiliac, and articular
a. sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses
77
The structure of bone tissue suits the function. Which of the following bone tissues is adapted to support weight and withstand torsion stresses?
a. trabecular bone
b. compact bone
c. irregular bone
d. spongy bone
b. compact bone
78
Which bones is not weight bearing?
a. fibula
b. femur
c. talus
d. tibia
a. fibula
79
Which statement best describes interstitial growth of cartilage?
a. chondrocytes in the lacunae divide and secrete matrix, allowing the cartilage to grow from within
b. fibroblasts give rise to chondrocytes that differentiate and form cartilage
c. unspecialized cells from mesenchyme develop into chondrocytes, which divide and form cartilage
d. growth occurs in the lining of the long bones
a. chondrocytes in the lacunae divide and secrete matrix, allowing the cartilage to grow from within
80
Bending your head back until it hurts is an example of ______.
a. flexion
b. hyperextension
c. circumduction
d. extension
b. hyperextension
81
A fracture in the shaft of a bone would be a break in the ______.
a. articular cartilage
b. epiphysis
c. diaphysis
d. metaphysis
c. diaphysis
82
What can a deficiency of growth hormone during bone formation cause?
a. decreased osteoclast activity
b. increased osteoclast activity
c. inadequate calcification of bone
d. decreased epiphyseal plate activity
d. decreased epiphyseal plate activity
83
Articular cartilage found at the ends of the long bones serves to _______.
a. produce red blood cells (hemopoiesis)
b. attach tendons
c. form the synovial membrane
d. provide a smooth surface at the ends of synovial joints
d. provide a smooth surface at the ends of synovial joints
84
Connective tissue sacs lined with synovial membrane that act as cushions in places where friction develops are called ______.
a. menisci
b. tendons
c. bursae
d. ligaments
c. bursae
85
Which movement does NOT increase or decrease the angle between bones?
a. rotation
b. circumduction
c. extension
d. abduction
a. rotation
86
What is moving a limb away from the midline of the body along the frontal plane called?
a. abduction
b. adduction
d. extension
d. flexion
a. abduction
87
Skeletal remains are discovered at an archeological site. X-rays of the femur show evidence of a thin epiphyseal plate. This bone likely belonged to which of the following?
a. 18 year old male
b. 25 year old female
c. 5 year old female
d. 60 year old make
a. 18 year old male
88
Which is the best description for the function of the cranial bones?
a. house the special sense organs
b. providing passageways for respiratory gases to move into and out of the body
c. protection of the brain
d. allowing introduction of food into the digestive system
c. protection of the brain
89
Which part of the vertebral column receives the most stress by bearing most of the weight of the body?
a. the cervical region
b. the sacral promontory
c. the sacrum
d. the lumbar region
d. the lumbar region
90
After nervous stimulation stops, what prevents ACh in the synaptic cleft from continuing to stimulate contraction?
a. acetylcholinesterase destroying the ACh
b. the action potential stops going down the overloaded T tubules
c. calcium ions returning to the terminal cisternae
d. the tropomyosin blocking the myosin once full contraction is achieved
a. acetylcholinesterase destroying the ACh
91
A second nerve impulse cannot be generated until ______.
a. the Na ions have been pumped back into the cell
b. the membrane potential has been reestablished
c. proteins have been resynthesized
d. all sodium gates are closed
b. the membrane potential has been reestablished
92
The light of dawn and the buzz of an alarm clock lead to wakefulness through the _______.
a. basal nuclei
b. limbic system
c. cerebellar peduncles
d. reticular activating system
d. reticular activating system
93
What is the primary function of wave summation?
a. produce smooth, continuous muscle contraction
b. prevent muscle relaxation
c. increase muscle tension
d. prevent muscle fatigue
a. produce smooth, continuous muscle contraction
94
Injury to the hypothalamus may result in all of the following EXCEPT _______.
a. dehydration
b. loss of body temperature control
c. loss of fine motor control
d. sleep disturbances
c. loss of fine motor control
95
Which muscle is NOT a member of the quadriceps femoris?
a. rectus femoris
b. vastus lateralis
c. vastus intermedius
d. biceps femoris
d. biceps femoris
96
What structure in skeletal muscle cells functions in calcium storage?
a. intermediate filament network
b. myofibrillar network
c. sarcoplasmic reticulum
d. mitochondria
c. sarcoplasmic reticulum
97
An action potential is regarded as an example of positive feedback. Which of the following examples below best illustrates the positive feedback aspect of an action potential?
a. potassium permeability is about 25 times greater than sodium ions
b. a threshold stimulus will cause the opening of voltage gated sodium ion channels that will cause further depolarizing stimulus. The stimulus will open still more voltage gated sodium ion channels
c. voltage gated potassium ion channels open slowly and remain open long enough to cause hyperpolarization
d. the sodium potassium pump consistently moves ions as long as ATP is available, and regardless of membrane potential changes.
b. a threshold stimulus will cause the opening of voltage gated sodium ion channels that will cause further depolarizing stimulus. The stimulus will open still more voltage gated sodium ion channels
98
Which of the following would you not find in normal cerebrospinal fluid?
a. potassium
b. glucose
c. protein
d. red blood cells
d. red blood cells
99
The subarachnoid space lies between what two layers of meninges?
a. arachnoid and epidura
b. arachnoid and dura
c. arachnoid and pia
d. dura and epidura
c. arachnoid and pia
100
During muscle contraction, myosin cross bridges attach to which active sites?
a. myosin filaments
b. Z discs
c. actin filaments
d. thick filaments
c. actin filaments
101
Indicated by movement of the eyes under the lids; dreaming occurs
REM
102
May allow the brain to work through emotional problems in dream imagery
REM
103
Theta and delta waves begin to appear in this stage of sleep
NREM stage 3
104
The stage when vital signs (blood pressure, heart rate, and body temperature) reach their lowest normal levels
NREM stage 4
105
The sleep cycle where bed-wetting, night terrors, and sleepwalking may occur
NREM stage 4
106
Very easy to awaken; EEG shows alpha waves; may even deny being asleep
NREM stage 1
107
Typified by sleep spindles
NREM stage 2
108
Nerve impulses leading to the skeletal muscle carry information to direct movement. The nerve fibers sending these signals will most likely belong to which division of the nervous system?
a. sensory (afferent) division
b. somatic nervous system
c. sympathetic division
d. parasympathetic division
b. somatic nervous system
109
Which is an excitatory neurotransmitter secreted by motor neurons innervating skeletal muscle?
a. gamma aminobutyric acid
b. acetylcholine
c. cholinesterase
d. norepinephrine
b. acetylcholine
110
The process of linking new facts with old facts already stored in the memory bank is called ________.
a. long term memory
b. rehearsal
c. automatic memory
d. association
d. association
111
An individual who could trace a picture of a bicycle with this or her finger but could not recognize it as a bicycle is mot likely to have sustained damage to the ______.
a. visual association area
b. lateral geniculate body
c. calcarine cortex
d. primary visual cortex
a. visual association are
112
The sliding filament model of contraction involves _______.
a. actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping
b. actin and myosin lengthening in order to slide past each other
c. the Z discs sliding over the myofilaments
d. the shortening of thick filaments so that thin filaments slide past
a. actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping
113
Collections of nerve cell bodies outside the central nervous system are called _______.
a. tracts
b. nuclei
c. ganglia
d. nerves
c. ganglia
114
Saltatory conduction is made possible by _______.
a. erratic transmission of nerve impulses
b. diphasic impulses
c. large nerve fibers
d. the myelin sheath
d. the myelin sheath
115
Rigor mortis occurs because ______.
a. no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules
b. sodium ions leak into the muscle causing continued contractions
c. the cells are dead
d. proteins are beginning to break down, thus preventing a flow of calcium ions
a. no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules
116
When the term biceps, triceps, or quadriceps forms part of a muscle's name, what does it tell you about the muscle?
a. the muscle has two, three, or four insertions, respectively
b. the muscle has two, three, or four origins, respectively
c. the muscle is able to change direction twice, three times, or four times faster than other muscles, respectively
d. the muscle has two, three, or four functions, respectively
insertions, respectively
b. the muscle has two, three, or four origins, respectively
117
What is a factor that affects the velocity and duration of muscle contraction?
a. number of muscle fibers stimulated
b. muscle length
c. size of the muscle fibers stimulated
d. load on the fiber
d. load on the fiber
118
The oxygen-binding protein found in muscle cells is ______.
a. immunoglobin
b. myoglobin
c. hemoglobin
d. ATP
b. myoglobin
119
The brain area that regulates activities that control the state of wakefulness or alertness of the cerebral cortex is the ______.
a. reticular formation
b. pyramids
c. thalamus
d. limbic system
a. reticular formation
120
Nerve impulses leading to the brain carry information about cool temperatures on the skin. The nerve fibers sending these signals will most likely belong to which division of the nervous system?
a. sensory (afferent) division
b. somatic nervous system
c. sympathetic division
d. parasympathetic division
a. sensory (afferent) division
121
The concentration of ions in the chemical environment surrounding the neurons must be tightly regulated for neurons to function properly. Which of the following cells is most responsible for this?
a. satellite cells
b. astrocytes
c. Schwann cells
d. oligodendrocytes
b. astrocytes
122
The auditory area is part of the _______ lobe.
temporal
123
The visual area is part of the _______ lobe
occipital
124
The gustatory (taste) area is part of the _______ lobe
Insula
125
The primary somatosensory cortex is part of the _______ lobe
parietal
126
The primary (somatic) motor cortex is part of the _______ lobe
frontal
127
The motor speech (Broca's) area is part of the _______ lobe
frontal
128
The premotor cortex is part of the _______ lobe
frontal
129
Seat of intelligence, abstract reasoning is part of the _______ lobe
frontal
130
Meningitis can be caused by infection of the central nervous system by bacteria. Which cells would be most responsible for removing the infection?
a. schwann cells
b. oligodendrocytes
c. microglia
d. satellite cells
c. microglia
131
The brain stem consists of the _____.
a. midbrain, medulla, and pons
b. pons, medulla, cerebellum, and midbrain
c. cerebrum, pons, midbrain, and medulla
d. midbrain only
a. midbrain, medulla, and pons
132
Based on what you know of the relationship between the thick and the thin filaments, what would happen if a disorder existed that caused a person to produce no tropomyosin?
a. the muscle would be weaker than normal
b. actin will spontaneously fall apart
c. the muscle tissues would never be able to relax
d. the muscle would never contract
c. the muscle tissues would never be able to relax
133
Broca's area _______.
a. is usually found only in the right hemisphere
b. serves the recognition of complex objects
c. controls voluntary movements of the yes
d. is considered a motor speech area
d. is considered a motor speech area
134
The white matter of the spinal cord contains _____.
a. unmyelinated nerve fibers only
b. myelinated and unmyelinated nerve fibers
c. cell bodies
d. myelinated nerve fibers only
b. myelinated and unmyelinated nerve fibers
135
The large commissure that connects the right and left sides of the brain is called the ______.
a. internal capsule
b. corona radiata
c. longitudinal fissure
d. corpus callosum
d. corpus callosum
136
Which of the following muscles is involved in crossing one leg over the other to produce the cross-legged position?
a. the gastrocnemius
b. the quadriceps femoris
c. all of the hamstrings
d. the sartorius
d. the sartorius
137
The contractile unit of skeletal muscles are ______.
a. T tubules
b. microtubules
c. mitochondria
d. myofibrils
d. myofibrils
138
Which describes the ANS?
a. motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands
b. sensory neurons that convey information from somatic receptors in the head, body wall, and limbs and from receptors from the special senses of vision, hearing, taste, and smell to the CNS
c. motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscles
d. sensory and motor neurons that supply the digestive tract
a. motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands
139
What type of cells line the ventricles of the brain?
a. ependymal cells
b. astrocytes
c. neurons
d. epithelial cells
a. ependymal cells
140
These cells in the CNS have cilia that move in order to circulate cerebrospinal fluid _______.
a. oligodendrocytes
b. ependymal cells
c. schwann cells
d. astrocytes
b. ependymal cells
141
Nerve impulses are sent to slow the heart's rate of contraction. The nerve fibers sending these signals will most likely belong to which division of the nervous system?
a. sensory (afferent) division
b. somatic nervous system
c. sympathetic division
d. parasympathetic division
d. parasympathetic division
142
Ridges of tissue on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres are called _______.
a. sulci
b. ganglia
c. gyri
d. fissures
c. gyri
143
What is the role of tropomyosin in skeletal muscles?
a. tropomyosin is the receptor for the motor neuron neurotransmitter
b. tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the actin binding sites on the myosin molecules
c. tropomyosin is the chemical that activates the myosin heads
d. tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin binding sites on the actin molecules
d. tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin binding sites on the actin molecules
144
A shallow groove on the surface of the cortex is called a ______.
a. furrow
b. gyrus
c. sulcus
d. fissure
c. sulcus
145
Which part of the cerebral cortex is involved in intellect, cognition, recall, and personality?
a. limbic association area
b. posterior association area
c. combined primary somatosensory cortex and somatosensory association cortex
d. prefrontal cortex (anterior association area)
d. prefrontal cortex (anterior association area)
146
Loss of ability to perform skilled motor activities such as piano playing, with no paralysis or weakness in specific muscles, might suggest damage to the ______.
a. premotor cortex
b. rubrospinal tracts
c. spinal cord
d. primary motor cortex
a. premotor cortex
147
Which fissure separates the cerebral hemispheres?
a. parieto-occipital fissure
b. lateral fissure
c. longitudinal fissure
d. central fissure
c. longitudinal fissure
148
Which describes the nervous system integrative function?
a. senses changes in the environment
b. analyzes sensory information, stores information, makes decisions
c. responds to stimuli by gland secretion or muscle contraction
b. analyzes sensory information, stores information, makes decisions
149
Muscle tissue has all of the following properties except _______.
a. excitability
b. extensibility
c. secretion
d. contractility
c. secretion
150
Part of the diencephalon that is a major integrating and relay station for sensory impulses
Thalamus
151
Produces automatic behaviors necessary for survival
brain stem
152
Houses many vital autonomic centers involved in the control of heart rate, respiratory rhythm, blood pressure as well as involuntary centers involved in vomiting, swallowing, etc.
Medulla oblongata
153
Part of the diencephalon that is an important autonomic center involved in regulation of body temperature, water balance, and fat and carbohydrate metabolism, as well as in many other activities and drives, such as sex, hunger, and thirst
hypothalamus
154
Concern with unconscious coordination of skeletal muscle activity and control of balance and equilibrium
cerebellum
154
Which ion channel opens in response to a change in membrane potential and participates in the generation and conduction of action potentials?
a. ligand-gated channel
b. voltage-gated channel
c. mechanically gated channel
d. leakage channel
b. voltage-gated channel
155
Which of the following muscles fixes and stabilizes the pelvis during walking?
a. external oblique
b. rectus abdominis
c. internal oblique
d. transversus abdominis
b. rectus abdominis
156
What is the main factor that determines the power of a muscle?
a. the shape
b. the total number of muscle fibers (cells) available for contraction
c. the length
d. the number of neurons innervating it
b. the total number of muscle fibers (cells) available for contraction
157
The blood-brain barrier is effective against ________.
a. anesthetics
b. metabolic waste such as urea
c. alcohol
d. nutrients such as glucose
b. metabolic waste such as urea
158
Schwann cells are functionally similar to ______.
a. oligodendrocytes
b. ependymal cells
c. astrocytes
d. microglia
a. oligodendrocytes
159
Cell bodies of sensory neurons are located in _______.
a. the ventral root ganglia of the spinal cord
b. the thalamus
c. sympathetic ganglia
d. the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord
d. the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord
160
A nursing infant develops a powerful sucking muscle that inserts to the muscle which adults also use for whistling (orbicularis oris). What is this muscle called?
a. platysma
b. masseter
c. buccinator
d. zygomaticus
c. buccinator
161
REM sleep is associated with _______.
a. decreased activity of the brain, especially the cerebral cortex
b. temporary skeletal muscle inhibition except for ocular muscles and diaphragm
c. decreased vital signs, such as heart rate and blood pressure
d. decreased oxygen use, especially in the cerebral cortex
b. temporary skeletal muscle inhibition except for ocular muscles and diaphragm
162
Which is not characteristic of neurons?
a. they are mitotic
b. they have extreme longevity
c. they have an exceptionally high metabolic rate
d. they conduct impulses
a. they are mitotic
163
Immediately after an action potential has peaked, which of the following channels will open?
a. voltage gated potassium channels
b. voltage gated calcium channels
c. chemically gated chloride channels
d. voltage gated sodium channels
a. voltage gated potassium channels
164
Which is not a function of the CSF?
a. nourishment of the brain
b. initiation of some nerve impulses
c. protection from blows
d. reduction of brain weight
b. initiation of some nerve impulses
165
Which is the correct sequence of events for muscle contractions?
a. neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, motor neuron action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, sliding of myofilaments, ATP-driven power stroke
b. muscle cell action potential, neurotransmitter release, ATP-driven power stroke, calcium ion release from SR, sliding of myofilaments
c. neurotransmitter release, motor neuron action potential, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke
d. motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments
d. motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments
166
Which is NOT a way of classifying muscles?
a. muscle shape
b. the type of action they cause
c. the type of muscle fibers
d. muscle location
c. the type of muscle fibers
167
What is the functional unit of a skeletal muscle called?
a. the sarcoplasmic reticulum
b. a sarcomere
c. a myofilament
d. a myofibril
b. a sarcomere
168
Which of the following is NOT a member of the hamstrings?
a. semimembranosus
b. gracilis
c. semitendinosus
d. biceps femoris
b. gracilis
169
Which is true about the movement of ions across excitable living membranes?
a. ions always move actively across membranes through leakage channels
b, ions always move from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration
c. ions always move passively across membranes
d. sodium gates in the membrane can open in response to electrical potential changes
d. sodium gates in the membrane can open in response to electrical potential changes
170
True or False:
Muscles are only able to pull, they never push
True
171
The interior surface of a neuron's plasma membrane at resting membrane potential will have a ______.
a. negative charge and contains less sodium than outside of the cell
b. negative charge and contains more sodium than outside of the cell
c. positive charge and contains less sodium than outside of the cell
d. positive charge and contains more sodium than outside of the cell
a. negative charge and contains less sodium than outside of the cell
172
The area of the cortex that is responsible for sensing a full bladder and the feeling that your lungs will burst when you hold your breath too long is the ______.
a. visceral sensory area
b. olfactory cortex
c. vestibular cortex
d. gustatory cortex
a. visceral sensory area
173
Approximately 80% of a muscle fiber's volume are the myofibrils. This characteristic reflects muscles ability to ______.
a. generate and propagate action potential
b. produce relatively high amounts of ATP
c. store oxygen molecules that can be used in aerobic respiration
d. produce movement through contractile force
d. produce movement through contractile force
174
A neuron that has as its primary function the job of connecting other neurons is called a(n) _______.
a. interneuron
b. efferent neuron
c. afferent neuron
d. glial cell
a. interneuron
175
Sympathetic division stimulation causes ______.
a. decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
b. increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
c. decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure
d. increased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure
b. increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
176
If you shine a light into one eye both pupils will constrict. The best explanation for this is ______.
a. a small portion of light always enters the other eye
b. information from one eye is directly and immediately transferred to the other eye to maintain alignment of the eyes
c. sensory input from the retinas of both eye converges at the optic chiasm and information from each eye is delivered to both the left and right sides of the brain
d. this, in fact, does not occur; information from both eyes is always separated
c. sensory input from the retinas of both eye converges at the optic chiasm and information from each eye is delivered to both the left and right sides of the brain
177
Which receptors respond to stimuli within the body?
a. proprioceptors
b. interceptors
c. photoreceptors
d. exteroceptors
b. interceptors
178
Which types of receptors are located in the mouth?
a. chemoreceptors, mechanoreceptors, thermoreceptors, and nociceptors
b. chemoreceptors, thermoreceptors, and nociceptors only
c. thermoreceptors, mechanoreceptors, and nociceptors only
d. chemoreceptors only
a. chemoreceptors, mechanoreceptors, thermoreceptors, and nociceptors
179
Paralysis of which eye muscle would prevent the right eye from looking to the left?
a. lateral rectus
b. inferior rectus
c. medial rectus
d. superior rectus
c. medial rectus
180
Dark adaptation ______.
a. involves accumulation of rhodopsin
b. primarily involves improvement of acuity and color vision
c. is much faster than light adaption
d. results in inhibition of rod function
a. involves accumulation of rhodopsin
181
A patient has lost the ability to taste food. Which nerve may have been damaged?
a. the abducens nerves
b. the facial nerves
c. trigeminal nerves
d. the optic nerves
b. the facial nerves
182
The cranial nerve that emerges from the pons and serves the motor and proprioceptive functions of the eyeball is the _____.
a. glossopharyngeal
b. vagus
c. hypoglossal
d. abducens
d. abducens
183
In a crossed-extensor reflex, if the right arm was grabbed it would flex and the left arm would _______.
a. adduct
b. extend
c. also flex
d. abduct
b. extend
184
Innervates the superior oblique muscle
B
185
Longest cranial nerve
D
186
Damage to this nerve would cause dizziness, nausea, and loss of balance
C
187
Involved in movement of the digestive tract
D
188
Damage to this nerve would cause difficulty in speech and swallowing, but no effect on visceral organs
E
189
Damage to this nerve would keep the eye from rotating inferolaterally
B
190
What reflex tests both upper and lower motor pathways. The sole of the foot is stimulated with a dull instrument.
Plantar
191
What reflex consists of an ipsilateral withdrawal reflex and an contralateral extensor reflex; important in maintaining balance?
crossed-extensor
192
What reflex produces a rapid withdrawal of the body part from a painful stimulus and is ipsilateral?
flexor
193
What reflex prevents muscle overstretching and maintains muscle tone?
stretch
194
What reflex produces muscle relaxation and lengthening in response to tension; the contracting muscle relaxes as its antagonist is activated?
tendon
195
The secretions of the adrenal medulla act to supplement the effects of ______.
a. somatic stimulation
b. parasympathetic innervation
c. sympathetic stimulation
d. vagus (X) nerve activity
c. sympathetic stimulation
196
Which best describes the function of the iris?
a. controls amount of light entering eye
b. refracts light through the pupil
c. adjusts the shape of the lens
d. gives the eye its color
a. controls amount of light entering eye
197
A mugger steals your wallet causing all of the following to happen EXCEPT _______.
a. inability to read close-up print
b. increased metabolic rate
c. increased glucose uptake to the liver from blood
d. increased rate and force of heartbeat
c. increased glucose uptake to the liver from blood
198
Erection (vasodilation) of the penis or clitoris ______.
a. is primarily under sympathetic control
b. depends very little on autonomic activation
c. is the result of coordinated activation by both sympathetic and parasympathetic input
d. is primarily under parasympathetic control
d. is primarily under parasympathetic control
199
Which nerve is compressed in carap tunnel syndrome?
a. ulnar
b. axillary
c. median
d. radial
c. median
200
After axonal injury, regeneration in peripheral nerves is guided by _______.
a. dendrites
b. golgi organs
c. schwann cells
d. wallerian cells
c. schwann cells
201
Which is a function of the parasympathetic division?
a. produces "goosebumps"
b. contracts smooth muscle of the bladder wall and relaxes urethral sphincter
c. dilates bronchioles
d. increases heart rate and force of contraction
b. contracts smooth muscle of the bladder wall and relaxes urethral sphincter
202
Which is NOT a result of parasympathetic stimulation?
a. salivation
b. dilation of the pupils
c. elimination of urine
d. increased peristalsis of the digestive viscera
b. dilation of the pupils
203
The sciatic nerve is a combination of which two nerves?
a. pudendal and common fibular
b. posterior femoral cutaneous and tibial
c. common fibular and tibial
d. pudendal and posterior femoral cutaneous
c. common fibular and tibial
204
Which types of neurons are replaced throughout adult life?
a. retinal bipolar cells
b. retinal ganglion cells
c. olfactory receptor cells
d. auditory outer and inner hair cells
c. olfactory receptor cells
205
Inborn or intrinsic reflexes are ______.
a. autonomic only
b. involuntary, yet may be modified by learning behavior
c. always mediated by the brain
d. rapid, predictable, and can be learned responses
b. involuntary, yet may be modified by learning behavior
206
Which of the following adrenergic neurotransmitter receptors plays the major role in heart activity?
a. beta 1
b. beta 3
c. beta 2
d. alpha 1
a. beta 1
207
Damage to this nerve would cause dizziness, nausea, and loss of balance
C
208
Parasympathetic or Sympathetic?
Active after you have eaten a meal
parasympathetic
209
Parasympathetic or Sympathetic?
Decreases heart rate
parasympathetic
210
Parasympathetic or Sympathetic?
Maintenance functions
parasympathetic
211
Parasympathetic or Sympathetic?
Stimulates ciliary muscles of the eye, which makes the lens bulge for close vision
parasympathetic
212
Parasympathetic or Sympathetic?
Increases blood pressure
sympathetic
213
Acts as a reflexively activated diaphragm to vary pupil size
C
214
The only tissue in the body that can be transplanted from one person to another with little or no rejection
B
215
Controls lens shape
A
216
Viscous liquid that holds the retina firmly against the pigmented layer
E
217
Increased pressure here causes glaucoma
D
218
Preparing the body for the "flight-or-flight" response is the role of the ______.
a. somatic nervous system
b. sympathetic division
c. parasympathetic division
d. cerebrum
b. sympathetic division
219
Nutrients are delivered and waste products are carried away from the cells of the posterior segment of the eye by blood vessels. However, the cells in the cornea and lens (in the anterior segment) are avascular. Which is the best explanation for how these cells are maintained?
a. the nutrients and waste products of the anterior segment diffuse into and through the vitreous humor of the posterior segment.
b. the metabolic activity of these cells is very low. They produce little waste and need few nutrients.
c. these cells, like the cells of the corneal layer of the integument are not living cells.
d. the aqueous humor is continuously replenished and flows from the ciliary process to drain in the scleral venous sinus.
d. the aqueous humor is continuously replenished and flows from the ciliary process to drain in the scleral venous sinus.
220
Autonomic ganglia contain ________.
a. both somatic afferent and efferent neurons
b. the cell bodies of motor neurons
c. an outer connective tissue capsule around the cell bodies of preganglionic motor neurons
d. synapses between postganglionic fibers and their effectors
b. the cell bodies of motor neurons
221
Damage to the medial rectus muscles would probably affect ________.
a. convergence
b. refraction
c. accommodation
d. pupil constriction
a. convergence
222
Hair cells receptive to changes in dynamic equilibrium are found in this structure
Crista ampullaris
223
Chemically sensitive microvilli found in this structure
taste buds
224
Chemically sensitive cilia are found in this structure
olfactory epithelium
225
The receptor organ for hearing is the
spiral organ (of corti)
226
A membrane that transmits sound vibrations to the auditory ossicles
tympanic membrane
227
The elasticity of the lens decreases with age. This leads to which of the following?
a. less accommodation of the lenses and difficulty focusing on nearby objects
b. lowered accommodation of the pupillary reflex and blurry vision
c. less light getting to the retina and diminished visual acuity
d. a clouding of the lenses known as a cataract
a. less accommodation of the lenses and difficulty focusing on nearby objects
228
As a cook chops red onions he begins to tear up due to activation of the lacrimal gland. Which of the following nerves provided the stimulus?
a. the olfactory nerve (I)
b. the vagus nerve (X)
c. the facial nerve (VII)
d. the optic nerve (II)
c. the facial nerve (VII)
229
A patient is suffering from the inability to distinguish various types of odors. This patient may have damage to which of the following?
a. facial nerve (VIII)
b. olfactory nerve (I)
c. hypoglossal nerve (XII)
d. vagus nerve (X)
b. olfactory nerve (I)
230
An emergency medical technician is examining a trauma victim by shining a pen light into her patient's eye. She records the reactivity of the patient's pupils as they constrict when stimulated by the light. This test supports which of the following?
a. The patient has lost function of the optic nerve (II).
b. The patient has function of the trochlear nerve (IV).
c. The patient has function of the oculomotor nerve (III).
d. The patient has suffered brain damage.
c. The patient has function of the oculomotor nerve (III).
231
A person has gone for an appointment to receive a deep-tissue therapeutic massage. Which of the following receptors would be stimulated by the massage?
a. free nerve ending
b. lamellae corpuscle
c. tactile corpuscle
d. tendon organ
b. lamellae corpuscle
232
Damage to this nerve would keep the eye from rotating inferolaterally
B
233
If someone spills very hot coffee (200°F) on their skin, they will likely perceive much pain. Which of the following receptor types is causing this sensation?
a. nociceptors
b. thermoreceptors
c. mechanoreceptors
d. chemoreceptors
a. nociceptors
234
Which of these effectors is NOT directly controlled by the autonomic nervous system?
a. skeletal muscle
b. smooth muscle
c. cardiac muscle
d. most glands
a. skeletal muscle
235
Which could NOT be seen as one looks into the eye with an ophthalmoscope?
a. optic disc
b. optic chiasma
c. macula lutea
d. fovea centralis
b. optic chiasma
236
We can touch our finger to our nose while our eyes are closed in part because we can sense the position and movement of our joints as well as the length of stretch in our muscles. These sensations create awareness of our body's positioning. The following receptors are most likely responsible for this ability.
a. interoceptors
b. proprioceptors
c. nociceptors
d. exteroceptors
b. proprioceptors
237
Regeneration within the CNS ________.
a. typically allows axonal sprouting of 20 mm
b. is more successful than with the PNS
c. is promoted by growth inhibitors and glial scars
d. is prevented due to growth-inhibiting proteins of oligodendrocytes
d. is prevented due to growth-inhibiting proteins of oligodendrocytes
238
The smooth muscle of the digestive viscera is served largely by the ________.
a. pelvic nerves
b. lumbar splanchnic nerves
c. vagus (X) nerves
d. cephalic plexus
c. vagus (X) nerves
239
Humans can smell as many as 10,000 different odors but have significantly fewer types of olfactory receptors. Which of the following is the best explanation for why humans can distinguish so many smells?
a. The sensation of a single, distinct smell is a combination of a variety of chemicals that stimulate different combinations of olfactory receptor cells all at once.
b. Taste receptors that are active at the same time influence the subtlety of what we smell.
c. The olfactory pathway travels to location in the brain in which memories are formed and we simply mix this new sensory information with old memories.
d. The belief that we can smell so many different distinct odors is a psychological process referred to as an uncinate fit or olfactory hallucination.
a. The sensation of a single, distinct smell is a combination of a variety of chemicals that stimulate different combinations of olfactory receptor cells all at once.
240
A fracture of the ethmoid bone could result in damage to which cranial nerve?
a. accessory
b. glossopharyngeal
c. vagus
d. olfactory
d. olfactory
241
Select the correct statement about equilibrium.
a. Hair cells involved in both static and dynamic equilibrium hyperpolarize only, resulting in an increased rate of impulse transmission.
b. Cristae respond to angular acceleration and deceleration.
c. Due to dynamic equilibrium, movement can be perceived if rotation of the body continues at a constant rate.
d. The weight of the endolymph contained within the semicircular canals against the maculae is responsible for static equilibrium.
b. Cristae respond to angular acceleration and deceleration.
242
Ear stones
otoliths
243
Connects the middle ear with the nasopharynx
pharyngotympanic tube
244
Separates external acoustic meatus from the middle ear
tympanic membrane
245
Contains utricle and saccule
vestibule
246
Detects linear acceleration
vestibule
247
What is the primary function of cerumen?
a. softens tympanic membrane
b. lubricates ossicles
c. prevents water from entering middle ear
d. cleans and lubricates the external auditory canal
d. cleans and lubricates the external auditory canal
248
Receptors that respond to changes in room temperature are found in the skin. Which pairs of classifications below best fit the receptor type that is being described above?
a. thermoreceptors that are also exteroceptors
b. thermoreceptors that are also interoceptors
c. mechanoreceptors that are also exteroceptors
d. mechanoreceptors that are also interoceptors
a. thermoreceptors that are also exteroceptors
249
Nerves that carry impulses toward the CNS only are ________.
a. mixed nerves
b. efferent nerves
c. afferent nerves
d. motor nerves
c. afferent nerves
250
Visceral reflex arcs differ from somatic in that ________.
a. somatic arcs contain one additional component that visceral arcs do not possess
b. visceral arcs do not use integration centers
c. visceral arcs involve two motor neurons
d. visceral arcs contain two sensory neurons
c. visceral arcs involve two motor neurons
251
The parasympathetic fibers of the ________ nerves innervate smooth muscles of the eye that cause the lenses to bulge to accommodate close vision.
a. optic (II)
b. trochlear (IV)
c. abducens (VI)
d. oculomotor (III)
d. oculomotor (III)
252
Ordinarily, it is NOT possible to transplant tissues from one person to another, yet corneas can be transplanted without tissue rejection. This is because the cornea ________.
a. has no blood supply
b. is not a living tissue
c. has no nerve supply
d. does not contain connective tissue
a. has no blood supply
253
A bit of dust blows into and touches the cornea of the eye. Which of the following is likely to happen?
a. Stimulation of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve (V) will cause blinking.
b. Stimulation of the optic nerve (II) will cause tears to flow from the lacrimal gland.
c. Nothing, because there is no sensory information sent from the cornea.
d. Stimulation of the facial nerve (VII) will be perceived as pain.
a. Stimulation of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve (V) will cause blinking.
254
The receptor for static equilibrium is the ________.
a. cochlear duct
b. semicircular canals
c. utricle
d. macula
d. macula
255
Which is mismatched?
a. penis ejaculation; sympathetic
b. promotes urination; sympathetic
c. gallbladder contracts to expel bile; parasympathetic
d. bronchiole dilation in lungs; sympathetic
b. promotes urination; sympathetic
256
The somatic and autonomic nervous systems differ in all of the following EXCEPT ________.
a. regulation of activity by higher brain centers
b. their efferent pathways and ganglia
c. their effectors
d. target organ responses to their neurotransmitters
a. regulation of activity by higher brain centers
257
A patient has an injury of the spine and is now suffering from a loss of motor function in his right arm. However, he still has normal sensory function in the arm. Based on this information it is likely that the patient has nervous tissue damage located at ________.
a. spinal nerves of the cervical vertebra
b. the dorsal rootlets located at one of the thoracic vertebra
c. the ventral root located at one or more of the cervical vertebra
d. the dorsal root located at one or more of the cervical vertebra
c. the ventral root located at one or more of the cervical vertebra
258
Tom is a 45-year-old male that has lost his ability to hear high frequency sounds. The most likely explanation for this would be ________.
a. damage to the hair cells near the oval window in the cochlear duct
b. an overgrowth of bony tissue, fusing the ossicles together
c. a perforated tympanic membrane
d. a middle ear infection
a. damage to the hair cells near the oval window in the cochlear duct
259
As light travels through the eye, it passes through several structures or chambers before reaching the retina. Which list below gives those structures in the correct order?
a. cornea, anterior chamber, pupil, lens, posterior segment
b. cornea, lens, pupil, anterior chamber, posterior segment
c. cornea, pupil, lens, anterior chamber, posterior segment
d. cornea, pupil, anterior chamber, lens, posterior segment
a. cornea, anterior chamber, pupil, lens, posterior segment
260
Dancers will use a technique called "spotting" when they perform spins of the body. By holding their head and eyes on a fixed point in front of them as their body spins they reduce the amount of head spinning and this prevents dizziness. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for why this works?
a. When the eyes send a static vision of stability to the brain, it is tricked into believing the body is still and therefore dizziness will not occur.
b. This helps keep the motions detected by the eyes congruent (aligned) with the motions sensed by the vestibular apparatus.
c. Reducing the inertia of head spin will reduce the flow of endolymph that deflects the hair cells of the crista ampullaris.
d. This will help to reduce the lateral flection of the head and will prevent hyper polarization or depolarization of the hair cells in the macula.
c. Reducing the inertia of head spin will reduce the flow of endolymph that deflects the hair cells of the crista ampullaris.
261
Control of temperature, endocrine activity, and thirst are functions associated with the ________.
a. thalamus
b. cerebellum
c. hypothalamus
d. medulla
c. hypothalamus
262
Which is the main integration center of the autonomic nervous system?
a. hypothalamus
b. reticular formation
c. midbrain
d. medulla oblongata
a. hypothalamus
263
Which is the correct simple spinal reflex arc?
a. effector, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, receptor
b. receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector
c. receptor, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, effector
d. effector, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, receptor
b. receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector
264
The receptor membranes of gustatory cells are ________.
a. fungiform papillae
b. basal cells
c. gustatory hairs
d. taste buds
c. gustatory hairs
265
Which is an exclusively sympathetic function?
a. regulation of cardiac rate
b. regulation of pupil size
c. regulation of body temperature
d. regulation of respiratory rate
c. regulation of body temperature
266
Which is a uniquely sympathetic function?
a. regulation of pupil size
b. regulation of respiratory rate
c. regulation of body temperature
d. regulation of cardiac rate
c. regulation of body temperature
267
Emotions influence autonomic reactions primarily through integration in the ________.
a. inferior colliculus
b. hypothalamus
c. lateral horn of the spinal cord
d. lateral geniculate of the thalamus
b. hypothalamus
268
Ceruminous glands are ________.
a. modified apocrine sweat glands
b. saliva glands found at the base of the tongue
c. glands found in the lateral corners of your eye
d. modified taste buds
a. modified apocrine sweat glands
269
Problems in balance may follow trauma to which nerve?
a. accessory
b. trigeminal
c. abducens
d. vestibulocochlear
d. vestibulocochlear
270
Sympathetic responses generally are widespread because ________.
a. preganglionic fibers are short
b. inactivation of ACh is fairly slow
c. preganglionic fibers are long
d. NE and epinephrine are secreted into the blood as part of the sympathetic response
d. NE and epinephrine are secreted into the blood as part of the sympathetic response
271
A patient who has experienced previous jaw and face trauma now reports difficulty tasting with the tip of her tongue. Which cranial nerve was likely damaged in that injury?
a. Trigeminal (V)
b. Glossopharyngeal (IX)
c. Hypoglossal (XII)
d. Facial (VII)
d. Facial (VII)
272
Damage to this nerve would cause difficulty in speech and swallowing, but no effect on visceral organs.
E
273
The obturator and femoral nerves branch from this plexus.
Lumbar plexus
274
Striking the "funny bone" (ulnar nerve) may cause injury to a nerve of this plexus.
Brachial plexus
275
Trauma to a nerve of this plexus may cause wrist drop.
Brachial plexus
276
A fall or improper administration of an injection to the buttocks may injure a nerve of this plexus.
Sacral plexus
277
The phrenic nerve branches from this plexus.
Cervical plexus
278
The sensory layer of the eye.
Retina
279
Helps maintain the intraocular pressure; located in the anterior part of the eye.
Aqueous humor
280
The structure most responsible for focusing light rays that enter the eye.
Lens
281
Area of greatest visual acuity.
Fovea centralis
282
Which does NOT describe the ANS?
a. a system of motor neurons that innervates all muscle cells
b. involuntary nervous system
c. general visceral motor system
d. a system of motor neurons that innervates smooth and cardiac muscle and glands
a. a system of motor neurons that innervates all muscle cells
283
Which is the best explanation of why it is difficult to discriminate the color of an object at night?
a. The foveae are densely packed with cones.
b. As many as 100 cones may converge on one ganglion cell.
c. Cones come in three types, each sensitive to different wavelengths of light.
d. At night, dilation of pupils stimulates the retina, where more rods are located rather than cones.
d. At night, dilation of pupils stimulates the retina, where more rods are located rather than cones.
284
Protects and shapes the eyeball; provides a sturdy anchoring site for extrinsic eye muscles.
A
285
Contains only cones; provides detailed color vision.
D
286
Lacks photoreceptors; where optic nerve exits the eye.
E
287
Consists of a pigmented layer and a neural layer.
C
288
Striking the "funny bone" is actually stimulation of (or injury to) the ________.
a. sciatic nerve
b. radial nerve
c. median nerve
d. ulnar nerve
d. ulnar nerve
289
The ability to clearly see objects at a distance but not close up is properly called ________.
a. hypopia
b. hyperopia
c. presbyopia
d. myopia
b. hyperopia
290
Labyrinthitis is a medical condition often caused by a viral infection, resulting in swelling and inflammation of the membranous labyrinth. Which of the following symptoms would you most associate with the condition of labyrinthitis?
a. ringing in the ears (tinnitus)
b. loss of hearing
c. loss of balance and dizziness
d. auditory hallucination
c. loss of balance and dizziness
291
The route of major parasympathetic outflow from the head is via the ________.
a. sympathetic trunk
b. sacral nerves
c. phrenic nerve
d. vagus (X) nerves
d. vagus (X) nerves
292
Mixed nerves; primarily motor; main general sensory nerves of the face.
Trigeminal
293
Purely sensory; transmit visual impulses from the retina to the thalamus.
Optic
294
Mixed nerves; transmit sensory impulses from the taste buds of the posterior tongue.
Glossopharyngeal
295
Primarily motor; carry motor and propioceptor impusles to and from the eyeballs.
Trochlear
296
Mixed nerves; carry sensory impulses from the taste buds of anterior two-thirds of the tongue.
Facial
297
Tactile sensation is a combination of touch, pressure, stretch, and vibration. Which of the following is most likely the receptor type that senses tactile stimulation?
a. thermoreceptors
b. proprioceptors
c. mechanoreceptors
d. nociceptors
c. mechanoreceptors
