Final 2013 Flashcards

(194 cards)

1
Q

The picture represents which mechanism?

a. Cooperativity
b. Potentiation
c. Summation
d. Synergism

A

a. Cooperativity

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2
Q

What is the diagnosis according to the ECG shown?

a. Anterior STEMI (ST elevation in V2-V4)
b. Angina pectoralis
c. Pericarditis
d. Inferior STEMI

A

a. Anterior STEMI (ST elevation in V2-V4)

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3
Q

What does the figure represent?

a. aortic insufficiency
b. mitral stenosis
c. Severe LV dysfunction, often in advanced aortic stenosis
d. Bigeminal pulse
e. Cardiac tamponade
f. Heart failure

A

a. aortic insufficiency

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4
Q

What does the figure represent? a. aortic insufficiency b. mitral stenosis c. Severe LV dysfunction, often in advanced aortic stenosis d. Bigeminal pulse e. Cardiac tamponade f. Heart failure

A

c. Severe LV dysfunction, often in advanced aortic stenosis

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5
Q

EBM question had a description of a study with similar table

A

-

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6
Q

What is associated with an immediate acute blood transfusion reaction?

a. IgE
b. IgG
c. IgM
d. IgA

A

c. IgM

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7
Q

A patient came with fatigue & fever, CBC showed high WBCs, & blood smear shower Auer rods. What is the diagnosis?

a. AML
b. CML
c. ALL
d. CLL

A

a. AML

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8
Q

A Rhesus factor positive test refers to the presence of which antigen on the RBCs?

a. A antigen
b. B antigen
c. O antigen
d. D antigen
e. AB antigen

A

d. D antigen

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9
Q

What results in type 2 hypersensitivity reaction following blood transfusion?

  1. Antibodies adsorbed on RBC membrane
  2. Immune complex deposition
  3. Cytokines releas
A
  1. Antibodies adsorbed on RBC membrane
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10
Q

What is the main enzyme for fibrinolytic action?

  1. Thrombin
  2. Plasmin
  3. Fibrinogen
A
  1. Plasmin
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11
Q

A patient with a history of recurrent infections presented with fever & sore throat, what would you find in his blood smear?

a. Eosinophilia
b. Basophilia
c. Leukocytosis
d. Thrombocytosis

A

c. Leukocytosis

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12
Q

Which of the following acts as a substrate for plasmin & thrombin?

a. Fibrinogen
b. Plasmin
c. Factor Xlll
d. Factor V

A

a. Fibrinogen

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13
Q
What serves as the main hematopoietic organ in the 8th month of gestation of a fetus?
Lymph nodes
Spleen
Bone marrow 
Yolk sac
Placenta
A

Bone marrow (Hematopoiesis starts in the spleen during the 3rd month, peaks in the 5th, and ceases by the 7th)

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14
Q

What is not a characteristic with extravascular hemolysis?

High bilirubin
Decreased haptoglobin
Splenomegaly
Reticulocytopenia

A

Decreased haptoglobin (I understand the note has this in the table but all others are absolutely wrong and this is not a characteristic)

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15
Q

Drug that bind to G11b/111a receptors and inhibits their activation?

a. Otamixaban
b. Abciximab
c. Aspirin
d. Clopedogril
e. Rituximab

A

b. Abciximab

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16
Q

Drug that do not have an antidote in case of bleeding?

a. Otamixaban
b. Abciximab
c. Aspirin
d. Clopedogril
e. Rituximab

A

a. Otamixaban

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17
Q

Patient presented with macrocytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and hypo-segmented neutrophils.

a. Megaloblastic Anemia
b. MDS
c. IDA
d. Aplastic anemia

A

b. MDS

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18
Q

Which drug is a direct inhibitor of thrombin?

a. Dabigatran
b. Aspirin
c. Heparin
d. Warfarin

A

a. Dabigatran

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19
Q

which phospholipid is exposed on the surface of damaged RBCs

a. Phosphatidylserine
b. Phosphatidylcholine

A

a. Phosphatidylserine

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20
Q

Which drug cause hemorrhagic cystitis as a side-effect?

Cyclophosphomide
Doxarubicin
Cisplatin
Methotrexate

A

Cyclophosphomide

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21
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Doxarubicin as a cytotoxic antibody?

Depletes cell metabolites
Intercalates RNA and DNA
Prevents cell membrane synthesis
Mitotic poison

A

Intercalates RNA and DNA

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22
Q

A patient admitted for infection with high PT, APTT, & D-dimers. What is the cause?

DIC
Hemolytic anemia Hemophilia C

A

DIC

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23
Q

What is the mechanism of action of deferoxamine?

Cross links DNA
Binds to iron and enhances its excretion
Regulate DNA expression
It has an unknown mechanism of action

A

Binds to iron and enhances its excretion

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24
Q

How do phagocytes help in anti-bacterial defense?

a. Release of cytokines
b. Release of reactive oxygen species
c. Release of histamine

A

b. Release of reactive oxygen species

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25
An 8 year old child presented with prolonged bleeding while brushing teeth and after minor cuts, normal APTT, normal PT. What is the cause? a. VW disease b. Isolated factor 8 deficiency c. Hemophilia
a. VW disease
26
A young girl with history of menorrhagia and nose bleeds. Her PT, APTT, and BT were normal. Her mother mentioned a similar bleeding disorder in her uncle. What will you find? a. Thrombocytopenia b. Low factor 9 c. Low Ristocetin Factor d. Vascular disorder
c. Low Ristocetin Factor
27
A patient presented with meningococcal infection and recurrent bleeding into skin and mucosal membranes, his blood film showed schistocytes. What is the cause? a. DIC b. Hemophilia c. Vw disease
a. DIC
28
A man presented with symptoms of anemia and massive hepatosplenomegaly. Blood film showed nucleated RBS and tear drop cells. What is the cause? a. CML b. PV c. AML d. Primary myelofibrosis
d. Primary myelofibrosis
29
A patient presented with pancytopenia with no blast cells in his peripheral blood smear. What is the underlying pathology? a. CML b. ALL c. Multiple Myeloma d. Aplastic anemia
d. Aplastic anemia
30
Young girl presented with anemia following an upper respiratory tract infection. Her mother reported she had leg ulcers as a child. What is the diagnosis? a. B thalassemia b. SCA c. IDA d. Anemia of chronic disease
b. SCA
31
Male with a history of colectomy presented with splenomegaly, high MCV, retics, LDH, and unsteady gait and numbness. What’s the cause? a. B12 deficiency b. Folate deficiency c. IDA
a. B12 deficiency
32
How does 2,3-BPG change the affinity of Hb? a. By forming covalent bonds with beta chains b. By changing affinity of unbound chains to O2 c. By stabilizing the R state
b. By changing affinity of unbound chains to O2
33
What leads to a shift of HB saturation curve to the right? a. High 02 b. Low 2,3,BPG c. H+
c. H+
34
Which protein is found bound to collagen and circulation in the blood? a. Vw factor b. C protein c. Factor 10 d. Factor 5
a. Vw factor
35
A mutation of which of these leads to thrombophilia? a. Vw factor b. C protein c. Factor 10 d. Factor 5
d. Factor 5
36
What helps the binding of Gla protein to the plasma membrane by the help of Calcium? a. Acidic phospholipid b. Collagen
a. Acidic phospholipid
37
Which test is prolonged in SLE patient with lupus anticoagulant and repeated abortions? a. PT b. APTT c. BT
b. APTT
38
64 year old man was found to have high platelet count in CBC? a. Polycethemia vera b. CML c. MDS d. Essential thrombocythemia
d. Essential thrombocythemia
39
What type of hemoglobin is found in a newborn with alpha thalassemia trait? ``` HbA2 HbF HbA HbH Hb barts ```
Hb barts
40
What is found in B thalassemia ``` HbA2 HbF HbA HbH Hb barts ```
HbF
41
Which drug is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor?
a. Imitanib
42
Which drug inhibits DHFR
Methotrexate
43
Patient with bleeding after tooth extraction. His CBC, PT, APTT, and bleeding time were all normal. What is he suffering from? a. Thrombocytopenia b. Aplastic anemia c. AML d. CML e. Platelet dysfunction
e. Platelet dysfunction
44
Deficiency of which of the following will be seen in HJE deficiency? a. Ceruloplasmin b. BMP c. Hepcidin d. Iron e. IL6
c. Hepcidin
45
RA patient was found to be anemic. Inhibition of which of the following will improve his condition? a. Hepcidin b. BMP c. Ceruloplasmin d. Transferrin
a. Hepcidin
46
What antagonizes plasmin function? a. TXA2 b. TF c. PAI d. PLG
c. PAI
47
Chinese boy presented with respiratory tract infection, fever, and fatigue. His peripheral blood smear showed atypical lymphocytes. What is the infective agent? a. CMV b. EBV c. S. Pneumonia d. Candida
b. EBV
48
A young female presented with anemia and thrombocytopenia. Peripheral blood smear showed spherocytosis. How to confirm the diagnosis? a. Osmotic fragility test b. DAT c. BM examination d. CBC
b. DAT
49
Patient presented with symptoms of IDA. What would you expect?
a. Low Fe, Ferritin, TSAT, and high TIBC
50
A 70 year old patient diagnosed with ischemic heart disease and anemia with normal APTT, PTT, platelet count what is the cause of bleeding? Platelet dysfunction Aspirin therapy Hemophilia Cirrhosis
Aspirin therapy
51
What is the most important mechanism of producing energy in an ischemic heart? Fatty acids -> TCA cycle Glucose -> TCA cycle Glucose -> Glycolysis Ketone bodes -> TCA cycle
Glucose -> Glycolysis
52
Which of the followings antigens mimics cardiomyocytes in S. pyogenes? a. Lipopolysaccharides b. M protein c. Flagella d. Peptidoglycan
b. M protein
53
What is meant by “transient ischemic attack”? a. Pain in the leg while walking that resolves on rest b. Short-lived unstable angina c. Occurrence of chest pain without increase of troponin d. Sudden leg hemiplegia that is completely resolved within 24 hours
d. Sudden leg hemiplegia that is completely resolved within 24 hours
54
Which gene cause familial hypertrophic cardiomyopathy? a. Pln b. Myh7 c. Mh3 d. Tnn1
b. Myh7
55
What is the main ligand of scavenger receptor type b 1? a. large HDL b. small HDL c. Oxidized LDL d. Oxidized vLDL
a. large HDL
56
Which of the following if increased results in turbulence flow in a large artery like a renal artery? a. Resistance b. CO c. Blood viscosity d. Hematocrit
b. CO (A is wrong bc he mentioned ‘large artery’)
57
53. Patient came with Blindness, ( autopsy from temporal artery) shows granulomatous a. Giant cell arteritis b. Polyartritis nodosa c. Takayaso
a. Giant cell arteritis
58
A 65 year old patient with a blood pressure of 168/75, with the same measurement over the next week. How would you describe his risk for CHD? a. Lower than normal because SBP and DBP are in the normal range b. Normal because SBP isn't important when DBP is normal c. Slightly increased because the SBP is slightly increased d. Double the risk because abnormal SBP conquers even higher risk than abnormal DBP
d. Double the risk because abnormal SBP conquers even higher risk than abnormal DBP
59
Why are anti-fibrinolytic agents used in ACS? a. Relieve pain b. Decrease oxygen demand c. Reopen occluded artery d. As an anticoagulant
c. Reopen occluded artery
60
Patient with old MI is given this drug to protect him from another MI a. CCB b. Aspirin c. ACEI
b. Aspirin
61
A 53 year old male developed massive left ventricular MI, on admission his renal function tests revealed elevated creatinine & elevated BUN suggestive of renal insufficiency. His condition is: a. Nephrotic syndrome b. Crescentic glomerulonephritis c. Acute tubular necrosis. d. Tubular interstitial fibrosis
c. Acute tubular necrosis.
62
Which of these occurs due to aortic regurgitation? a. Increased aortic EDP b. Increased ventricular EDP c. Decreased ventricular filling d. Decreased preload e. Decreased ejection fraction
b. Increased ventricular EDP
63
What passes with the aorta through aortic hiatus? Azygous vein Splanchnic nerve Vagus nerve Phrenic nerve
Azygous vein
64
What is the likely frequency of genetic polymorphism of a low penetrance disease like cardiovascular disease? 0.0001 0. 0005 0. 1 1. 0 0. 00001
0.1
65
What is the characteristic of Clopidogrel? a. Requires the activation by CYP2C19 b. Requires the activation of CYP2C9
a. Requires the activation by CYP2C19
66
Muscle fatigue is characterized by?
a. Depletion of muscle ATP and glycogen
67
What is the mechanism of Aliskirin?
a. Renin inhibitor
68
What is heard during -Mitral regurgitation? a. pan systolic murmur b. early diastolic murmur c. loud S1 d. loud S2 e. loud S3 (it works for 67 but A is better)
a. pan systolic murmur
69
Aortic regurgitation? a. pan systolic murmur b. early diastolic murmur c. loud S1 d. loud S2 e. loud S3 (it works for 67 but A is better)
b. early diastolic murmur
70
A 40 year old man presented with complains of chest pain for the best 2 years that occurs on exertion and is relieved by rest. He presented to the doctor now as it used to happen after walking 200m but now 100 m. what is the underlying pathology? a. Narrowing of coronary vessel lumen more than 75% b. Ruptured coronary plaque c. Severe calcification of a plaque d. Thin injury of fibrous cap of a 50% occluded vessel
a. Narrowing of coronary vessel lumen more than 75%
71
A patient had recent surgery and a prosthetic valve was placed, he developed infective endocarditis. What’s the causative organism? a. S. epidermidis b. S. viridans c. S. aureus
a. S. epidermidis
72
Unstable angina a. ST segment elevation in leads I II and Avf b. ST segment elevation in leads V2 to V5 c. ST segment depression in leads V3 to V5 d. Irregular QRS complexes e. Low Voltage in all chest leads f. ST segment elevation in all leads
c. ST segment depression in leads V3 to V5
73
Pericarditis a. ST segment elevation in leads I II and Avf b. ST segment elevation in leads V2 to V5 c. ST segment depression in leads V3 to V5 d. Irregular QRS complexes e. Low Voltage in all chest leads f. ST segment elevation in all leads
f. ST segment elevation in all leads
74
What is a prerequisite for reentry? a. Reduced conduction velocity in retrograde direction b. Decreased AP c. Increased AP d. Hyperpolarization of myocytes e. Bidirectional block
a. Reduced conduction velocity in retrograde direction
75
Which drug may cause myopathy as an adverse effect? a. Simvastatin b. ACEI c. Losartan d. Niacin e. Cholestyramine
a. Simvastatin
76
Cardiac fuel in prolonged starvation? a. Ketone bodies b. Fatty acids c. Glucose d. Amino acids
a. Ketone bodies
77
In which of the following can we find discontinuous capillaries? a. Liver b. Muscle tissue c. Exocrine glands
a. Liver
78
Patient present to you with generalized edema all over his body. What is the cause? a. Nephrotic syndrome b. Acute MI c. HTN d. Ca channel blocker
a. Nephrotic syndrome
79
What forms a false endothelial layer? a. Aortic stenosis b. Abdominal aortic aneurysm c. Aortic dissection
c. Aortic dissection
80
Palpable mass that is likely to undergo rupture, embolism? a. Aortic stenosis b. Abdominal aortic aneurysm c. Aortic dissection
b. Abdominal aortic aneurysm
81
What happens in a patient with deep vein thrombosis? a. Pain and swelling in the calf b. Pain on exertion and it goes away at rest c. Foot pain at rest d. Pain in upper quadrant that radiates to right arm
a. Pain and swelling in the calf
82
What originates from the free margin of septum secundum? a. Fossa ovalis b. Limbus fossa ovalis c. Valvulae fossa ovalis d. Foramen ovale
b. Limbus fossa ovalis
83
Young boy with strawberry tongue and MI a. Kawasaki disease b. Takayasu disease c. Chaug struss disease
a. Kawasaki disease
84
What is the mechanism by which alpha1-antitrypsin inactivate elastase?
a. Substrate suicide
85
Which nerves provides sensory innervation to the larynx above the vocal folds? External laryngeal Internal laryngeal Glossopharyngeal Inferior laryngeal
Internal laryngeal
86
``` What is the preferable diagnostic method for a patient with peripheryly located lung cancer? Brush sample Sputum cytology CT mediated aspiration Transbronchial biopsy ```
CT mediated aspiration
87
What is the mechanism of action of drugs from the class ‘Steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs”? Inhibit synthesis of TXA2 Inhibit synthesis of PGI2 Inhibit synthesis of Arachidonic Acid Promote synthesis of LX4
Inhibit synthesis of Arachidonic Acid
88
What is the test used to confirm TB infection in an epidemic? a. GeneXpert b. BioFM c. Zein Nelson stain d. L J Medium e. IS6110
e. IS6110
89
What is the test used to confirm TB infection in a clinical sample? a. GeneXpert b. BioFM c. Zein Nelson stain d. L J Medium e. IS6110
d. L J Medium d is gold standard and found in all hospitals but A is very expensive and not found everywhere so D is the correct answer as per the Dr.
90
What is used for antibody sensitivity testing of a TB sample? BACTEC LJ Medium ZN stain
BACTEC
91
Which of the following is an anti-asthmatic drug targeting cyst leukotriene receptor?
Zafirlukast
92
What differentiates between static and dynamic compliance? a. Lung volume b. Airway Resistance c. Surfactant
b. Airway Resistance
93
In which of the following cases Helium Dilution is better than body pletsomography? a. Lung Bleb b. Large Mediastinal Mass c. Abdominal Bloating d. Tracheal lymphadenopathy
c. Abdominal Bloating
94
Ten years from now, what will COPD be rated as a cause of total mortality worldwide? a. Third b. Sixth c. Seventh d. Thirteenth
a. Third
95
Which of the following inhibits mitosis at metaphase?
a. Vincristine
96
The upper margin of which of the following forms the vocal ligament?
a. Conus elasticus
97
Respiratory Table with high DLCO
Left to right shunt
98
espiratory Table with low DLCO
Interstitial lung disease
99
Low FEV1/FVC ratio for Chronic bronchitis
-
100
Low DLCO for emphysema
-
101
What is affected in phrenic nerve injury?
a. Diaphragm
102
An old patient with ventilator developed pneumonia, the organism was oxidase positive gram negative bacilli ``` S. pneumonia K. pneumonia M. pneumonia P. aeruginosa H.Influenza ```
P. aeruginosa
103
Diabetic patient developed necrotizing ear infection with green discharge. Most likely organism is: ``` S. pneumonia K. pneumonia M. pneumonia P. aeruginosa H.Influenza ```
P. aeruginosa
104
What is the most characteristic cell type in granulomatous reaction in TB Langerhans giant cell Epithelioid cells
Langerhans giant cell
105
What is the function of clavulanic acid?
Inhibits b-lactamases
106
A 23-year old transplant patient presents with increasing respiratory difficulty and fever. He was diagnosed with pneumonitis. Bronchoalveolar lavage aspirate cytology revealed large cells with intranuclear cytoplasmic inclusions. What is the likely diagnosis? CMV Pneumocystic jiroveci
CMV
107
Which of the following conditions leas to increase DLCO in respiratory epithelium? Lung fibrosis Hemorrhage of the lung Compression of pulmonary artery
Hemorrhage of the lung
108
Most commonly infected sinus? Maxillary sinus Ethmoidal sinuses Frontal sinus
Maxillary sinus
109
Non caseating granuloma and asteroid bodies Sarcoidosis Wagner granulomatosis Rheumatoid arthritis TB Histoplasmosis infection
Sarcoidosis
110
What is the difference between human and fetal HB? a. 2 less –ve charges in fetal hemoglobin b. 2 more –ve charges of fetal hemoglobin c. More BPG in fetal hemoglobin
a. 2 less –ve charges in fetal hemoglobin
111
Which of the following is Insensitive to pain? Visceral pleural Parietal pleura Epidermis of the skin
Visceral pleural
112
What is the action of antihistamine in the treatment of urticaria? Reduce inflammation Leads to bronchodilation Reduce vascular permeability
Reduce vascular permeability
113
Which of the following is affected in acute asthmatic attack? Trachea Primary bronchi Secondary bronchi Bronchiole
Bronchiole
114
``` Which of the following forms a cleavage plane for surgeons in thoracic surgeries? Endothoracic fascia Parietal pleura Visceral pleura Intercostal muscles ```
Endothoracic fascia
115
What is the embryological origin of visceral pleura? somatic mesoderm neural crest cells splanchnic mesoderm endoderm
splanchnic mesoderm
116
Paralyzed when dorsal root of spinal nerve is injured Levator costarum Intercostal muscles Subcostalis muscles Serratus posterior muscles
Levator costarum
117
What happens during early puberty regarding Leydig cells? a. Testosterone secreted at night only in early stage b. Inverted triangle of hair in stage 2 c. Aromatization to male brain d. Once hyperpigmentation of scrotum occurs, puberty is achieved
a. Testosterone secreted at night only in early stage
118
What is true regarding Somatrem? On chronic administration, it results in hypoglycemia Its administration increases GHRH Diabetic patients require higher insulin doses if they take it
Diabetic patients require higher insulin doses if they take it
119
What clinical finding is inconsistent with Graves’ disease? High TSH in plasma Exophthalmos High T3 High T4
High TSH in plasma
120
What does HbA1C indicate?
glycemic control over a period of three months
121
A 16 year old female patient came to the hospital complaining of failure to menstruate. On examination it is found that she doesn’t have a uterus and her vagina has a pouch end. What is the most likely genetic composition she has? 45XO 45XO/46 XX 46 XY (AIS) 46XX
46 XY (AIS)
122
What’s is true about prolactin? Under tonic inhibition of pituitary Inhibited by TRH Synthesized in median eminence
Under tonic inhibition of pituitary
123
What is true about beta cells? They are located in central region of islets They are located in peripheral region of islets
They are located in central region of islets
124
``` What stimulates pancreatic exocrine release? Glucagon P peptide Somatostatin VIP ```
VIP
125
What’s located anterolateraly to the right suprarenal gland? ``` Pancreas Stomach Liver Renal fascia Lymph nodes IVC ```
Liver
126
What prevents the suprarenal gland from displacement with the kidney? ``` Pancreas Stomach Liver Renal fascia Lymph nodes IVC ```
Renal fascia
127
A 38 year old patient presented with mass in the neck is diagnosed with carcinoma with cytoplasmic inclusions. What is the cause? Papillary carcinoma Medullary carcinoma
Papillary carcinoma
128
What is the treatment of Laron dwarfism?
Mecasermin
129
Female with breast cancer developed resistance to tamoxifen, what is the treatment of choice?
Letrozole
130
What is used to rapidly test SRY gene mutation in a person with 46XY?
PCR
131
What is the pancreatic endocrine pathology that arise from delta cells? Insulinoma Somatostatinoma Glucagonoma VIPoma
Somatostatinoma
132
What is the pancreatic endocrine pathology that arise from Alpha cells? Insulinoma Somatostatinoma Glucagonoma VIPoma
VIPoma
133
Patient presented with a lung tumor that releases CRH. What is the cause? Squamous cell carcinoma Neuroendocrine tumor of the pancreas Pulmonary adenocarcinoma Bronchogenic carcinoma
Neuroendocrine tumor of the pancreas
134
Which enzyme mediate the function of teriparatide? Adenylyl cyclase Guanylyl cyclase Phospholipase c Steroid hormone mechanism
Adenylyl cyclase
135
Patient presented with diarrhea and various stomach ulcers Insulinoma Gastrioma VIPoma Glucagonoma Somatostatinoma
Gastrioma
136
A patient presented with polyuria, bone lesions, and proptosis. Bone lesion will show? Granuloma Histocytosis with eosinophilia Disorganized neurons with fibrillary background
Histocytosis with eosinophilia
137
What is special about glargine? It doesn’t have a peak in its action It is effective for postprandial glucose control It is short acting Taken shortly before meals
It doesn’t have a peak in its action
138
How does anti-sperm antibodies cause infertilization?
Immobilize spermatozoa
139
Repeated Q from the module –pt on a cruise with CRH, ACTH, & cortisol value?
All of them are low
140
What is a characteristic in hashimoto’s thyroiditis? Lymphocytic infiltration Anti TSH receptor antibodies
Lymphocytic infiltration
141
What metabolic cycle is accelerated in patients with hyperthyroidism: TCA cycle Futile cycle Corin cycle
Futile cycle
142
A girl with short stature, webbed neck, delayed menstrual cycle and diminished secondary sexual characteristics: LH, and FSH were high, Estradiol was low, and TSH, IGF were normal AIS Turner syndrome CAH
Turner syndrome
143
What results from fetal liver synthesis ``` High DHEA High P4 High E1 High E2 High E3 High testosterone 16-OH-DHEA ```
16-OH-DHEA
144
Found in a tumor of Zona Reticularis ``` High DHEA High P4 High E1 High E2 High E3 High testosterone 16-OH-DHEA ```
High DHEA
145
What is the most likely cause of Paroxysmal hypertension? ``` Acromegaly Growth hormone deficiency Pheochromocytoma Pan-hypopituitirism Primary hyperthyroidism Primary hypothyroidism ```
Pheochromocytoma
146
A man who has a family history of diabetes is worried of having diabetes. His fasting blood glucose is 6.3. the diagnosis? Prediabetes Type 1 diabetes Type 2 diabetes Normal
Prediabetes
147
What mechanism is increased in the Adipose Tissue of obese people with glucose intolerance? a. Accumulation of TG intracellularly b. High PPAR action c. Inhibition of gluconeogenesis d. Mobilization of triglycerides by HSL e. Mobilization of triglycerides by LPL
d. Mobilization of triglycerides by HSL
148
What mechanism is increased in the Muscle Tissue of obese people with glucose intolerance? a. Accumulation of TG intracellularly b. High PPAR action c. Inhibition of gluconeogenesis d. Mobilization of triglycerides by HSL e. Mobilization of triglycerides by LPL
a. Accumulation of TG intracellularly
149
Patient presented with hyperpigmentation. On evaluation he was found to be hypertensive and hyperglycemic. What is he suffering from? Conn’s syndrome Addison’s disease Pituitary tumor
Pituitary tumor
150
Which drug will result in the formation of adrenal bodies in patients with Conns? Nitrates Spironolactone Somatostatin Beta blockers
Spironolactone
151
What is the correct sequence from activation of GH receptor till stat activates expression of gene for IGF1? a. Phosphorylation -> dimerization -> recruitment of intrinsic enzyme b. Dimerization -> recruitment of intrinsic enzyme -> phosphorylation c. Recruitment of intrinsic enzyme -> phosphorylation -> dimerization d. Dimerization -> phosphorylation
b. Dimerization -> recruitment of intrinsic enzyme -> phosphorylation
152
Elevated ACE? ``` Increase in IGF Primary hyperthyroidism Primary hypothyroidism Pheochromocytoma Acromegaly Hypothalamic sarcoidosis ```
Hypothalamic sarcoidosis
153
Dwarf + elevated GH? ``` Increase in IGF Primary hyperthyroidism Primary hypothyroidism Pheochromocytoma Acromegaly Hypothalamic Sarcoidosis ```
Increase in IGF
154
What is the purpose of storage in the chromaffin granule cells? Conversion of nor-epinephrine to epinephrine Protect dopamine from degradation by dopamine-β-hydroxylase
Protect dopamine from degradation by dopamine-β-hydroxylase
155
What is special about propyluracil? Prevents conversion of T4 to T3 Teratogenic More potent than other drugs of the same class
Prevents conversion of T4 to T3
156
Which hormone inhibits calcium absorption and promotes osteoclast function? ``` PTH Vitamin D Calcitonin Glucocorticoids Estrogen Vitamin K ```
Glucocorticoids
157
Which nerve can be located in the reference to the tendon of biceps femorus and the neck of fibula? Saphenous Sural Common fibular Tibial
Common fibular
158
What is the function of iliopsoas muscle during walking on the thigh? Extension Flexion Abduction Adduction
Flexion
159
Which lymph nodes are related to the posterior aspect of pectoralis major Anterior Posterior Humeral Apical
Anterior
160
A young female with kidney problems. Presented with joint pain, stifness and rash. What lab test would u order? Anti DNA CBC Blood culture Thyroid function tests
Anti DNA
161
Which of the following movement is affected in an injury of the ischial tuberosity? Flexion of the leg Extension of the leg Lateral rotation of the thigh
Flexion of the leg
162
What feature of lumbar vertebra makes it able to bear weight? Kidney shaped body Thick spinal process
Kidney shaped body
163
What is involved in flexion of the spine?
Psoas major
164
What passes through the femoral sheath and adductor canal? Obturator nerve Femoral nerve (outside femoral sheath) Femoral artery
Femoral artery
165
Which intrinsic muscle of the back is innervated by posterior ramus of the spinal cord? Rhamboids Erector spinalis Trapezius Levator scalene
Erector spinalis
166
Tissue biopsy taken from a 40 yr old patient w/ severe arthritis showed granulomatous reaction surrounding a clear space? ``` RA OA Lyme disease Onchorosis Septic arthritis Gouty arthritis ```
Gouty arthritis
167
Tissue biopsy taken from a 40 yr old patient w/ severe arthritis showed granulomatous reaction surrounding a clear space? F 166. Old lady w/ arthritis, and an inflamed knee. Silver stain showed spirochete? ``` RA OA Lyme disease Onchorosis Septic arthritis Gouty arthritis ```
Lyme disease
168
A patient with joint pain and swelling of the joint, he also has a white nodule on his ear. What’s the cause? ``` RA OA Lyme disease Onchorosis Septic arthritis Gouty arthritis ```
Gouty arthritis
169
In bone fracture, which of the following factors/proteins increase chondrocyte proliferation? Parathyroid hormone Metalloprotease Bone morphogenic protein PDGF VEGF
Bone morphogenic protein
170
Back strain leads to microscopic tearing of fibers of which structure? ``` Erector Spinae muscle Anterior longitudinal ligament Posterior longitudinal ligament Psoas major muscle ```
Erector Spinae muscle
171
What is the correct sequence of transmission across the synaptic space (or neurotransmitter release)? a. Docking - priming -exocytosis-endocytosis b. docking - priming -endocytosis-exocytosis c. Priming -Docking - exocytosis-endocytosis d. Docking -endocytosis- priming –exocytosis
a. Docking - priming -exocytosis-endocytosis
172
What are the chief lateral abductors of the arm? Infraspinatus and Teres minor Supraspinatus and infraspinatus Teres major and subscapularis Supraspinatus and deltoid
Infraspinatus and Teres minor
173
Normal bones structure but decreased bone mass? ``` Osteoarthritis Osteoporosis Osteopetrosis Rickets Osteomalacia ```
Osteoporosis
174
Normal bones structure but decreased bone mass? ``` Osteoarthritis Osteoporosis Osteopetrosis Rickets Osteomalacia ```
Osteopetrosis
175
What is total tension? The sum of active & passive tension Tension developed when muscle is contracted Tension of muscle at rest
The sum of active & passive tension
176
Infection in the lateral part of the hand drains to which Lymph node? Apical Humeral Pectoral Cubita
Apical
177
A 60 year old female presented with a fracture in the shaft of the humerus. Which muscle is affected? Biceps Triceps Coracobrachialis
Triceps (our exam q did not have another extensor muscle so this was correct but typically Triceps are not affected by radial nerve injury because they receive their innervation up, brachioradialis would be a better choice)
178
Testing extension against resistance, which muscle is affected? Triceps Anconeus Biceps Coracobrachialis
Triceps
179
Which artery gives a branch to supply the lateral leg compartment? Anterior tibial Posterior tibial Radial Obturator
?
180
Which of the following has systemic Anti-bodies (non-specific) but it is an organ specific disease? Rheumatoid arthritis Pernicious anemia Grave's disease Primary ciliary cirrhosis
Primary ciliary cirrhosis
181
Which of the following muscles flexes the thigh at the hip joint?
Iliopsoas
182
A man cant oppose his 5th digit. Which muscle is affected?
Opponens digiti minimi
183
What parameter best describes the increase in k+ conductance in membrane & termination of the action potential? ``` Hyper-repolarization Depolarization Ca+ entry Na+ over shoot Action Potential K conductance Resting membrane potentional ```
Hyper-repolarization
184
What parameter best describes the increase in inotropy by frequency modulation? ``` Hyper-repolarization Depolarization Ca+ entry Na+ over shoot Action Potential K conductance Resting membrane potentional ```
Action Potential
185
A patient presented with dry eyes and mucous membranes. Her XRAY showed bilateral lung involvement. On physical examination, you noticed inflammation in the lacrimal glands, skin nodules, and an enlarged parotid gland. Serology test was negative but test for Ro/SSA antigens were positive. What is her condition? Sjogren syndrome Hashimotos thyroditis Grave’s disease Reiter’s syndrome
Sjogren syndrome
186
Which of the following proteins regulate bone formation ``` Osteopontine Sialoprotein Vitamin D Osteocalcin GPCR PLC beta ```
Osteocalcin
187
Which receptor mediates PTH action ``` Osteopontine Sialoprotein Vitamin D Osteocalcin GPCR PLC beta ```
GPCR
188
What is associated with logistic regression? ``` Ordinal polychotomous Nominal polychotomus Continuous variable Bivariate categorical Relative Risk ```
Bivariate categorical
189
What is associated with cohort study? ``` Ordinal polychotomous Nominal polychotomus Continuous variable Bivariate categorical Relative Risk ```
Relative Risk
190
EBM table of RCT study and RR that is not statistically significant but clinically significant
-
191
What does “β” stands for? Difference in means (SD<1/3) Difference in medians Regression Hazard ratio
Difference in means (SD<1/3)
192
What can increase the width of 95% CI? a. Biased data collection or large sample size b. Biased data collection or standardized data c. Unbaised data collection or large sample size d. Standardized data collection or small sample size e. Non Standardized data or small sample size
e. Non Standardized data or small sample size
193
Which of the following best characterizes prospective cohort studies? ``` A small number of subjects Prevalence is assessed Cost is not an issue Quick results Risks are obtained ```
Risks are obtained
194
Most risk of SLE Black, reproductive age, estrogen therapy White female, reproductive age, estrogen therapy
Black, reproductive age, estrogen therapy