Final 2015 Flashcards

(201 cards)

1
Q

Which of the following is affected in asthmatic attack?

a. Trachea
b. Primary bronchi
c. Secondary bronchi
d. Bronchiole

A

d. Bronchiole

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2
Q

The graph below shows the relationship between the intensity of exercise and relative contribution of carbohydrates/lipids to ATP production. What exercise intensity range would you suggest to an overweight individual to efficiently burn fat?

A

a. A (first part)

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3
Q

What would be the response of a patient with type 2 DM after taking glucose?

Number 1

Number 2

Number 3

Number 1 in the morning, and number 2 at night

Number 2 in the morning, and number 3 atnight

A

Number 1

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4
Q

What hormone does this graph represent?

1- Glucose

2- GH

3- Cortisol

4- FSH

5- LH

A

Cortisol

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5
Q

What is the underlying problem in the ECG?

Right atrial enlargement

LVH

Left atrial enlargement

A

Left atrial enlargement

couldn’t find a similar ECG to the one in the test but you get the gist

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6
Q

What is the diagnosis from theECG?

A

Hyper-acute anterolateral infarction

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7
Q

Which nerve is affected if the patient tilts his left gluteal area when walking on his right leg?

a. Right superior gluteal nerve
b. Left superior gluteal nerve
c. Left inferior gluteal nerve
d. Right inferior gluteal nerve
e. Left obturator nerve

A

a. Right superior gluteal nerve

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8
Q

A 17-year-old school boy was diagnosed with pulmonary TB. He is a member of music school team who travelled a 2-week concert trip to Malaysia 1 month earlier. What preventive medicine action would the physician take??

a. isolate whole team in the infectious disease hospital.
b. vaccinate whole team.
c. Give isoniazid for whole team
d. carry on tracing and screening the team
e. carry on chest X-ray for symptomatic individuals.

A

c. Give isoniazid for whole team

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9
Q

If the left coronary artery was blocked, what would be affected?

a. 1/3 of the anterior interatrial septum
b. 2/3 of the anterior interventricular septum
c. 1/3 of the posterior interatrial septum
d. 1/3 of the posterior interventricular septum

A

b. 2/3 of the anterior interventricular septum

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10
Q

an ex-smoker has cyanosis and lower limb edema. He showed vesicular breathing with scattered rhonchi and dyspnea, pulmonary function tests were as follows:

FEV1 (45% predicted) 
FVC (46% predicted )
FEV1/FVC = 65%
TLC 2.9 ( 85% predicted ) 
DLCO (70% predicted )
What is the probable diagnosis?

a. restrictive pulmonary disorder
b. obstructive pulmonary disorder

A

a. restrictive pulmonary disorder
b. obstructive pulmonary disorder
(Dr. Zoran counted both as correct)

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11
Q

If there’s a displacement of the olecranon process, what movement would likely be lost?

a. extension of the elbow
b. extension of the wrist and ulnar deviation
c. extension of the wrist and radial deviation

A

a. extension of the elbow

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12
Q

If the superior parathyroid gland was affected with a tumor, what structure would likely be least affected initially?

a. trachea
b. esophagus
c. recurrent laryngeal nerve
d. external laryngeal nerve

A

d. external laryngeal nerve

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13
Q

Which vit-D Dependent Ca absorption protein is used for intracellular Ca transport in enterocytes?

a. Calbindin
b. Calcitriol

A

a. Calbindin

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14
Q

38 year old female, missed period for three months, weight gain, depression, [fatigue(?) ]. With the obvious amenorrhea, what would you find in her blood tests?

a. Raised prolactin
b. Raised cortisol

A

a. Raised prolactin
b. Raised cortisol
(both are possible answers)

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15
Q
What is a characteristic of stanzolol?
has more virilization affects than testosterone
delays premature closure of epiphyses
useful in hyperprolactinemia
Used in hypoproteinemia states
contraindicated in endometriosis
A

Used in hypoproteinemia states

According to Dr. bitar, stanzolol has more of an anabolic effect than virilizing

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16
Q

Which component of the conducting system of the heart is located in the membranous part of the intraventricular septum?

a. Bundle of his
b. Right bundle of his
c. Left bundle of his
d. AV node
e. SA node

A

a. Bundle of his

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17
Q

A 15-year-old boy presented with supracondylar fracture of the humerus, which nerve will most likely be affected?

a. Ulnar
b. Median
c. Radial
d. Axillary
e. Musculocutaneous

A

b. Median

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18
Q

What is a characteristic of IGF-1 receptor?

a. have intrinsic tyrosine kinase activity
b. Hetrodimeriztion with GH receptor
c. Coupled to Gi protien
d. Coupled to Ras protien

A

a. have intrinsic tyrosine kinase activity

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19
Q

The mutation F508 in Cystic fibrosis causes the deletion of which AA?

a. Phenylalanine
b. Glycine
c. Lysine

A

a. Phenylalanine

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20
Q

Which one of these steroids bind to albumin in circulation for transport?

a. Cortisol
b. Estradiol
c. Testosterone
d. Progesterone
e. Aldosterone

A

e. Aldosterone

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21
Q

In females, which tanner stage reflects the enlargement of breast and areola as a single mound?

a. stage 1
b. stage 2
c. stage 3
d. stage 4
e. stage 5

A

c. stage 3

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22
Q

A patient presents with chest pain and the ECG is suggestive of STEMI. Which of the following is true?

a. thrombolytic therapy superior to percutaneous coronary intervention
b. thrombolytic therapy is indicated if onset of symptoms is less than 12 hours
c. thrombolytic therapy is not indicated if troponin was normal
d. check for ischemia before obtaining the thrombolytic therapy

A

b. thrombolytic therapy is indicated if onset of symptoms is less than 12 hours

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23
Q

A 44-year-old victim of a car accident was bleeding & her blood pressure was reduced to 90/60 mmHg. What is the most likely mechanism for the maintaining of her coronary blood flow?

a. autoregulation
b. reactive hyperemia
c. parasympathetic stimulation

A

a. autoregulation

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24
Q

What hormone acts to lower calcium concentration?

A

Calcitonin

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25
Where is tubular myelin found? a. extracellular alveolar fluid b. at air water interface
a. extracellular alveolar fluid
26
Injury to which nerve causes an effect on the antero-medial side of leg? a. L2 b. L3 c. L4 d. L5 e. S2
c. L4
27
What causes cough in patient with high bradykinin levels?
a. Ace inhibitor
28
Which of the following ligands bind to ABCG1? a. lipid poor A-1 b. lipid free A-2 c. small HDL d. large HDL
c. small HDL
29
A 60-year-old woman with low bone mass density was given alendronate by an oral route. Which would be an effect of the drug? a. Diarrhea b. Constipation c. erosive esophagitis d. pernicious anemia
c. erosive esophagitis
30
During the development of IE, which bacterial component mediates binding to the endothelial cells of the endocardium? a. Dextran b. Flagella c. Peptidoglycan d. Lipoteichoic acid
a. Dextran
31
What is the type of metabolism used in a failing heart?
a. Glycolysis
32
What is the key feature of local action of prostaglandins? a. Reduced 1/2 life after production b. Released from albumin c. Produced by protease d. Released from granules
a. Reduced 1/2 life after production
33
What is the cytological feature of hypothyroidism? a. active follicular b. Active Para follicular c. Flat follicular cells d. Poorly stained
c. Flat follicular cells
34
The fact the CF (cystic fibrosis) is more common in monozygotic twins than dizygotic twins. What’s the reason? a. environmental modifiers b. genetic modifiers c. solid genetic heterogeneity d. partial allele differences
(We had this question and the choices didn’t make sense to us. We tried to get the correct answer but couldn’t. SORRY)
35
A mother brought her 14 years old daughter in concern of bleeding problem. What, from history, suggests a platelet problem rather than coagulation problem? a. A joint swelling b. The fact that she received fresh frozen plasma in the past c. The mother has a brother with similar condition d. The daughter experiences heavy menstrual bleeding
d. The daughter experiences heavy menstrual bleeding
36
A 53-year-old female with a mass on the right side of her neck on examination with tc-99 revealed hyper activity (hot) nodule and no other parts are visualized, the patient is clinically euthyroid. Which lab result would correlate to her findings? a. Low TSH regardless of Free T4 level b. Low TSH with high freeT4 and freeT3 c. High TSH with low freeT4
a. Low TSH regardless of Free T4 level
37
The range of the painful arc in impingement syndrome.
a. 60-120 degrees
38
Which of the following stimulate the synthesis of fat from carbohydrates? a. insulin b. epinephrine c. glucagon d. thyroid hormones
a. insulin
39
What is indicated to monitor levels of toxicity of Adriamycin (doxyrubicin) on the heart? a. Myocardial perfusion imaging b. Gated blood pool imaging c. ECG
b. Gated blood pool imaging
40
A 19-year-old boy presented with cardiac failure following infection. There were indications of necrosis upon histology and lymphocytosis. What is the most likely pathogen implicated w/ Myocarditis? a. Adenovirus b. Coxsackie virus c. Parvovirus
b. Coxsackie virus
41
What are the consequences of mitochondrial genomic mutation? a. Defect in Translation b. Defect in ATP production c. Defect in Replication d. Defect in Transcription
b. Defect in ATP production
42
What is the nerve that carries sensory stimuli from the larynx to above the vocal folds? a. External laryngeal b. Internal laryngeal c. Inferior laryngeal d. Glossopharyngeal
b. Internal laryngeal
43
What hormone act as inhibitor of long loop negative feedback? a. Calcitriol b. Thyroxine c. Parathyroid hormone d. Oxytocin
b. Thyroxine
44
A patient presented with chest pain and ECG demonstrates a 3 mm ST- segment depression in chest lead v3 to v5. What treatment would you administer to this patient? a. immediate mechanical revascularization in catheterization laboratory b. immediate administration of fibrinolytic therapy c. anticoagulation in the form of warfarin d. dual antiplatelet therapy and heparin
d. dual antiplatelet therapy and heparin
45
Which of the following is involved in increased killing of internalized material due to respiratory burst? a. Reactive Oxygen Intermediates (ROS) b. Phagocytosis c. Complement d. Apoptotic Cytokines e. Antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity
a. Reactive Oxygen Intermediates (ROS)
46
A 15-year-old girl complains of prolonged bleeding from small cuts and wounds, heavy menses (menorrhagia) she has prolonged APTT and bleeding time. What be found during lab investigation?
a. Low ristociten factor activity (Von-willebrand disease)
47
What determines unequal ventilation in different parts of the lungs in healthy people, especially in deep breathing? a. Differences in the resistance of the airways b. Differences of the residual volumes between apical and basal parts c. Higher lung compliance in basal parts than apical parts
c. Higher lung compliance in basal parts than apical parts
48
In which of the following cases helium dilution is better than body plethysmography? 1. abdominal bloating 2. lung bleb 3. emphysema 4. lung fibrosis
1. abdominal bloating
49
how does AAT-1 helps in the lungs?
It inhibits the activity of the enzyme elastase
50
Which of the following is common when B adrenergic blocker and thiazide diuretic is chronically used to treat HTN? a. Persistent decrease in cardiac output b. Persistent decrease in peripheral vascular resistance c. renin inhibition d. inhibition of tubular reabsorption of Na+ in kidney e. Inhibit activation of Chloride and K+ channels
b. Persistent decrease in peripheral vascular resistance
51
What activated sugar is important for the salvage pathway of purine synthesis?
a. 5-phosphoribosyl-1phosphatase
52
A patient did a test and was found to have a pituitary tumor. If that tumor enlarged and grew laterally, what nerve will be affected first? a. Trochlear b. abducent
b. abducent
53
Which statement is true regarding nuclear imaging of the adrenal gland? a. NP-59 is an analogue for cholesterol b. l-131 MIB6 used only for neuroblastoma and other neuroendocrine tumors c. FDG PE7 has high specificity for neuroendocrine tumor d. MI BG when injected is excreted majorly by the kidneys
a. NP-59 is an analogue for cholesterol
54
Which condition can cause apparent high DLCO? a. lung fibrosis b. lung hemorrhage
b. lung hemorrhage
55
Which lipid is the major lipid on lung surfactant?
Glycerosphingolipid
56
Normal AaDO2 but dyspneic?
Hypoperfusion
57
What causes hypoxic vasoconstriction? a. PA02 b. Pa02 (not this because this means SYSTEMIC arterial o2, not pulmonary
a. PA02 (not Pa02 because this means SYSTEMIC arterial o2, not pulmonary arterial po2) (both were considered correct in our exam, but the correct answer is PAO2 according to Dr. Zoran)
58
A patient came in weak, after coughing with greenish sputum a couple of days ago (lung infection). Plasma osmolality was 260 mosm, 115 sodium, in urine osmolality was 150 mosm, 145 sodium. What is the cause of hyponatremia? a. Addison’s b. SIADH c. pseudoaldoestronism d. aldosterone
b. SIADH
59
Female patient with hypertension, angina pectoris, diabetes type 1 comes agitated and confused. She presents with pallor, diaphoresis, hunger, dizziness, headache and her daughter took her to the hospital. Stat glucose is 3.1, acute hypoglycemic reaction. Patientwastreated,whatisthe nextstepafterrecovery? a. 2-5 grams of simple carb b. 10-15 grams of simple carb c. 150 mL full fat milk d. 250 mL orange juice e. Increase dose of insulin at the next meal
b. 10-15 grams of simple carb
60
Patient lost 18% body volume after RTA, how do you manage him? a. Crystalloids b. Crystalloids and RBCs c. Colloids d. FFP
a. Crystalloids
61
Patient with polyuria, depression, anorexia, and bone pain stopping him from leaving the house, what is the cause? 1. DI 2. DM2 3. Hyperparathyroidism 4. Hyperthyroidism 5. Hypothyroidism
3. Hyperparathyroidism
62
What passes in the aortic hiatus with the aorta? a. Azygous vein b. Sympathetic chain
a. Azygous vein
63
Drug used for osteoporosis with tachyphylaxis as a characteristic?
a. Calcitonin
64
What is true about the prevention of myocardial infarction?
a. Secondary prevention with statins for all regardless of cholesterol level
65
What is the mechanism of action of ticlopidine? a. Inhibits activation of IIb/IIIa receptor b. Inhibits thromboxane production
a. Inhibits activation of IIb/IIIa receptor
66
What is only found on the internal surface of cells?
Phosphatidylserine
67
What is the mechanism of action of tofacitinib?
a. JAK kinase inhibitor
68
Patient present with clicking and his leg gives away due to injury to ACL, MCL, medial meniscus; whattestswouldbepositive? a. Varus, McMurry, anterior drawer b. Valgus and anterior drawer
b. Valgus and anterior drawer
69
Patient with small kidneys and concentric hypertrophy?
a. systemic hypertension
70
What is renal hyaline arteriosclerosis most characteristic of? a. Systemic hypertension b. Wegner’s granulomatosis
a. Systemic hypertension
71
What is happening at the end of the absolute refractory period?
a. Some Na channels are available for activation
72
What drug causes leg edema as a side effect?
Calcium blocker
73
Why is paracetamol preferred over of aspirin for a child?
Reye’s syndrome is associated with aspirin
74
What blood pressure is associated with pheochromocytoma? 1. upper limb 170/90, lower limb 120/85 2. upper limb 120/85, lower limb 170/90 3. 120/85 all over 4. 170/90 all over
4. 170/90 all over
75
what is a characteristic of XY pure gonadal dysgenesis?
Female secondary sexual characteristics
76
What muscle is responsible for flexion while walking?
Iliopsoas
77
How does somatostatin inhibit GH release?
Decrease cAMP
78
What is the function of 2,3-BPG?
a. Stabilizes deoxyhemoglobin to facilitate more O2 release
79
What is the importance of antibodies in diabetes type 1?
Predict disease development
80
What is given to prevent erythroblastosis fetalis?
Anti Rh antibodies to the mother after delivery
81
What is the function of thyroperoxidase? 1. Iodinatation of tyrosine residues 2. Reduction of iodine to iodide
1. Iodinatation of tyrosine residues
82
If a patient is given iodide at high doses, what’s is its mechanism of action? a. Blocks uptake of Iodine b. Inhibit iodination
b. Inhibit iodination
83
If neural crest cells fail to migrate, what structure of the adrenal gland fails to form? a. Medulla b. zona glomerulus c. zona fasciculate
a. Medulla
84
What is used to differentiate between follicular carcinoma and adenoma? a. FNAC b. Histology
b. Histology
85
Which structure of the humerus is most painful in a young man known to have tennis elbow? a. Medial epicondyle b. Lateral supracondylar ridge c. Medial supracondylar ridge d. Lateral epicondyle
d. Lateral epicondyle
86
What is the mechanism of action of statins?
a. Inhibit HMG-CoA reductase
87
Why is the net fluid movement directed inwards in the pulmonary circulation comparedto systemiccirculation? a. Less hydrostatic pressure of pulmonary circulation b. Less oncotic pressure in the pulmonary vessels
a. Less hydrostatic pressure of pulmonary circulation
88
Which nerve damage is responsible for loss of sensation in the posterior part of arm? a. Musculocutaneous b. Medial c. Radial d. Axillary
c. Radial
89
Which of the following does not indicate normal sinus rhythm? 1. Narrow QRS complex 2. P wave preceding every QRS 3. Irregular RR intervals
3. Irregular RR intervals
90
What does the P wave in ECG represent? 1. Atrial depolarization 2. Atrial contraction
1. Atrial depolarization
91
What is a feature of heart failure with preserved ejection fraction?
S4 sound
92
Patient with low corrected calcium, low phosphate. What could be the cause?
Decreased vitamin D
93
Patient with tracheal shift to the right, reduced sounds on the right, reduced chest expansion on the right lower area, what is true?
Right lower lobe collapse
94
Patient experienced cough in her teens but then it resolved. Recently, she has been experiencing dyspnea, cough and she experienced headaches and hypertension. She was given medication to fix her blood pressure. Her blood pressure and headache improved, but her dyspnea got worse. What could be a reason? a. Low grade lung infection b. Beta blockers used to treat HTN
b. Beta blockers used to treat HTN
95
Patient, known asthmatic, was taking salbutamol and steroids inhalers. She then stopped the medications because she was getting better. She moved from her house to another area closer to her new job. She had been treating her asthma with salbutamol as needed, but her asthma seemed to be getting worse. What could the reason be? a. Moving to an area with more pollution b. Losing long term control of her asthma
b. Losing long term control of her asthma
96
``` weight loss. Patient with long term cough, sometimes streaked with blood. Her daughter noticed some a. Lung cancer b. COPD c. TB ```
a. Lung cancer
97
What is associated with mitral stenosis? a. LA hypertrophy b. Atrial fibrillation
b. Atrial fibrillation
98
What causes volume overload? a. Mitral prolapse b. Atrial regurgitation
a. Mitral prolapse
99
Where are immune complexes destroyed? a. Liver b. Kidney
a. Liver
100
What causes acute exacerbation of chronic bronchitis? 1. Streptococcus pyogenes 2. Hemophilus influenza 3. Leigonella pneumophila 4. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
2. Hemophilus influenza
101
What is used in patients with respiratory distress (or epiglottitis)?
Cefotaxime
102
What is a non-purine xanthine oxidase? 1. Febuxostat 2. Allopurinol
1. Febuxostat
103
What is an essential part for fibrinolysis? a. Plasmin b. Fibrinogen
a. Plasmin
104
What is true about the fast ejection phase in the cardiac cycle? a. Increased atrial pressure b. End of ST wave of ECG c. decreased ventricle pressure d. decreased aortic blood flow
a. Increased atrial pressure
105
Where is collagen for thrombogenesis found?
a. Sub endothelial connective tissue
106
What would cause acute hemolytic reaction? a. Giving group B to O blood b. Rh+ve to Rh-ve
a. Giving group B to O blood
107
What is true about type 1 hypersensitivity
a. Low dose favors TH2 sensitization/reaction
108
Question with intracytoplasmic Auer rods. What is the diagnosis?
AML
109
What is the purpose of the endothoracic fascia near the ribcage?
Acts as a guide in surgeries
110
Where does the cephalic vein drain into?
a. Apical lymph nodes
111
A 41 years old man with unexplained progressive cardiac failure undergoes cardiac transplant. His removed heart shows infiltration of the myocardium with multinucleated cells and fibrous tissue. a. Chagasdisease b. viralmyocarditis c. hypersensitivity myocarditis d. bacterialmyocarditis e. Giant cell myocarditis f. toxoplasma myocarditis g. Diphtheria myocarditis h. Rheumatic myocarditis i. Chagas myocarditis
e. Giant cell myocarditis
112
A 37-year-old male with severe upper respiratory tract infection soon develops acute myocardial dysfunction and left ventricular failure. He dies despite therapy. After he died a postpartum section of his cariogenic myocyte show excessive necrosis without any inflammatory reaction. a. Chagasdisease b. viralmyocarditis c. hypersensitivity myocarditis d. bacterialmyocarditis e. Giant cell myocarditis f. toxoplasma myocarditis g. Diphtheria myocarditis h. Rheumatic myocarditis i. Chagas myocarditis
h. Rheumatic myocarditis
113
Large vessel granulomatous arteritis affecting branches of aortic arch, sometimes called pulseless disease? (A female presents with no pulse) a. giant cell arteritis b. Takayasu arteritis c. Polyarteritis nodosa d. Kawasaki disease e. Wegener granulomatosis f. Churg strauss syndrome g. Leukocytoblastic vasculitis h. Thromboangiitis obliterans
b. Takayasu arteritis
114
Child presenting with MI, inflammation of oral mucosa, and enlargement of cervical lymph nodes? a. giant cell arteritis b. Takayasu arteritis c. Polyarteritis nodosa d. Kawasaki disease e. Wegener granulomatosis f. Churg strauss syndrome g. Leukocytoblastic vasculitis h. Thromboangiitis obliterans
d. Kawasaki disease
115
Deficiency in which of the following is seen in hemophilia A?
factor 8
116
``` What do these values indicate? PaO2 96 PaCO2 35 Hb 162 Hb saturation 98% CaO2 215 CaCO2 150 DLCO 168% ``` a) Diffusion limitation b) High altitude c) Left to right shunt
b) High altitude
117
``` What do these values indicate? PaO2 60 PaCO2 36 Hb 157 Hb saturation 77% CaO2 163 CaCO2 129 DLCO 31% ``` a) Diffusion limitation b) High altitude c) Left to right shunt
a) Diffusion limitation
118
A 15-year-old girl presented with long standing anemia with frequent episodes of hospital visits. Her PBS showed Howell-Jowell bodies.
a. Sickle cell anemia
119
Caused by closure of semilunar valves a. First heart sound b. Second heart sound c. Aortic stenosis d. Pulmonary stenosis e. Patent ductus arteriosus f. Tricuspid regurgitation g. Aortic regurgitation h. Mistral stenosis
b. Second heart sound
120
Causes early diastolic murmur a. First heart sound b. Second heart sound c. Aortic stenosis d. Pulmonary stenosis e. Patent ductus arteriosus f. Tricuspid regurgitation g. Aortic regurgitation h. Mistral stenosis
g. Aortic regurgitation
121
nasolacrimal duct opens to?
Inferior meatus
122
In most cases of sickle cell disease this amino acid replaces glutamate in position 6. a. valine b. Lucien c. glutamate
a. valine
123
A tyrosine kinase inhibitor? a. cyclophosphamide b. hydroxyurea c. 6-mercaptopurine d. methotrexate e. imatinib f. procarbazine g. 5-fluorouracil h. mechlorethamine
e. imatinib
124
A prodrug that causes hemorrhagic cystitis? a. cyclophosphamide b. hydroxyurea c. 6-mercaptopurine d. methotrexate e. imatinib f. procarbazine g. 5-fluorouracil h. mechlorethamine
a. cyclophosphamide
125
A 27yrs old female with lower limb DVT, what could she have?
a. protein C resistance
126
Reflects blood glucose concentration over a long period. a. reducing sugar b. Hb c. HbA1c d. HbD e. unsaturated fatty acid f. enzymatic glycosylation g. ketone bodies h. Hbf
c. HbA1c
127
Source of advanced glycation a. reducing sugar b. Hb c. HbA1c d. HbD e. unsaturated fatty acid f. enzymatic glycosylation g. ketone bodies h. Hbf
a. reducing sugar
128
Maintain corpus luteum at the beginning of pregnancy. a. GnRH b. hcG c. FSH d. LH e. progesterone f. testosterone g. inhibin h. estradiol
b. hcG
129
Plays role in simulation of sertoli cells. a. GnRH b. hcG c. FSH d. LH e. progesterone f. testosterone g. inhibin h. estradiol
c. FSH
130
Found at the highest level during secretory phase of uterine cycle. a. GnRH b. hcG c. FSH d. LH e. progesterone f. testosterone g. inhibin h. estradiol
e. progesterone
131
What forms B homo-tetramers? a. HBH b. HB bart c. Valine d. lysine
a. HBH
132
Acts on osteoclasts and osteoclasts precursors to increase both number and activity of osteoclasts. a. Teriparatide b. The amount of matter per square centimeter of bone c. Alendronate d. RANKL
d. RANKL
133
Contraindicated in patients with osteosarcoma. a. Teriparatide b. The amount of matter per square centimeter of bone c. Alendronate d. RANKL
a. Teriparatide
134
Patient presents with a leg swelling, high hematocrit, and a JAK2 mutation.
a. Polycythemia vera
135
A child presenting with recurrent painful deep joint swellings. a. FFP b. pRBCs c. Factor VIII concentrate d. Granulocytes e. G-CSF f. vasopressin
c. Factor VIII concentrate
136
A girl is septic following an infection and has prolonged APTT and PT. a. FFP b. pRBCs c. Factor VIII concentrate d. Granulocytes e. G-CSF f. vasopressin
a. FFP
137
A man is receiving chemotherapy for cancer and presents with recurrent infections due to neutropenia. a. FFP b. pRBCs c. Factor VIII concentrate d. Granulocytes e. G-CSF f. vasopressin
e. G-CSF
138
Protein C is inable to bind and inhibit factor V. a. Protein C deficiency b. Antithrombin III deficiency c. Factor V Leiden
c. Factor V Leiden
139
A mutation present in 5% of the general population. a. Protein C deficiency b. Antithrombin III deficiency c. Factor V Leiden
c. Factor V Leiden
140
A girl with joint pain and renal injury presents with DVT. a. Pulmonary edema b. Pulmonary embolism c. Lupus anticoagulant
c. Lupus anticoagulant
141
A man presents with a leg swelling, chest pain, and shortness of breath. a. Pulmonary edema b. Pulmonary embolism c. Lupus anticoagulant
b. Pulmonary embolism
142
Forms short filaments in membranous cytoskeleton junctional complexes on RBC? a. Actin b. AE1 c. Spectrin d. GLUT1 e. Ankryn f. Band 4.1 g. Band 4.2 h. Na/K APTase i. Cyclocporin C
a. Actin
143
Mediates rapid electroneutral chloride-bicarbonate exchange. a. Actin b. AE1 c. Spectrin d. GLUT1 e. Ankryn f. Band 4.1 g. Band 4.2 h. Na/K APTase i. Cyclocporin C
b. AE1
144
An 18-year-old presents with microcytic anemia and splenomegaly. a. Thalassemia trait b. IDA c. Thalassemia major d. Sickle cell disease
c. Thalassemia major
145
A young girl comes to the ER multiple times and presents with severe bone pain. a. Thalassemia trait b. IDA c. Thalassemia major d. Sickle cell disease
d. Sickle cell disease
146
This Hb is seen in SCD. a. HbS b. HbH c. Hb Barts
a. HbS
147
Develops from the free margin of the septum primum. a. Limbus fossa ovalis b. Fossa ovalis c. Cresta terminalis d. Patent foramen ovale e. SA node
b. Fossa ovalis
148
Indicates the point at which sinus venosus absorbed into the primitive atrium. a. Limbus fossa ovalis b. Fossa ovalis c. Cresta terminalis d. Patent foramen ovale e. SA node
c. Cresta terminalis
149
When this increases, stroke volume decreases. a. Afterload b. Preload c. EDV d. Inotropy e. EDP f. Coronary BF g. CO
a. Afterload
150
When this decreases, end systolic volume increases. a. Afterload b. Preload c. EDV d. Inotropy e. EDP f. Coronary BF g. CO
g. CO
151
72-year-old Patient presents with collapsing pulse and diastolic decrescendo murmur. His pulse is 80. What is his blood pressure? a. 170/130 b. 170/45 c. 120/77 d. 100/88 e. 210/170 f. 99/59
b. 170/45
152
Patient presents with papilledema and intracranial hemorrhage. what is his blood pressure? a. 170/130 b. 170/45 c. 120/77 d. 100/88 e. 210/170 f. 99/59
a. 170/130
153
Nystagamus is an early indicator of toxicity with this drug? a. Lidocaine b. Adenosine c. Verapamil d. Diltiazem e. Captopril f. Nitroglycerin g. Losartan
a. Lidocaine
154
Drug of choice for acute SVT. a. Lidocaine b. Adenosine c. Verapamil d. Diltiazem e. Captopril f. Nitroglycerin g. Losartan
b. Adenosine
155
Finding in COPD. a. FEV1/FVC ratio <60% after bronchodilators b. TLC <80%
a. FEV1/FVC ratio <60% after bronchodilators
156
Finding in extra pulmonary restrictive disease. a. FEV1/FVC ratio <60% after bronchodilators b. TLC <80%
b. TLC <80%
157
A child with pharyngitis is allergic to penicillin, what is given instead? a. Cefotaxime b. Vancomycin c. Erythromycin
c. Erythromycin
158
What is given to a patient with epiglottitis? a. Cefotaxime b. Vancomycin c. Erythromycin
a. Cefotaxime
159
What drug inhibits cell wall synthesis? a. Cefotaxime b. Vancomycin c. Erythromycin
b. Vancomycin
160
A man presents with diarrhea and pneumonia; he was in Saudi Arabia recently. a. MERS coronavirus b. Influenza
a. MERS coronavirus
161
A patient presents with fever and myalgia. a. MERS coronavirus b. Influenza
b. Influenza
162
``` An X-ray shows a basal shadow going up to the apex, and the patient has been experiencing dyspnea. a. Pneumonia b. Pulmonary edema c. Foreign object d. Pulmonary effusion ```
b. Pulmonary edema
163
A thyroid mass shows pale nuclei, nuclear grooves, intracytoplasmic inclusions. a. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis b. Grave’s disease c. Papillary carcinoma
c. Papillary carcinoma
164
Atrophic follicles with lymphoid follicles and hurthle cells. a. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis b. Grave’s disease c. Papillary carcinoma
a. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
165
Plant-derived drug that binds to tubulin and acts as a mitotic poison. a. RANKL b. Teriparatide c. Colchine
c. Colchine
166
Cells involved in bone resorption. a. Osteoblast b. Osteoclast
b. Osteoclast
167
Cells involved in woven bone deposition for formation of bony callus. a. Osteoblast b. Osteoclast
a. Osteoblast
168
The genetic defect in IPEX a. Receptor editing b. T-reg defect
b. T-reg defect
169
Self-reactive B cells change their Ig light chains during central tolerance a. Receptor editing b. T-reg defect
a. Receptor editing
170
Caused by H1 receptor antagonists and antidepressants a. Galactorrhea b. Macro-prolactinoma c. Lateral nucleus (lateral hypothalamus)
a. Galactorrhea
171
Involved in increasing food intake and arousal a. Galactorrhea b. Macro-prolactinoma c. Lateral nucleus (lateral hypothalamus)
c. Lateral nucleus (lateral hypothalamus)
172
Hallmark of pathophysiology of osteoarthritis a. Crepitus b. Osteophytes c. Cartilage destruction d. Subchondral sclerosis e. Bone cyst
c. Cartilage destruction
173
Feature of osteoarthritis during passive knee flexion and extension a. Crepitus b. Osteophytes c. Cartilage destruction d. Subchondral sclerosis e. Bone cyst
a. Crepitus
174
What is involved in the cori cycle? a. AMP b. ADP c. Lactate
c. Lactate
175
What is a substrate for myokinase? a. AMP b. ADP c. Lactate
b. ADP
176
Bone scan, multiple foci of increased uptake a. AVN b. Osteomyelitis c. Metastasis
c. Metastasis
177
Bone scan, decreased uptake a. AVN b. Osteomyelitis c. Metastasis
a. AVN
178
Brachial artery begins at the lower border of this muscle.
Teres major
179
What muscle is supplied by the spinal accessory nerve?
Trapezius
180
Passes in the adductor canal?
Femoral
181
Supplies lateral compartment of leg?
Fibular
182
Anteromedial supply to leg?
Saphenous nerve
183
Damage results in foot eversion?
Tibial nerve
184
Red ragged fibers. a. Polymyositis b. Pompes disease c. Duchenne muscular dystrophy d. Dermatomyositis e. Mitochondrial myopathy f. Spinal muscular atrophy g. Inclusion body myositis
mitochondrial disease
185
Regenerative muscle fiber. a. Polymyositis b. Pompes disease c. Duchenne muscular dystrophy d. Dermatomyositis e. Mitochondrial myopathy f. Spinal muscular atrophy g. Inclusion body myositis
Duchenne muscular dystrophy
186
Which of the following is more potent than thyroxin?
a. T3
187
Which of the following at low doses can impair the secretion of uric acid?
a. Aspirin
188
Which of the following is an inhibitor of leukotrienes? a. Zafirlukast b. Salbutamol c. Albuterol d. zilueton
a. Zafirlukast
189
Which of the following is a short term B2 agonist? a. Zafirlukast b. Salbutamol c. Albuterol d. zilueton
b. Salbutamol
190
which of the following sinuses is mostly infected? a. Maxillary b. Frontal
a. Maxillary
191
What is special about the visceral pleura of the lungs?
a. It has no pain receptors
192
3 weeks following a mitral valve replacement surgery, a woman developed a valve infection. What could be the causative agent? a. S. epidermidis b. Brucella
a. S. epidermidis
193
A farmer came with an infection due to drinking unpasteurized milk. What could be the causative organism? a. S. epidermidis b. Brucella
b. Brucella
194
a patient came with cough and fever with high WBC count (neutrophilia) with toxic granulation.
a. Reactive neutrophilia
195
A heart transplant unit kept patient record of heart-lung transplants for the last 15 years. They used the data of patient that had pre-transplant pulmonary arterial pressure (exposure). And records of patient who died (outcome) in the last 15 years, time of death. What type of study was done? a. nested case-control b. concurrent cohort c. non-concurrent cohort d. (something) case-control e. RCT
c. non-concurrent cohort
196
In cohort studies, why do we oversample the high exposure group? a. to eliminate information bias b. to eliminate selection bias c. to eliminate confounding d. to increase statistical power e. to increase the sample size
d. to increase statistical power
197
In a study of patients with diabetes, we were given a table with n% and rows of age and gender, what’s this? a. Descriptive analysis of categorical variables b. Bivariate analysis of categorical variables c. Descriptive analysis of continuous variables
a. Descriptive analysis of categorical variables
198
Case control study of inactivity and MI, cases from hospital with MI, controls were from a health spa. Is there bias or not? a. Unbiased case, biased control, OR increased b. Biased case, unbiased control, OR increased c. Unbiased case, unbiased control, OR normal
a. Unbiased case, biased control, OR increased
199
What’s the difference between RCT and cohort?
a. Exposures are assigned by the person doing the study
200
Study A: wide CI, insignificant. Study B: narrow CI, significant P. What could be the cause?
a. Increased sample size in B
201
A question about p-value that was 0.01. What is the meaning of the P value?
a. Probability that this association found by chance is 1% if there really isn’t a true association