Final Flashcards
1
Q
What is the primary cell target for rickettsia?
A
endothelial cells (non professional phagocytes)
2
Q
What is the morphology of rickettsia?
A
very small pleomorphic coccobacilli
3
Q
How is rickettsia spread in the host?
A
reitculoendothelial and vascular endothelial cells or erythrocytes
4
Q
What is the diagnostic test of choice for rickettsia?
A
PCR
5
Q
What age does anaplasma marginale cause the most disease?
A
animals older than 18 months
6
Q
How is anaplasma marginale spread?
A
ticks and biting flies
7
Q
How is anaplasma marginale diagnosed?
A
cytology - blood smear and special staining
8
Q
What kind of cell is targeted by ehrlichia canis?
A
WBCs (different from rickettsia)
9
Q
What are the CS of ehrlichia canis?
A
pancytopenia, epistaxis, hypergammaglobulinemia, lymphadenopathy, increased RBC sedimentation
10
Q
What bacteria causes Potomac horse fever?
A
Neorickettsia risticii
11
Q
What are the symptoms of potomac horse fever?
A
anorexia, fever, leukopenia, explosive diarrhea
usually in the summer months
12
Q
How is neorickettsia risticii transmitted?
A
new info - ingestion of infected trematodes, also by biting arthropods
13
Q
How is chlamydia transmitted?
A
direct contact
14
Q
What are the two life cycle forms, infective and non infective, of chlamydia?
A
Elementary bodies - infective
reticulate or initial bodies - non infectious
15
Q
What is the cell tropism of chlamydia?
A
epithelial cells of mucous membranes and phagocytes
16
Q
What inclusion bodies does chlamydia produce?
A
membrane inclusion bodies (not free in cytoplasm like rickettsia)
17
Q
What is the incubation period for young and older birds for chlamydia psittici?
A
older - a few days to several weeks
young - 3-7 days
18
Q
What are the symptoms of psitticosis?
A
anorexia, diarrhea, mucopurulent discharge
19
Q
What is the treatment for psittacosis?
A
chlorotetracycline (peniciillin NOT effective) (intracellular)
20
Q
What are the symptoms of bartonella henselae?
A
regional lymphadenopathy, cutaneous inoculation lesion, fever, anorexia, resolves in 1 month
21
Q
What bacteria is the cause of infectious bovine keratoconjuctivitis?
A
Moraxella bovis
22
Q
What is the morphology of Moraxella bovis? What kind of colonies does it form?
A
gram negative diplobaccilli
forms pits on agar surface
23
Q
How does Moraxella bovis become infectious?
A
opportunistic! (concurrent viral or mycoplasma infection), solar radiation
24
Q
What are the two important virulence factors for moraxella bovis?
A
pilli
hemolysin - lyse RBCs and corneal cells
25
What is the treatment of choice for moraxella bovis?
oxytetracycline (intracellular)
26
Which burkholderia species is non motile and mammalian host adapted?
B. mallei
27
What species is burkholderia an obligate parasite?
equidae family
28
How does Pseudomonas and Burholderia encounter the host?
inhalation or wounds
29
What are the two pigments produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
pyoverdin and pyocanin
30
What are the diseases caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa in swine, cows, dogs, sheep, and chinchillas?
```
Swine - necrotic pneuomonias, enteritis, and rhinitis
Cow - mastitis
Dogs - otitis externa
sheep - green wool or fleece rot
chins - hemorrhagic pneumonia
```
31
What is the unifying feature of the CMN group? (coryne, myco, nocardia)
mycolic acids - long chain, alpha branched, beta-hydroxy fatty acids in cell wall
32
What is the cord factor and in what bacteria is it found?
cord factor - glycolipid composed of mycolic acid and an oligosaccharide
found in M. tuberculosis and M. bovis
33
How does cord factor act as a virulence factor?
grow in serpentine cords --> granulomatous reaction
34
What two stains can be used for mycobacterium?
acid fast and carbol-fuschsin stain
35
What two media can be used to culture mycobacterium?
middlebrooks and lowenstein-jensen (both have glycerol)
36
What is the morphology of mycobacterium?
small rods, non motile, strict aerobes
37
What can tissue be treated with to kill competing organisms to look for mycobacterium?
1:1000 bleach and 2% NaOH (myco are resistant to acid and alkali)
38
What happens with M. tuberculosis infects an immunodeficient host?
dissemination of tubercle bacilli (instead of nodules)
39
What is the term for cell density dependent communication system in bacteria that use N-acyl hemoserine lactones or small peptides to coordinate virulence?
quorum sensing (master regulator of virulence)
40
What starts biofilm formation in Pseudomonas?
rhamnolipids
41
What are the three advantages to Pseudomonas when in a biofilm?
antiphagocytic
protection from antimicrobials
mutate at higher frequency
42
What kind of disease does Burkholderia pseudomallei cause?
meliodosis - pain, skin infections, associated with suppurative or caseous lesions
43
Where is B. pseudomallei endemic to?
SE asia, other tropical countries, saprophytic, high humidity
44
What media can be used to help diagnose Burkholderia pseudomallei? What does it look like microscopically?
Ashdowns media = unique colony form (purple, wrinkled) and odor
bipolar, safety pin shaped
45
What can B. pseudomallei do different with its TT3S than pseudomonas?
form multinucleated giant cells
46
What causes Glanders disease in animals and humans?
Burkholderia mallei
47
What does B. mallei cause in horses?
(glanders)ulcerating nodules in URT, lungs and skin --> fatal
48
What are the CS of acute glanders dz?
septicemia with high fever, followed by thick discharge and resp distress --> death
49
What are CS of the chronic nasal form of glanders?
nodules in nasal cavity, star shaped scars
50
What are the CS of the pulmonary form of chronic glanders?
tubercle like nodules with calcified centers, consolidation, upper respiratory tract infection
51
What is the name for the cutanous form of chronic glanders. What are CS?
Farcy = purulent lymphadenitis, nodules along course of lymph and extremities
52
What is the test for glanders?
Mallein test - injected into eyelid, eyelid will swell in 1-2 days
or PCR
53
What is cord factor composed of?
basically 2 glucose and 2 mycolic acids
54
How is M. bovis transmitted?
airoborne, humans can get thru milk, congenital, sexual
55
What causes Johnes dz?
M. avium subspecies paratuberculosis (MAP)
56
How can pigs become infected with Mycobacterium avium?
wild and domestic birds
57
How is Mycobacteria avium complex diagnosed?
acid fast staining or reference lab
58
What does Johnes dz cause in ruminants?
chronic enteritis and severe diarrhea in cattle
59
How is MAP (paratuberculosis) diagnosed?
PCR of 16S rRNA
60
What intracellular bacteria causes fever, headache, rash, and loss of appetite?
R. rickettsii
61
What is the cell tropism for Anaplasma marginale?
RBCs
62
What symptoms are caused by Anaplasma marginale?
severe anemia, depression, inappetance, fever, dehydration
63
How is chlamydia different from rickettsia when it enters endothelial cells?
chlamydia is not free in the cytoplasm
64
What are the early CS of IBK?
excessive tear production, dislike of sun, closed eyelids
65
What are the later CS of IBK?
cloudy eye, ulcer, painful, weight loss
66
When you find one cow with moraxella bovis, what is your next step?
see if more than one animal is affected (usually is)
67
What is the correlation between Moraxella bovis and clinical disease in calves and dams?
Calves - positive correlation
| cows - no correlation
68
What is the culture requirement for pigment production for P. aeruginosa?
grow at 42 degrees C
69
What characteristics make P. aeruginosa preliminarily identifiable on mueller hinton agar?
green hue appearance and grape like odor
70
What are the three disposing factors to Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection?
1. parasitic or fungal infections of the skin
2. prolonged exposure to antimicrobials
3. poor sanitation
71
What are the bacteria in the CMN group?
corynebacteria, mycobacteria, and nocardia
72
What drugs are effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
necessary to run sensitivity tests!
73
What are the CS of burkholderia pseudomallei?
vary widely, most are subclinical
74
What are the two important preventative measures for B. pseudomallei? What is the treatment?
raise animals off soil, clean drinking water, minimize environmental contamination
tx - initial intensive therapy
75
What is the pathogenesis of nodules in M. tuberculosis in healthy animals/humans?
inhaled via aerosols --> alveolar macrophages --> macrophage activated by Th1 cytokines --> granuloma
76
What is the result of M. tuberculosis in immunodeficient hosts?
"Miliary tuberculosis" - unrestricted growth within macrophages --> dissemination of tubercle bacilli
77
What bacteria causes the ileum and colon to become corrugated and thickened and causes malabsorption of nutrients?
Johnes disease (M. avium ssp paratuberculosis)
78
What makes corynebacterium different than other bacteria in the CMN group?
not acid fast (despite mycolic acids)
79
What are two characteristic cellular components of corynebacterium?
metachromatic granules and "palisades" (picket fence) or chinese letters
80
What does it mean when you isolate corynebacterium from a clinical sample?
not necessarily cause of disease, is a commensal
81
What bacteria causes caseous lymphadenitis?
Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
82
What are the three species of corynebacterium renale group?
renale, pilosoum, cystitidis
83
What does the cell morphology of rhodococcus depend on?
pleiomorphic, 24 hours vs. 48 hours
84
What disease does C. renale cause?
posthitis (pizzle rot), also pyelonephritis, urethritis, and cystitis in cattle, sheep, horses
85
What makes Rhodococcus like the CMN group?
has mycolic acids
86
What can rhodococcus cells stain with if from fresh culture?
acid fast positive
87
What age are foals affected by rhodococcus equi?
4 - 12 weeks, coincides with decline in colostral Ab
88
What are the CS of rhodococcus equi?
slowly progressive, fever, increased respiratory rate, harsh lung sounds
89
What gross lesions are seen with Rhodococcus equi?
chronic pyogranulomatous bronchopneuomonia with extensive lung abcesses
90
How does Rhodococcus equi cause enteritis?
coughed up and swallowed
91
What bacteria causes rocky moutain spotted fever?
R. rickettsii
92
How does Rickettsia spp cause damage?
capillary thrombi
93
What species are most affected by psittacosis?
parrots, parakeets, turkeys
94
Whats the virulence factor of p. aeruginosa?
biofilm
95
What bacteria requires ashdown media to dagnose?
burkholderia pseudomallei
96
How does M. tuberculosis or M. bovis cause infection?
inhaled -->alveolar macrophages --> activation of other macrophages --> granuloma
97
What are the two problems with treating mycobacterium diseases?
long course of treatment, resistance can develop rapidly
98
Which bacteria can be cultured by using a cold enrichment technique? What temperatures can this bacteria grow at?
Listeria monocytogenes
| grows between 0.4C and 50C
99
What bacteria produces a camp reaction with staph aureus besides strep agalactiae?
Listeria monocytogenes
100
What is the cell tropism of L. monocytogenes?
CNS and placenta
101
What are the 4 types of listeriosis?
Intestinal, visceral, abortive, neural
102
What is the most common and fatal form of listeriosis usually seen in ruminants?
circling dz - prevelant in winter and early spring when sheep cut teeth
103
How does listeria get to the brain?
along trigeminal nerve
104
What is the sequence of stages of infection for listeria?
1. internaliation
2. escape from phagolysosomes
3. nucleation of actin filaments
4. cell to cell spread
5. membrane vacuole
105
What bacteria causes diamond skin dz in swine?
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
106
What are the 3 forms of diamond skin dz?
acute - die suddenly
subacute - high fever, walk stiffly, skin discoloration
chronic - arthritis
107
What is the root pathogenesis of diamond skin dz?
septic emboli
108
What is a sequelae of diamond skin dz acute and subacute forms?
endocarditis
109
What can be incorporated into culture media to allow obligate anaerobic growth?
reducing agents - sulfhydryl compounds and metallic iron
110
What are some causes of Eh lowering in host tissue?
loss of vascular supply, acid production, trauma
111
What are the important gram positive anaerobic bacilli?
actinomyces (aerotolerant)
| clostridium - spore forming
112
What are the important gram negative anaerobic bacilli?
bacteroides, fusobacterium
113
What bacteria are in the toxin forming-non invasive group of clostridium?
tetani and botulinum
114
What 4 bacteria can cause blackleg disease?
C. chauvoei
| also C. novyi, septicum, and sordellii
115
What bacteria has an alpha toxin that degrades phosphatidylcholine on cell membranes?
Clostridium chauvoei
116
What does phospholipase C (alpha toxin) break phosphatidylcholine into?
Diacylglycerol and phosphorylcholine (blackleg dz, chauvoei)
117
What are the gross lesions associated with blackleg dz?
hemorrhagic necrotizing myositis with substantial gas formation
118
What bacteria causes malignant edema?
Clostridium septicum
119
What are predisposing factors for malignant edema?
switch from succulent to dry/icy feed
120
What kind of disease is malignant edema? (C. septicum)
infection of abomasal lining
121
What is malignant edema called in sheep?
braxy
122
What bacteria causes red water disease (hemoglobinuria)?
Clostridium hemolyticum
123
What is the predisposing factor to infection with Clostridium hemolyticum?
liver fluke damage allows for anaerobiosis
124
What are the two types of Clostridium novyi and what diseases do they cause?
Type A - gas gangrene
| Type B - black disease
125
What bacteria causes "big head" disease in yearling rams?
Clostridium novyi
126
What bacteria causes Tyzzer's disease?
Clostridium piliforme
127
What are the two types of Tyzzer's disease?
1. necrotizing hepatitis
| 2. hemorrhagic enteritis - melana
128
What Gr + bacteria can show up gram negative when gram stained in aerobic conditions?
Clostridium pilliforme
129
What bacteria causes pseudomembranous enterocolitis?
Clostridium difficile
130
What clostridium can cause enterotoxemia?
clostridium perfringens
131
What two toxins does clostridium perfringens have?
alpha
| beta = profuse diarrhea
132
What bacteria causes yellow lamb dz in nursing lambs and horses?
Clostridium perfringens
133
What are the gross lesions of clostridium perfringens?
purple gut - necrosis and bleeding into gut lumen
134
What are the two diseases caused by C. perfringens type D?
enterotoxemia in sheep and goats
| pulpy kidney disease (overeating disease)
135
What are the CS of overeating disease?
colic, muscle tremors, convulsions, nystagmus, grinding of teeth, frothing
136
What are the important steps in preventing overeating disease?
vaccination, colostrum, gradual food transitions, lots of clean water
137
What is the MOA of tetanus toxin?
block release of inhibitory neurotransmitters persynaptically (GABA, glycine)
138
What is the MOA of botulinum toxin?
inhibits release of excititatory neutrotransmitter (AcH) in PNS --> flaccid paralysis --> respiratory failure
139
What is the target for both tetanus and botulinum toxin?
synaptobrevins (prevents fusion of vescile)
140
What causes contagious foot rot in sheep when combined with fusobacterium necrophorum?
Dichelobacter nodosus
141
What is a secondary invader that causes foot rot in cattle sheep and deer?
fusobacterium necrophorum
142
What bacteria causes foot rot in cattle with F. necrophorum?
Bacteroides malninogenicus
143
What should urine samples never be sent in?
EDTA
144
What is the gold standard in culturing for urine?
culture and susceptabilities prior to therapy and 3-5 days after completion of therapy
145
What are the two most common bacterial causes of UTIs?
```
E coli (50%)
Staph pseudintermedius (16%)
```
146
What are the virulence factors of uropathogenic e coli?
fimbrial adhesins (s and p) and cytotoxigenic necrotizing factor (CNF 1 and 2)
147
What can be used against MDR e coli?
nitrofurantoin
148
What is the term for hypae without septa?
coenocytic
149
What are three examples of dimorphic fungi?
blastomyces, histoplasma an coccidiodes
150
What is the term for sexual state of fungus and asexual state?
```
sexual = teleomorph
asexual = anamorph
```
151
Term for a spre resulting from fragmentation of a hypha a t the septum.
arthrospores
152
What does invasion of hair usually yield with dermatophyes?
masses of arthrospores
153
Term for spores outside hair shaft. Inside hair shaft.
ectothrix - outside
| endothrix - inside
154
Term for asexual spore usually produced at tip or side of a hypha. Basis for identification
conidium
155
Is transmission more common to be indirect or direct with dermatophytes?
indirect
156
What are the three opportunistic fungi?
aspergillus, candida, cryptococcus
157
What is the predominant pathogenic aspergillus species?
fumigatus
158
What is unique about the cultureability of aspergillus fumigatus?
can grow over wide temp range
159
What is the most comon mycosis of birds?
aspergillus fumigatus
160
What is the face like structure called on A. fumigatus?
sterigmata
161
What is the structure between the sterigmata and the conidiophore on A. fumigatus?
vesicle
162
What is the stalk in A. fumigatus called?
conidiophore
163
Where is C. albicans usually found? A. fumigatus?
albicans - normal inhabitant
| fumigatus -widespread in nature
164
What is the first test for C. albicans?
germ tube test - incubate 1-2 hours to see if germ tube forms
165
What fungi is prominant in pigeon droppings?
cryptococcus
166
What are the morphological characteristics of cryptococcus yeast form?
capsules can be much thicker than fungal cells
167
How does cryptococcus get inside the host?
inhalation then hematogenous spread
| basidiospore can penetrate lower resp tract
168
What is a popular target for cryptococcus because of low molecular weight nitrogen compounds?
CNS
169
What are the two important virulence factors for cryptococcus?
polysaccharide capsule and phenoloxidase (produces melanin)
170
What can be given orally for treating dermatophytes but is not active against other fungi?
griseofulvin
171
What is the MOA of griseofulvin?
disrupts mitotic spindle structure
172
What is the MOA of amphotericin B?
binds to ergosterol in fungal membrane --> leakage of ions
173
What is amphotericin B used to treat and how?
used IV - deep seated fungal infections,
174
What is the toxicity of amphotericin B?
nephrotoxic
175
What is the MOA of flucytosine?
disrupts DNA and RNA synthesis
176
How does flucytosine avoid affecting host cells?
enters via permease (only fungi have)
177
What is the MOA of azoles?
interfere with ergosterol biosynthesis
178
What azole has a broad spectrum and effects dermatophytes?
itraconaozole
179
What azole affects candida and cryptococcus but is ineffective against aspergillus?
fluconazole
180
What is the newer azole that is effective against aspergillus?
voriconazole
181
What is the MOA of echinocandins?
inhibit synthesis of beta 1,3 glucan in fungal cell wall
182
What are the two echinocandin drugs?
caspofungin and micafungin
183
What are the 3 major contagious mastitis pathogens?
staph aureus
strep agalactiae
mycoplasma bovis
184
What are the 3 major environmental mastitis pathogens?
coliform bacteria
strep (other than agalactiae)
fungi, algae
185
Is bacillus aerobic or anaerobic?
aerobic
186
What are the three differential culture characteristics between anthracis and other bacilli?
not hemolytic on sheep blood agar
has glutamyl polypeptide capsule
is not motile
187
What bacillus species is a food safety hazard?
bacillus cereus
188
What are the two forms of B. cereus food poisoning? What is their incubation time?
emetic form - short
| diarrheal form - long
189
What do B. anthracis colonies look like?
ground glass colonies
| medusa head edges
190
What are the microscopic characteristics of b. anthracis?
large Gr + rods, with square or concave ends in chains
191
What are some symptoms of b. anthracis?
sudden onset, high fever, bleeding from orifices, edema, peracute death in 1-2 hours
192
What can cutaneous anthrax cause?
black necrotic ulcer
193
What are the two virulence factors of anthrax?
capsule and exotoxin
194
What are the three components of anthrax exotoxins?
1 - edema factor
2-protective antigen --> host binding and pore formation
3 - lethal factor
195
What is the most important exotoxin of anthrax for virulence?
protective antigen
196
What is the MOA of anthrax toxin?
increased camp --> local edma
| Lf and PA -> degradation of MAPKK= cell death
197
What are the 4 pathogenic species that are transition bacteria?
actinomyces bovis
actinomyces viscosus
trueperella pyogenes
nocardia
198
What bacteria causes lumpy jaw disease in cattle?
actinomyces bovis
199
How can actinomyces bovis be diagnosed?
horse shoe shape sulfur granules
200
What are characteristics of "transition" bacteria?
generally anaerobic, Gr +, branching growth pattern that forms mycelium
201
What transition bacteria can be combined with fusobacterium necrophorum to form heal abcesses (foot rot) in sheep?
trueperlla pyogenes
202
What bacteria forms star shaped coloies that adhere to agar?
nocardia
203
What is important when diagnosing nocardia?
grows slowly, must do gram stain also
204
How can nocardia get into the hose?
inhalation, cotamination of skin wounds
205
What disease is most severe from nocardia?
pulmonary nocardiosis (can also cause mastitis)
206
How can you distinguish transition bacteria from funal infections?
mycelial filament diameter is less than 1 uM in transition bacteria (very important)
207
What are the two forms of dermatophilus congolensis?
non motile - hyphae
| motile form - zoospores
208
What can increase the incidence of dermatophilus congolensis?
wet weather - wet skin releases zoospores
209
What are the main diseases caused by dermatophilosis?
lumpy wool in sheep
cutaneous stretothricosis in cattle
(exudative dermatitis with scabs)
210
How is dermatophilus congolensis transmitted?
mechanically (tree branches, dipping, biting insects)
211
What is the pathogenesis of dermatophilosis?
hyphae invade epidermis - serous exudate leask to surface --> thick scab
212
What are the 3 fungi that can cause systemic mycoses?
blastomyces, histoplasma, coccidiodes
213
Where is each systemic mycoses found?
blasto - eastern and central US
histo - midwest
coccidiodes - desert SW US
214
How are systemic mycoses transmitted?
inhalation of spores
215
What are the 3 characteristics of systemic mycoses?
1. geographical restriction
2. inhaltion transmission
3. dimorphism
216
What yeast forms a globose with thick refractile walls and buds rise from a wide opening?
blastomyces
217
What systemic mycoses can infect normal healthy animals?
blastomyces
218
What are the virulence factors of blastomyces?
BAD-1 cell surface protein - mediates adhesion to lung tissue
219
Where is histoplasma usually found?
in bat and bird droppings
220
What are the yeast characteristics of histoplasma? mold form?
very small yeast,intracellular
| mold - aerial mycelia
221
What is the most commonly infected animal by histoplasma?
dogs
222
What is seen in tissues infected with coccidiodes?
spherules
