Midterm Flashcards
(207 cards)
1
Q
Where are techoic acids found?
A
only in gram +, attached to wall and plasma membrane
2
Q
Where are LPS only found in abundance?
A
gram negative outer membrane
3
Q
What are the 3 parts of LPS?
A
o-antigen, core region, Lipid A (endotoxin)
4
Q
What part of LPS is responsible for reducing phagocytosis and confers smoothness?
A
O-antigen
5
Q
Where is periplasmic space found?
A
gram negatives b/w inner and outer membrane
6
Q
Are porins found in gram + or gram - bacteria?
A
gram -
7
Q
What is the term for inability of an organism to synthesize a particular organic compound required for its growth?
A
auxotrophy (opposite - prototrophy)
8
Q
What is the term for gain of electrons?
A
reduction
9
Q
What is the term for loss of electrons?
A
oxidation
10
Q
What is the part of the nernst equation we have to know?
A
Eh = Oxidant/reductant
11
Q
How does increasing O2 prevent growth of anaerobes?
A
increases redox potential (more + value)
12
Q
What is the Eh of normal tissue?
A
+150 mvolts
13
Q
Which 3 brucella spp have an unrestricted host range and are therefore zoonotic?
A
melitensis (small ruminants)
abortus (cattle)
suis
14
Q
What is the morphology of brucella?
A
gram - coccobacilli
15
Q
Where do brucella live in host?
A
obligate intracellular bacteria in monocytes and macrophages
16
Q
Why is brucella highly invasive?
A
can penetrate intact mucosa and has hematogenous spread
17
Q
How does brucella escape lysosomes?
A
redirects vesicular traffic then directs to endoplasmic reticulum via Type IV secretion system (molecular syringe)
18
Q
Why does brucella have tropism for reproductive tissue?
A
erythritol (but not in humans – undulant fever instead)
19
Q
How are brucella spp speciated in diagnosis?
A
PCR follwed by pulsed field electrophoresis
20
Q
How can brucella be diagnoosed?
A
isolation or direct observation
21
Q
What drug do enterococcus have innate resistance to?
A
cephalosporins
22
Q
Are staph spp catalase positive or negative?
A
catalase positive
23
Q
What is the morphology of staph?
A
gram + non motile
24
Q
What 2 molecules are involved in adhesion of staph?
A
Protein A and fibronectin binding proteins
25
What 2 molecules help staph capsules resist phagocytosis?
protein A and polyurinic acid
26
What 2 molecules help staph resist oxidative burst?
carotenoids (staphyloxanthin) and catalase
27
What staph enzyme results in walling off of necrotic areas?
coagulase
28
What is the species of staph that causes the most dog and cat dz?
s. pseudintermedius
29
What is different with s. pseudintermedius than other CP staph?
ONPG positive (beta galactosidase)
30
What molecule is destroyed by S. hyicus in greasy pig dz?
desmoglein 1
31
What staph species causes bumble foot?
S. aureus
32
What is a characteristic of MRSA staph that causes it to be more virulent?
lyses PMN after phagocytosis
33
What gene causes virulence of S. aureus in bovine mastitis?
adhesive protein Bap
34
What is the term for E coli virulence profile shown as fimbria/toxin?
pathotype
35
What are e coli serogroups?
O, LPS, K(capsule), H (flagella)
36
What is an important serotype of E coli that is causing problems in US?
O157:H7
37
What two types of E coli cause hypersecretory diarrhea?
ETEC
| EAggEC
38
What are the 4 fimbria types used for vaccines against E coli in piglets?
K88, K99, 987P, and F18
39
What are the 4 fimbria types for vax against e coli in calves?
K99, F41, CS31A, FI845
40
What can be used to make a vaccine against E coli already on the farm?
autogenous bacterins
41
What 2 fibriae types are responsible for weanling diarrhea in e coli infection?
K88 or F18
42
What can shiga like toxin cause in weanling diarrhea in pigs?
edema dz
43
What is the cause of neurological signs in edema dz of swine?
shiga like toxin (NOT infection)
44
What type of ecoli produces EAST toxin?
enteroaggregative (EAggEC)
45
What is the main MOA of E coli causing malabsorptive diarrhea?
intimin ->actin filament changes
46
What are the 4 e coli types involved in malabsorptive diarrhea?
AEEC, EPEC, EHEC, and EIEC
47
What are the 2 main diseases seen with salmonella?
diarrhea and respiratory dz
48
What do the salmonella serotypes consist of?
O and H antigens
49
What determines serotypes in salmonella?
slide agglutination assays - suggests virulence type or host specificity
50
What is the term used for salmonella groups that are determined by the combo of serogroups expressed?
serovar
51
What are the main serovars of salmonella for bovine?
D (dublin)
B (typh)
C (newport)
52
What are the main serovars of salmonella in porcine?
C (cholera-suis)
| B (typh)
53
What are the main serovars in poultry for salmonella?
D (enteritidis or Pullorum
54
What are the main serovars in equine species for salmonella?
B (anatum or typh)
55
How can salmonella use its flagella in escaping hosts humoral response?
flips between H1 and H2 motility type
56
What gene is responisble for salmonellas inherent invasive abiity and is the basis for PCR methods?
invA gene
57
What two pathogenecity islands in the invA gene help with attachment and apoptosis of PMNs?
SP1-I : attachment and invasion
| SPI-2: apoptosis
58
How does salmonella differ in its invasion of the intestines from e. coli?
first goes through M cells (rather than enterocytes)
59
What is a characteristic chronic lesion associated with salmonella enterica?
hemorrhagic necrotizing enteritis - ulcerative colitis
60
What organs are mostly involved with salmonella septicemia?
spleen and liver
61
Where is enterococcus usually found?
flora of GIT in warm blooded animals
62
What kind of diseases does enterococcus cause?
fecal contamination --> metritis, UTI, otitis
63
What enterococcus is spread by AI of sows by semen? What is the virulence factor?
E. fecalis
| cytolysis L + S
64
What antibiotic does enterococcus have an innate resistance to?
cephalosporins
65
What enterococcus causes osteomyelitis in broilers?
E. cecorum
66
How is MRS resistant to beta lactams?
posess penicillin binding protein type 2 (beta lactamase)
67
Where is the MRS gene located?
staph cassette chromosomes
68
What are the major virulence factors of MRS on mobile genetic elements?
phenol soluble modulins
enterotoxins
adhesive protein Bap (bovine mastitis)
exfoliative toxins ETA, ETA2, and ETA3
69
What important virulence factor of MRS is encoded on bacteriophages?
exfoliative toxins ETA, ETA2, and ETA3
70
How do MRS convey host specificty?
sequence differences in the chyotrypsin serine protease (desmoglein 1)
71
What are the major virulence factors for septicemic E. coli?
siderophores, endotoxin
cytotoxigenic necrotizing factor (CNF)
cytolethal distending toxin (CLDT)
72
What E. coli vaccine resulted in enhanced humoral response for coliform mastitis?
E.coli J-5
73
What are the 3 predominant sergroups of uropathogenic e. coli?
O2, O4, and O6
74
What is the e. coli fimbria involved in cystitis?
Type 1, often hemolytic
75
What iare the 2 major virulence factor in pyelonephritis with E. coli?
Pap (pyeloneph associated pili) and S-fimbria
76
What are the 2 important serotypes involved in avian pathogenic e. coli causing septicemia?
O2 and O78
77
What is the leading cause of mare infertility and meningitis in foals? (specific)
klebsiella with k1 capsule
78
What klebsiella serogroup causes UTIs in horses?
K2
79
What two enterobactericiae are found in the oral flora of dogs and cause mastitis?
Serratia marcescens and Klebsiella spp.
80
What is a gram negative cocci that is often an oral contaminant of respiratory cultures?
Neisseria sp.
81
What opportunistic infections can Neisseria sp. cause?
bite wound --> sepsis
82
What gram negative bacteria, found in the oral cavity of dogs, is used as indicator for oral contamination of BAL?
Simonsiella sp.
83
What are the bacterial characteristics of Lactobacillus sp?
long gram + rod, catalase negative, facultative anaerobe
84
What oppurtunistic infection does Lactobacillus cause?
peritonitis from GIT sx leakage
85
Where are alpha streptococci normally present?
nasal pharyngeal flora
86
What is a good diagnostic method for fastidious gram negative bacteria such as f. tularensis?
16s rRNA gene sequencing
87
What are the two major serovars of F. tularensis and their virulence?
Type A - US - most virulent
| Type B - Europe - less virulent
88
How is F. tularensis transmitted from rabbits to other vertebrates?
bite of insects, ingestion, inhalation
89
What are the two major virulence factors associated with F. tularensis?
capsule, acid phosphatase
| also escapes phagolysosomes and unusual LPS
90
What are the 3 drugs of choicce for F. tularensis?
streptomycin, doxycycline, gentamycin (intracellular penetration)
91
How is Y. pestis spread?
rodents - spread by fleas
92
What is the tx of choice for Y. pestis?
streptomycin
93
Where is the flagella located in spirochetes?
endoflagella in periplasmic space
94
What diagnostic tests help to speciate spirochetes?
PCR and serology
95
What is the pathogenesis of persistance of borrelia burgdorferi?
membrane derived cysts --> L forms, resistant
96
How does the borrelia bacteria migrate from tick to human during feeding?
change in temp activates OspA to chance to OspC adhesin
97
How is leptospira diagnosed? 3 ways
PCR of urine, clin chem, serology (MAT)
98
What is the outcome of a host-adapted leptospira infection?
animal becomes reservoir host
99
What is the outcome of non-host adapted leptospira infections?
accidental dz, sporadic infection
100
How does leptospira encounter and enter the host?
through urine, ingestion of urine or feces or sexual contact (treponema)
101
What is the main cause of damage by leptospira?
endothelium damage --> affects any organ system
102
What is the pathogenesis of leptospira in the kidney?
interstital nephritis, tubular necrosis, impaired capillary permeability --> hypovolemia -->kidney failure
103
What are the different host adapted serovars of leptospira for cattle, swine and horses?
Cattle - hardjo
| Swine and horses- bratislava
104
What are the different host adapted serovars of leptospira for dogs, deer, rodents, and raccoons?
dog - canicola
deer - pomona
rodents - icterohaemorrhagiae
raccoons - autumnalis
105
What is the most common manifestation of lepto in pigs?
abortions occuring 2-4 weeks before term
106
What plays a role in maintenence of lepto in pigs?
veneral transmission from carrier boars and sows
107
What does lepto cause in attle?
calves --> fever, anorexia, hemolytic anemia
108
What are the CS of lepto in horses?
uveitis or abortions
109
What is the etiologic agent of swine dysentery?
Brachyspira hyodysenteriae
110
What kind of lesions will be seen with swine dysentery?
necrohemorrhagic enterocolitis
111
What spirochete colonizes the hindgut of vertebrates and causes colonic spirochetosis?
Brachyspira pilosicoli
112
What diagnostic test is the acute indicator of leptospira infection?
quantitative PCR (vax does not effect)
113
What diagnostic test is a chronic indicator of lepto infection?
MAT (microagglutination titer)
114
When will peak serum antibody titers occur for lepto?
17-21 days post infection
115
Which host species would lawsonia be a differential diagnosis for diarrhea?
pigs, horses, rodents
116
What disease does lawsonia cause?
proliferative enteropathy
117
What are the 4 different forms of proliferative enteropathy in swine based on age of animal and chronicity?
Chronic forms- young animals --> porcine intestinal adenomatosis, necrotic enteritis, regional ileitis
Acute form- old -->proliferative hemorrhagic enteropathy
118
What are the unique histopath lesions of Lawsonia inracellularis?
long branched crypts --> increased PMNs, decreased goblets
119
What are the unique gross lesions of Lawsonia intracellularis?
proliferative enteritis - mucosal expansion
120
What are the 2 diagnosis tests for ante mortem detection of lawsonia intracellularis?
PCR in feces
| serology
121
What are the 2 subspecies of campylobacter fetus and their hosts?
C. fetus var veneralis - bovine
| C. fetus var fetus - ovine and bovine
122
What specimen should always be taken in LA abortions?
stomach contents of fetus
123
What toxin is responsible for the damage caused by campy jejuni?
cytolethal distending toxin (e coli also has)
124
Why is Campy jejuni such a scary zoonotic pathogen?
common in small ruminants, cattle, dogs --> enteritis, abortions
also guilian barre syndrome
125
What is the biology of the C. jejuni cytolethal distending toxin?
cdtB encodes active/toxic component (unlike A/B toxi)
| cdTB enters nuclease and causes DNA double strand breaks
126
Why must specific C. jejuni culture be requested during diagnosis?
microaerophilic environment and specific media
127
What are the 3 important species of Hemophilus?
parasuis, paragallinarum, somnus
128
What is the bacterial characteristics for all of the HAP group of bacteria?
pleomorphic gram - rod, facultative or aerobic
129
What two factors are needed to grow Hemophilus in culture?
X factor : heme
V factor: NAD
can use chocolate agar
130
What is the satellite phenomenon?
Staph streak down middle of plate - hemophilus only grows near it
131
Where is hemophilus usually found and transmitted?
normal flora
| respiratory transmission by close contact
132
What is the main predisposing factor to infection with hemophilis parasuis?
concurrent viral infection - SIV, PRRS
133
What are the 2 forms of Hemophilis parasuis disease?
respiratory
| Glassers - polyserositis, vasculitis
134
What dz does Hemophilis somnus cause?
thromboembolic meningoencephalitis
135
When does hemophilus somnus disease usually occur in calves?
feedlot cavles a few weeks after being brought together in the fall
136
What is the eitologic agent of Fowl Coryza?
avibacterium paragallinarum (in pasteurella family)
137
What species are affected by wooden tongue, A. lignieresii?
cattle, sheep, swine, horses
138
What species is affected by Actinobacillus pleuropneumonia?
swine (nasal cavities)
139
What CS does actinobacillus equuli cause?
sleepy foal dz (septicemia)
140
What causes damage and death in A. pleuropneumonia?
endotoxin - sudden death
| repeating tandem x toxin family - highly toxic to macros and endothelial cells
141
What lesions will be seen in swine infected with A. pleuropneumoia?
exudative, proliferative, hemorrhagic and necrotic bronchopneumonia
142
What is the treatment for A. pleuropneumonia?
no vax, must do susceptibility testing
143
What 4 diseases result from infection with pasteurella multocida?
atrophic rhinitis
fowl cholera
ruminant hemorrhagic septicemia
bite wounds (cat)
144
What is the significance of the capsule of pasteurella multocida?
serogrouping and related to pathogenicity/host specificity
145
What are the two most important virulence factors of pasteurella multocida?
capsule
| PMT - causes cytoskeletal arrangements in host cells
146
What is the co-infection requirement for P. multocida in atrophic rhinitis in swine?
bordetella bronchiseptica
147
What kind of disease is fowl cholera?
avian hemorrhagic septicemia
148
How does P. multocida evade immune response?
immunological mimicry - sialic acid --> can cause autoimmune dz
149
What is the most frequent bacterial isolate in lungs of pneumonic cattle?
Mannheimia hemolytica
150
What are the important morphological characteristics for mycoplasma?
gram negative, no cell wall, very small, fried egg on media
151
What are the culture reqs for mycoplasma spp?
rich media, sterols needed, incubation for 2-10 days, 9% CO2, osmotically fragile
152
What are the 3 host specific respiratory mycoplasmas?
M. bovis - CPPS, BRD, and mastitis
M. hyopneumoniae - enzootic pneumonia in swine
M. gallisepticium - chronic resp dz
153
What is the most likeley mechanism of mycoplasma damage to host?
innocent bystander - immune response causes damage
154
What are the virulence mechanisms of mycoplasma spp?
surface lipoprotein phase variation - slipping of tandem repeats
some have "terminal organelle" - adhesins
155
What 2 antibiotics are mycoplasma species resistant to?
penicillin, sulfonamides (cell wall)
156
How can M. bovis be diagnosed?
ELISA serology or PCR of lung post mortem
157
What drug is effective in treatment of M. bovis?
Tulathromycin
158
How is M. hyopneumoniae in swine diagnosed?
PCR of BAL, nasal swabs
159
What are the important haemotropic mycoplasmas in dogs and cats? (4)
dog - M. haemocanis
| cat - M. haemofelis, M. haemominutim, M. turicensis
160
What is the host and disease of Ureaplasma diversum?
cattle - reproductive and respiratory infections, abortion
161
What test differs strep from staph?
strep - catalase negative
| staph - catalase positive
162
What kind of metabolism does strep use? What test can aid in diagnosis?
strictly fermentative
| CHO broth -->yellow
163
What are the two unique cell wall components of strep?
lipoteichoic acid pilli + M protein
| hyaluronic acid capsule
164
How are streptococcus grouped and what species is in each group?
```
Lancefield grouping - C-carbohydrate on wall
A - S. pyogenes
B - S. agalactiae
C - S. equi
D - S. bovis, uberi, AND enterococcus
G - S. canis
```
165
Which strep group (and pathogen) result in auto immune dzs?
group A - pyogenes (rheumatic fever or glomerulonephritis)
166
What 3 diseases are caused by group B strep, S. agalactiae?
pneumonia, sepsis, meningitis
167
What does group C strep cause?
pharyngitis and pneumonia in equines, dogs, guinea pigs and humans
168
What are the 3 soluble virulence factors of streptococcus species?
Hemolysins - varies
streptokinase - lyses clots
hyaluronidase - spread
169
What are the two important hemolysins in streptococcus spp?
Streptolysin O - oxygen sensitive, immunigenic
| Streptolysin S - stable, non immunogenic
170
What are the two insoluble factors aiding in streptococcus virulence?
M protein - pilus like structure
F - protein - fibronectin binding
both are adhesins
171
What virulence related protein is different between staph and strep?
staph - Protein A
strep - protein G
anti-phagocytic
172
What toxin causes the rash associated with scarlet fever in strep infections?
pyrogenic (erythrogenic) toxin
173
What 3 strep toxins are nephritogenic?
Streptokinase
streptodomase (dnase B)
streptolysins
174
Why is strep more invasive than staph?
strep breaks down fibrin --> less likely to abcess and can spread
175
How does strep survive in macrophages?
has superoxide dismutase (even though catalase negative)
176
What are two easy diagnostic tests to identify streptococcus genus?
hemolysis rxn, CAMP rxn (arrow on blood agar)
177
What test determines if the strep is S. bovis or S. suis?
hydrolysis of esculin
178
What strep group grows in bile or salt broth?
group D
179
What antibiotics should be used against strep?
beta lactams and cephalosporins
180
How is strangles, S. equi (beta strep), diagnosed?
M protein PCR detection
181
What is usefule in reducing CS in equine strangles?
vax
182
Which beta strep causes upper resp infections in foals?
S. equi ssp. zooepidemicus
183
What beta strep causes septic arthritis in pigs?
S. dysgalactiae ssp. equisimilis
184
What beta strep causes oppurtunistic infections associated with allergy?
Strep canis
185
What mastitis causing strep is an obligate IM pathogen and is camp + and B hemolytic?
S. agalactiae
186
What two strep spp are environmental causes of mastitis? What is there hemolysis pattern?
S. uberis - alpha
| S. dysgalactiae - gamma
187
What is recommended for treatment in alpha strep (group D, non enterococcus)?
susceptibility testing
188
Which strep causes meningitis and septicemia in young pigs? What are the two types?
strep suis
Type 1 - baby pigs
Type 2 - older young pigs
189
Which strep is an important zoonotic dz in pig farmers/handlers?
strep suis
190
What dzs does strep bovis cause in calves?
resp, meningitis, endocarditis
191
What can strep bovis lead to with diets high in starch?
feedlot bloat
192
What 2 autoimmune dzs is a sequelae of strep throat?
acute rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis
193
What are problems caused by a superantigen such as in strep species?
large subset of T-cells --> excess cytokines --> shock
194
What 2 antibiotics should be avoided in strep tx?
fluoroquinolones and vancomycin
195
What are alternatives to antibiotics in tx of strep?
bacteriophage (use once)
| bacteriocins - streps inhibit other streps
196
What are the morph characteristics of bordetella?
gram - rods, obligate aerobe, slow growing, oxidase and catalase positive
197
What are the toxins produced by bordetella?
dermonecrotic, endotoxin, iron acquisition
198
What other animals can be infected by bordetella besides dogs?
pigs, rabbits, cats, horses
199
What are some cell proteins that bordetella possesses and what do they do?
Fimbriae (pertussis vax)
filamentous hemagglutinin - binds on cilia
pretactin - host cell attachment, immunogenic
LPS
200
What 2 bordetella species infect birds?
B. avium, hinzii,
201
What are the 3 A/B toxins we have talked about?
E labile toxin
cholera toxin
pertussis toxin
202
What toxin is present in all gram negative bacteria peptidoglycan and stimulates TNF alpha?
tracheal cytotoxin (used by bordetella --> cilia)
203
What does the bordetella toxin, adenlate cyclase/hemolysin target?
phagocytes
204
How does bordetella bronchiseptica release its toxins?
type 3 secretion system
205
What two bacteria have a two component signal transduction system that conserves energy while not in the host?
strep equi and bordetella
206
What is the MOA of S. aureus toxic shock toxin?
crosslinks TCR peptide chain with MHC class 2 molecule --> excessive secretion of cytokines
207
What does streptolysin do?
forms membrane pores
