Final Flashcards
1
Q
The types of employee turnover include ___________
A
Voluntary & Involuntary(discharge & downsizing)
2
Q
Discharge turnover is usually due to ___________.
A
poor employee performance
3
Q
Turnover due to organizational downsizing is classified as ______.
A
involuntary
4
Q
The desirability of leaving an organization is often an outgrowth of _________.
A
poor person and organizational match
5
Q
An employee’s intention to leave an organization is influenced by __________.
A
perceived desirability of movement, perceived ease of movement and alternatives available to the employee
6
Q
Ease of leaving is greater when
A
lavor markets are loose
7
Q
downsizing is typically a reflection of
A
overstaffing
8
Q
Data are seldom available regarding when or where employee turnover is occurring in most organizations.
A
false
9
Q
Research suggests that there are differences between the reasons for turnover that employees provide in exit interviews and the reasons employees provide in anonymous surveys.
A
true
10
Q
Because it is typically very easy to collect and analyze job satisfaction data meaningfully, most organizations make this a cornerstone of their retention strategy.
A
false
11
Q
Exit interviews can be used to explain _________ to departing employees.
A
rehiring rights, benefits and confidentiality agreements
12
Q
Which of the following is a suggestion for conducting an appropriate exit interview
A
the interviewer should prepare for each interview by reviewing the interview format and the interviewee’s personnel file
13
Q
Which of the following is a common tool to assess employee reasons for leaving?
A
exit interview
14
Q
Economic separation costs associated with voluntary turnover include ________.
A
manager’s time
15
Q
Replacement costs associated with voluntary turnover include __________.
A
HR staff incudtion costs
16
Q
Which of the following is a potential benefit associated with voluntary employee turnover?
A
savings from not replacing an employee
17
Q
Which of the following makes involuntary turnover potentially more costly than a similar level of voluntary turnover?
A
possibility of a lawsuit
18
Q
Economic costs associated with downsizing include ___________.
A
higher unemployment insurance premiums
19
Q
Which of the following is a potential benefit associated with downsizing?
A
focus on core businesses, emliminating peripheral ones, spreading risk by outsourcing activities to other organizations, lower payroll and benefit costs
20
Q
The first strategy for improving employee retention is to _____________.
A
increase job satisfaction
21
Q
Guidelines for increasing job satisfaction and retention include ___________.
A
link rewards to retention behaviors
22
Q
Which of the following is an attribute of a high value employee that an organization would want to prevent from leaving?
A
strong KSAOs
23
Q
Which of the following is an attribute of a low value employee that an organization would not want to prevent from leaving?
A
little intellectual capital
24
Q
Research most clearly suggests that when organizations wish to increase retention they need to _____.
A
offer “bundles” of HR practices that complement one another
25
Which of the following factors leading to turnover cannot usually be addressed by the organization?
employee shocks
26
Organizations can use compensation to reduce turnover by _____.
providing deferred compensation, giving specific rewards for seniority, increasing pay levels to surpass the market
27
Organizations that link extrinsic rewards to employee performance (i.e. that use incentive compensation plans) find that _____.
turnover of high performers decreases and turnover of low performers increases
28
Work-life balance programs are an example of _____.
intrinsic rewards
29
Research on organizational justice suggests that ____.
justice influences turnover in highly industrialized countries, communication has a large impact on employee attitudes or turnover intentions
30
To increase the cost of leaving, employers ____.
provide deferred compensation
31
As assessment of employee success in reaching goals, ratings of competencies, and suggestions for improvement are all part of _____.
performance appraisal
32
Recommendations for the effective design and use of a performance appraisal or management system include that ____________.
evaluations should be in writing, the employee should recieve timely feedback about the evaluation and explanation for any outcome decision and there should be agreement amoung different raters in their evaluation of the employee's performance
33
______ includes the completion of job tasks that are specifically included in the job description.
task performance
34
Which of the following is a part of normal progressive discipline?
give employees notice of the rules of conduct, allow for full investigation of alleged employee misconduct and give employees the right to appeal a decision
35
Which of the following is an example of a major employee offense?
sabotage, theft and drug/alcohol abuse at work
36
The typical penalty for a first major offense by an employee is
suspension or discharge
37
One problem that has been shown to accompany downsizing is _____.
decrease in employee health and motivation
38
Which of the following is the most commonly pursued alternative to layoffs for reducing staffing levels?
attrition
39
In many cases, the post-layoff environment for those who remain is marked by _____.
reductions in trust of management, stress among those who remain and reductions in workforce quality
40
One problem that has been shown to From a legal standpoint, if performance appraisal information is to be used in the retention management and termination process for an organization, the organization needs to ensure that the information is _____.
communicated in advance to the employee
41
The process of acquiring, deploying, and retaining a workforce of sufficient quantity and quality to create positive impacts on the organization's effectiveness is called ________.
staffing
42
Which of the following statements is true regarding staffing?
The staffing process is composed of a series of interrelated parts including recruitment, selection, decision making and job offers.
43
The process that involves the placement of new hires on the actual job they will hold is called ___________.
deployment
44
The purpose of retention systems is to __________.
manage the flow of employees out of the organization
45
Staffing systems exist, and should ultimately be used, to __________.
contribute to the attainment of organizational goals such as survival, profitability and growth
46
According to the staffing quantity model, an organization will be __________ when availabilities exceed requirements.
overstaffed
47
The staffing quantity model uses _________ to determine whether a condition of being overstaffed, fully staffed, or understaffed exists.
projected staffing requirements and availabilities
48
Which of the following are portions of person-job match?
jobs are characterized by their requirements, embedded rewards and individuals are characterized by their level of qualificiations and motivation
49
Which of the following statements is false regarding person-job match?
Organizational culture is an important aspect of person-job match.
50
The person/job match model says that there must be a match between _______.
job requirements with KSAOs and job rewards with individual motivation
51
In terms of the person/organization match ________.
there is a concern with the "fit" of people to multiple jobs or future jobs
52
Which of the following matching concerns arise in person-organization match?
values, new job duties, multiple jobs and future jobs
53
The staffing system components model says that the phases of the staffing process occur in which order after the initial interaction between the applicant and the organization?
recruitment, selection, employment
54
According to the overall staffing organizations model, one support activity is ________.
job analysis
55
According to the overall staffing organizations model, an example of a core staffing activity is ______.
internal recruitment
56
According to the overall staffing organizations model, HR and staffing strategy are driven by _____________.
the mission, goals and objectives of the organization
57
Which of the following is a part of the recruiting phase of the staffing process?
developing and conducting job fairs
58
Which of these activities is most directly associated with the employment phase of the staffing process?
deciding on finalists for a job
59
Staffing system management involves _________.
guiding, coordinating, controlling and evaluating staffing activities
60
_____________ staffing strategy would have an organization concentrate on acquiring new employees who can "hit the ground running."
pure acquisition
61
The ___________ is composed of more peripheral workers who are used on an as-needed, just-in-time basis.
flexible workforce
62
Outsourcing is _________.
moving a business process to another vendor
63
Organizations often __________ when they choose to ride out dips in demand for goods and services or to stockpile talent.
overstaff
64
A _____________ staffing strategy is when organizations decide to go to locations where there are ample labor supplies.
relocate
65
When jobs are highly fluid, it is probably advisable for organizations to focus more on:
A. person-job match
person-organization match
66
Regarding employment contracts, ________.
both written and oral contracts are enforceable
67
The most prevalent form of the employment relationship is _________.
employer-employee
68
The common law principle which states that, in the absence of any contract language to the contrary, either the employer or employee may terminate the employment relationship at any time is called _________.
employment-at-will
69
An example of an exception to the principle of employment-at-will would be _________.
employers cannot discharge employees on the basis of race
70
Which of the following statements is true regarding independent contractors?
Using an independent contractor frees an employer from the tax withholding and tax payment obligations it has for its employees.
71
Which of the following factors increase the likelihood that a worker will be considered an independent contractor?
The independent contractor works without supervision or oversight from the employer, sets his or her own work hours and is paid by the project rather than by the time spent
72
Which of the following is true regarding temporary employees?
use of temporaty workers can often raise issues of "co-employment"
73
What can employers do to ensure that permatemps, that is, individuals from staffing firms who have long-term relationships with an employer, are not considered employees of their firm?
never exercise direct control over these people and treat them separate from regular employees
74
Which of the following statements is true regarding the laws and regulations which govern the employment relationship?
Their purpose is to create a reasonable balance of power between the employer and employee.
75
The primary source of common law is ________.
past court decisions
76
Due process rights have their primary source in _________.
the US constitution amendments
77
A _________ is a civil wrong that occurs when the employer violates a duty owed to its employees or customers that results in harm or damages
tort
78
Statutory law is derived from ________.
written documents passed by legislative bodies
79
Agencies that regulate fair employment practice exist at which level?
federal, state and local
80
The role of federal agencies is to __________.
interpret, administer and enforce the law
81
Which of the following is(are) true regarding federal EEO/AA laws?
specific agencies exist which regulate administration and enforcement
82
Which of the following is not covered by the Civil Rights Act ________?
disabilities
83
The Age Discrimination in Employment Act focuses on individuals over the age of ________.
40
84
Disparate treatment focuses on _________.
allegations and evidence about intions to discriminate
85
The initial burden of proof in discrimination claims lies ______.
with the plaintiff
86
When using stock statistics in job selection discrimination cases, the comparison being made is __________.
percentages of groups in job categories relative to their availability in the population
87
The key to a successful rebuttal in a disparate treatment case is _________.
to provide nondiscriminatory reasons for the practice(s) in question
88
In EEOC cases, a consent decree is ________
court approved
89
Enforcement mechanisms used by the OFCCP ________.
may involve conciliation agreements
90
Which of the following is prohibited discrimination under civil rights law?
discrimination in hiring, compensation or classification
91
The essence of a BFOQ is that _________.
it justifies discrimination based on reasonable necessity of the job
92
Regarding the use of tests in staffing, it can be said that ______.
they are permitted by law
93
The legal status of seniority and merit systems is that _______.
both are legal
94
The Age Discrimination In Employment Act (1967) prohibits discrimination against individuals who are ____ years or older.
40
95
Employers can use which of the following techniques without violating the Age Discrimination in Employment Act.
using reasonable factors other than age in making employment decisions, seniority systems or terms or phrases that express a preference for older workers
96
Where the Americans with Disabilities Act is concerned, ______?
the law only applies to disabled individuals who are otherwise qualified
97
Where reasonable accommodations for disabled individuals are concerned, it can be said that _______.
the need to accommodate often hinges on whether or not a given job function is necessary or essential
98
Which of the following is not prohibited by the ADA?
asking a job applicant to undergo a medical exam after a job offer has been made
99
Executive Order 11246 covers _________.
federal contractors with contracts in excess of $10,000
100
Noncompliance with the Immigration Reform and Control Act (1986) could result in __________.
imprisonment for up to six months
101
Which of the following is true regarding EEO laws?
State (but not local) government employees are immune from lawsuits by employees who allege violation of ADA or ADEA, States must pursue age and disability discrimination claims under applicable state laws, A foreign company which is owned or controlled by an American employer and is doing business overseas generally also must comply with Title VII, the ADA, and the ADEA
102
Which of the following is true regarding discrimination on the basis of sexual orientation?
although such discrimination is not covered by federal law, it is covered by some state and local laws
103
Which of the following are likely to occur during job expansion periods?
Departure of some employees to take opportunities at other firms
104
Projections suggest that there will be growth in which of the following sectors of the economy?
education and health services
105
In general, the labor force is becoming ____.
older
106
What percentage of employers believe high school graduates are deficient in work habits such as professionalism, critical thinking, personal accountability, and time management?
40%
107
Which of the following are likely responses to labor shortages?
hiring bonuses and stock options
108
Which of the following is a likely effect of technology on employment demand?
Changes in the skill requirements of the workforce, Elimination of some jobs and Creation of new jobs
109
What proportion of the workforce is unionized?
About 7% of the private sector and about 36% of the public sector
110
Human resource planning activities most directly involve _____.
forecasting labor requirements and availabilities
111
The process of determining reconciliation and gaps tells managers _____.
how many employees will be needed for jobs in the coming period
112
Plan-based HRP consists of _________.
planning that is part of the organization's strategic planning process
113
Project-based HRP consists of _________.
organizational responses to sudden changes in the environment
114
Population-based HRP consists of _________.
planning focused on a specific employee group
115
A manager has gathered data on staffing levels over time, and then predicts future requirements based on the pattern of demand, taking seasonal variations in demand into account. This equation is used to predict future staffing levels. This is an example of _______________.
trend analysis
116
A manager has collected data on the dollar value of sales and has divided this by the number of FTE. Assuming this relationship will hold in the future, and using projected sales, the manager estimates the number of employees required. This is an example of _______________.
ratio analysis
117
. A manager has collected data on sales, the economy, and taxes over a number of years, and statistically estimates an equation that describes how each of these predictors has affected staffing levels in the past. This equation is used to predict future staffing levels. This is an example of _______________.
regression analysis
118
Which of the following would be addressed in forecasting HR availabilities?
promotions, transfers and exits
119
Markov analysis is a technique for __________.
availability forecasting
120
A transition matrix would appear in a _________.
Markov analysis
121
In Markov analysis for staffing, __________ is used to forecast future workforce availabilities.
transition probabilities
122
Which of the following creates a problem for Markov analysis?
small sample sizes
123
Manager judgment is an important method for staffing in _________.
smaller organizations
124
Which of the following is not a shortcoming of using manager judgment for forecasting availability?
managers are always overly aggressive in making estimates of hiring requirements
125
Employment reconciliation analyzes gaps between ________.
future HR requirements and HR availability
126
For succession planning to work, organizations must also have _____.
training and development systems in place
127
Human resource information systems provide which of the following functions for succession planning?
Creating lists of employees who are ready to move into specific positions, Seeking out passive candidates within the organization and Tracking candidates across a variety of locations
128
A key advantage of having a core work force is that it provides _________.
greater organizational profitability
129
A major disadvantage of a flexible work force is that ________.
it leads to loss of some control over worker, it can lead to conflict between core and flexible workers and flexible workers are often less familiar with equipment
130
Advantages of a core workforce include ______________.
stability, continuity, and predictability, a sense of commitment and shared purpose toward the organization's purpose and an organization can directly control how it acquires its workforce
131
Which of the following are advantages of external staffing?
bringing in employees with new KSAOs
132
Which of the following services is provided by staffing firms?
Advance screening of job candidates and They may provide on-site managers to help with training
133
A(n) ______ provides specific task and project assistance to the organization, such as maintenance, bookkeeping, advertising, programming, and consulting, with payment contingent on completion of the project (rather than time worked or methods of completing the task).
independent contractor
134
Firms offshore work because ______________.
wages are often lower overseas and there is a growing pool of highly qualified workers overseas
135
In recent years there has been an increase in the number of _________ in the workforce.
women, latinos and individuals with disabilities
136
Passive diversity planning means _______.
reviewing policies and practices to ensure there is no discrimination
137
The major legal issue for HR strategy and planning is _______.
affirmative action plans
138
Affirmative action plans and programs originate from _______.
voluntary employer efforts, court-imposed remedies for discriminatory practices and consent agreements
139
To have a high probability of being acceptable in the eyes of the Supreme Court, an organization's AAP should _________.
not necessarily interfere with the job status of non-minority and male employees
140
Advantages of a core workforce include ______________.
stability, continuity, and predictability, a sense of commitment and shared purpose toward the organization's purpose and an organization can directly control how it acquires its workforce
141
Which of the following are advantages of external staffing?
bringing in employees with new KSAOs
142
Which of the following services is provided by staffing firms?
Advance screening of job candidates and They may provide on-site managers to help with training
143
A(n) ______ provides specific task and project assistance to the organization, such as maintenance, bookkeeping, advertising, programming, and consulting, with payment contingent on completion of the project (rather than time worked or methods of completing the task).
independent contractor
144
Firms offshore work because ______________.
wages are often lower overseas and there is a growing pool of highly qualified workers overseas
145
In recent years there has been an increase in the number of _________ in the workforce.
women, latinos and individuals with disabilities
146
Passive diversity planning means _______.
reviewing policies and practices to ensure there is no discrimination
147
The major legal issue for HR strategy and planning is _______.
affirmative action plans
148
Affirmative action plans and programs originate from _______.
voluntary employer efforts, court-imposed remedies for discriminatory practices and consent agreements
149
To have a high probability of being acceptable in the eyes of the Supreme Court, an organization's AAP should _________.
not necessarily interfere with the job status of non-minority and male employees
150
Which of the following are elements of traditional job design?
formal organization charts, clear and precise job descriptions, well-defined mobility (promotion and transfer) paths
151
Which of the following is an advantage of using an external recruiting agency?
it is useful for companies too small to have dedicated recruiters
152
Which of the following are advantages of centralized recruitment?
duplications of effort are reduced
153
Which of the following are components of a well-developed recruiting requisition?
quantity of labor to be hired, affirmative action compliance methods and list of selection methods to be used
154
Which of the following is not one of the major areas written into recruiting budgets?
costs of signing bonuses
155
A recruiting requisition is ________________________.
a formal document that authorizes the filling of a job opening
156
Which of the following is not one of the major areas written into recruiting budgets?
costs of signing bonuses
157
A recruiting requisition is ________________________.
a formal document that authorizes the filling of a job opening
158
14. Which of the following is an advantage of using an external recruiting agency?
B. it is useful for companies too small to have dedicated recruiters
159
15. Which of the following are advantages of centralized recruitment?
A. duplications of effort are reduced
160
16. Which of the following are components of a well-developed recruiting requisition?
quantity of labor to be hired; affirmative action compliance methods & list of selection methods to be used
161
17. Which of the following is not one of the major areas written into recruiting budgets?
B. costs of signing bonuses
162
18. A recruiting requisition is ________________________.
A. a formal document that authorizes the filling of a job opening
163
19. A recruitment guide is ________________________.
C. a document that details the process to be followed to attract applicants to a job
164
20. Research suggests that an ideal recruiter has ________________________.
strong interpersonal skills; knowledge about the organization extensive knowledge about the job
165
40. What are the two major strategies for recruiting?
C. open or targeted
166
41. Which of the following is an advantage of open recruiting?
A. it is seen as more fair & it ensures a diverse set of applicants
167
42. Which of the following is an advantage of targeted recruiting?
C. a small set of qualified applicants is considered
168
43. Which situation most strongly calls for open recruitment?
C. pre-entry qualifications are not important
169
44. Which situation most strongly calls for targeted recruitment?
B. specific skill sets are needed
170
45. The recruitment approach in which an organization identifies those segments of the labor market where qualified candidates are likely to be is called __________.
A. targeted recruitment
171
46. Which of the following is an appropriate use of targeted recruiting?
A. Using non-traditional sources to enhance minority hiring.
172
47. Which of the following are not components of a strong corporate recruiting website?
A. exciting flash graphics presentations of opportunities
173
48. A study of the best practices of the Web sites of 140 high-profile organizations indicates that one of the features of a high-impact Web site is ____________.
a job cart function; personal search engines &self-assessment inventories
174
49. Which of the following statements about using employee referrals is true?
B. those recruited by referrals are more qualified and committed
175
50. Which of the following statements is true?
many employment sites now offer the ability to create and approve job requisitions online; employment sites sometimes cross-list jobs with local newspapers & at any given time there are millions of résumés available on employment websites
176
51. College placement offices are used because ___________.
D. campus recruiting efforts are seen as more credible than websites or bulletin boards
177
52. The more broadly transmitted the organization's search methods; the more likely that a ____________ will be attracted to apply.
D. large number of individuals
178
53. A high cost method of search may be worth the cost to the organization if ___________.
B. KSAOs are in short supply
179
54. Evidence suggests that; overall; ___________ are likely to attract employees who have a better understanding of the organization and its culture.
A. referrals and job trials
180
70. A realistic job preview is _________________________.
A. a description of a job that integrates both positive and negative information
181
71. Research suggests __________ realistic job previews lead to reduce turnover most.
A. verbal
182
72. What is the main reason for taking a realistic job preview approach to developing a job communication message?
A. The approach aids applicants in self-selecting out of the organization.
183
73. Which method of recruiting is most effective at reducing turnover?
A. realistic
184
74. Which method of recruiting is most effective for tight labor markets and highly valued jobs?
D. branded
185
75. Which method of recruiting is designed to be used when an organization is seeking a specific set of KSAOs?
B. targeted
186
76. Which of the following statements regarding the development of recruiting strategies is false?
D. organizations need to be careful about over-promoting their brand because repetition of a message tends to decrease its persuasive appeal
187
77. Which communication medium refers to the informal information regarding an organization's reputation; employment practices; and policies?
B. word of mouth
188
78. Which of the following communication media is marked by low richness and high cost; but also with an especially broad audience of potential applicants?
C. advertising
189
89. Applicants typically prefer recruiters who are ________________.
A. well-informed about the job
190
90. Recruiter characteristics are ________________.
C. not as important as the actual job characteristics
191
91. Recruiters should not _______________.
D. try to avoid showing too much interest in candidates
192
92. Research suggests that an ideal recruiter possesses ________________.
strong interpersonal skills; knowledge about the organization; jobs; and career issues & enthusiasm about the organization and job candidates
193
93. Which of the following statements is false?
C. increasing expenditures on recruiting increases yields
194
94. Which of the following techniques is helpful in improving diversity of applicants obtained through the recruiting process?
A. advertisements showing women and minorities in positions of leadership
195
104. Which of the following is not a good way to manage the recruiting process for optimal legal defense?
C. keep applications on hold or on file for future consideration
196
105. Which of the following is not required for someone to be considered an Internet applicant?
D. evidence of a visit to the physical employment site
197
106. Employers need to keep track of which of the following for adverse impact calculations?
B. all expressions of interest submitted through the Internet
198
107. Which of the following statements is true regarding the OFCCP's regulation of affirmative action plans?
A. organizations may find that recruiting at secondary schools and community colleges with large minority enrollments may facilitate AAP success
199
108. OFCCP suggested actions for the recruitment process include _____________.
B. carefully select and train all personnel included in staffing
200
109. What is the legal status of video résumés?
D. they reveal protected class characteristics that may form the basis of a lawsuit
201
110. Which of the following does not have to be shown by a plaintiff in fraud and misrepresentation lawsuit related to recruiting?
C. that the plaintiff had perfect knowledge regarding the misrepresentation
202
111. Which of the following statements; when placed in a job message; would not be likely to create problems with the EEOC?
A. "Applicants must be enthusiastic and willing to take risks."
203
1. In most modern organizations, jobs are largely well established and change little over time
FALSE
204
2. Job analysis is the process of studying jobs in order to gather, analyze, synthesize, and report information about job requirements
TRUE
205
3. Competency based job analysis seeks to identify and describe the specific tasks, KSAOs, and job context for a particular job
FALSE
206
4. The traditional way of designing a job is to identify and define its elements and tasks precisely and then incorporate them into a job description
TRUE
207
5. Traditional job design is marked by formal organization charts, clear and precise job descriptions and specifications, and well-defined relationships between jobs
TRUE
208
6. Changes to jobs have become so radical that the concept of "jobs" is no longer a useful concept in most organizations
FALSE
209
7. Advances in technology are one of the major reasons for changes in jobs.
TRUE
210
8. A job family is a grouping of positions that are similar in their tasks and task dimensions.
FALSE
211
9. The smallest unit into which work can be divided without analyzing separate motions, movements, and mental processes is called an element.
TRUE
212
10. Many small-business owners, general managers of start-up strategic business units, and top management members perform flexible jobs that are difficult to classify in traditional job analysis.
TRUE
213
11. Measures of engagement reflect specific skills sets that are readily measured through job analysis.
FALSE
214
12. Competency analysis is one way to incorporate engagement into job analysis.
TRUE
215
13. A job description is best defined as _____.
B. the organization's indicator of tasks required for each job
216
14. Which of the following are elements of traditional job design?
A. formal organization charts B. clear and precise job descriptions C. well-defined mobility (promotion and transfer) paths
217
15. Which of the following is a good definition of a job family?
B. A grouping of jobs, usually according to function
218
16. Which of the following is a good definition of a job category?
C. A grouping of jobs according to generic job title or occupation
219
17. Which of the following is a good definition of a job?
D. A grouping of positions that are similar in their tasks and task dimensions
220
18. Which of the following is a good definition of a task?
A. A grouping of elements to form an identifiable work activity that is a logical and necessary step in the performance of a job
221
20. Job requirements job analysis begins by identifying the specific tasks and the job context for a particular job.
TRUE
222
21. Job analysis is a primary input and support activity for most functional staffing activities.
TRUE
223
22. Team-based jobs lend themselves particularly well to job requirements job analysis.
FALSE
224
23. The job requirements matrix is composed of two components: tasks and KSAOs.
TRUE
225
24. Task statements are objectively written descriptions of the behaviors or work activities engaged in by employees in order to perform the job.
TRUE
226
25. Task statements should reflect what the employee does, to whom or what the employee does what he or she does, what is produced, and what is used.
TRUE
227
26. The KSAO portion of a job requirements matrix is often converted to a job description.
FALSE
228
27. The term "task dimension" has the same basic meaning as "duties" or "areas of responsibility."
TRUE
229
28. Sentence analysis is used to develop competencies.
FALSE
230
29. Tasks should be constructed using broadly applicable verbs, such as "supports," "assists," and "handles."
FALSE
231
30. It is possible to weight task dimensions using either relative time spent, percentage of time spent, or importance to overall job performance.
TRUE
232
31. Knowledge is a body of information that can be directly applied to the performance of tasks.
TRUE
233
32. Skills are underlying, enduring traits of a person that are useful for performing a range of tasks.
FALSE
234
33. The work setting, attire, environmental conditions, and job hazards are associated with a job's "context."
TRUE
235
34. Having two or more people independently develop task statements for a given job is a way to enhance content validity and assess reliability.
TRUE
236
35. It is not really necessary, or even advisable, to have an incumbent or supervisor serve as job analysts.
FALSE
237
36. Little research has been done to identify particular job-related skills.
FALSE
238
37. In general, there are few, if any, sources of job information external to the organization where the job is performed.
FALSE
239
38. Direct observation is a source for job information that is well suited for jobs with physical components, and relatively short cycle times for job tasks.
TRUE
240
39. Using managers in a job analysis lends both expertise and neutrality to the process.
FALSE
241
40. When a job analysis is likely to be legally, technically or politically scrutinized, it is best to use an internal person to do the analysis, rather than an external consultant.
FALSE
242
41. In general, when rational or narrative job analysis methods are desired, it is advisable to rely on external consultants rather than internal staff.
FALSE
243
42. A valuable use of O*NET is that it serves as a starting point in preparing knowledge statements.
TRUE
244
43. Subject matter experts should not include previous jobholders, private consultants, and customers/clients.
FALSE
245
44. The O*Net contains work context factors pertaining to interpersonal relationships and to structural job characteristics.
TRUE
246
45. The term essential functions refers to the fundamental job duties of the employment position the individual with a disability holds or desires.
TRUE
247
46. The Position Analysis Questionnaire measures extrinsic rewards such as pay, recognition, and promotional opportunities.
FALSE
248
47. The best approach to job analysis for traditional or evolving jobs is _____.
A. job requirements job analysis
249
48. Which of the following is NOT shown by an ideal task statement?
D. how each behavior is rewarded
250
49. Which of the following is a component of a job requirements matrix?
C. Job context
251
50. Sentence analysis technique is an aid to __________.
C. drafting precise task statements
252
51. It can be accurately said of the "task dimension" component of a job description that it ___________.
B. is a grouping of similar tasks
253
52. The job context component of a job description does not __________.
D. address pay scales
254
53. The KSAO portion of a job requirements matrix may be _________.
A. converted to a job specification
255
54. A body of information that can be directly applied to the performance of tasks is _______.
A. knowledge
256
55. An underlying, enduring trait of the person that is useful for performing a range of tasks is _______.
C. abilities
257
56. An observable competence for working with or applying information to perform a particular task is _______.
B. skills
258
57. If tasks/dimensions are not weighted formally, then ________.
C. all tasks/dimensions are assessed as equally important by default
259
58. The reason for having the manager participate as a job analyst is to ______.
B. verify statements are inclusive and accurate
260
59. A limitation of observation as a means of gathering job information would be ______________.
D. mental processes are difficult to measure
261
60. Which of the following is an advantage of using job task questionnaires?
A. Use with large numbers of people
262
61. Which of the following is not a good reason for using an outside consultant for job analysis?
C. Knowledge of organization culture is critical
263
62. Skills contained in O*Net include _____________.
D. all of the above
264
63. Competency-based job analysis begins by identifying the specific tasks and the job context for a particular job.
FALSE
265
64. Competencies are more specific than KSAOs.
FALSE
266
65. Competency-based job analysis attempts to identify and describe job requirements in the form of general KSAOs that are required across a range of jobs.
TRUE
267
66. Competencies contribute to job performance, but not to organizational success.
FALSE
268
67. Competency based job analysis is a way to facilitate increased staffing flexibility.
TRUE
269
68. A key strategic HR reason for performing competency modeling is to create awareness and understanding of the need for change in business.
TRUE
270
69. Competency modeling is useful for improving workforce skills, but is generally of little use for replacement or succession planning.
FALSE
271
70. Although competency modeling has its advantages relative to job requirements job analysis, it does require considerable time and effort to establish competency models in an organization.
TRUE
272
71. The "Great Eight" competencies include leading, supporting, presenting, analyzing, creating, organizing, adapting, and performing.
TRUE
273
72. The legal implications of analyzing competencies beyond job specific ones are well-known.
FALSE
274
73. The best approach to job analysis for flexible jobs with changing requirements is _____.
B. competency based job analysis
275
74. A competency is _____.
B. an underlying characteristic of an individual that contributes to job or role performance
276
75. Unlike KSAOs, competencies usually describe characteristics ________.
C. that contribute to success across multiple jobs
277
76. Competency modeling is useful for which of the following applications?
A. Identifying needs for replacement and succession planning B. Internal promotion processes C. Facilitating the HR planning process
278
77. Competency modeling is strategically used to _________.
B. Enhance the skill level of the workforce
279
78. Which of the following is not one of the "great eight" competencies?
A. Mechanical knowledge
280
79. Pay, benefits, and promotions are typical intrinsic job rewards.
FALSE
281
80. Intrinsic rewards are best characterized as "inherent in the nature of the job and experienced by the employee as an outgrowth of actually doing the job."
TRUE
282
81. The employee value proposition is the bundle or package of KSAOs that the employee provides to the organization.
FALSE
283
82. Surveys and interviews with employees are a key way to gather information on job rewards preferences.
TRUE
284
83. One advantage of intrinsic rewards is that they are basically costless.
FALSE
285
84. Interviews and surveys of current employees on job rewards, no matter how comprehensive, miss several relevant groups of individuals.
TRUE
286
85. Surveys of employees clearly suggest that intrinsic rewards are seen as more important for job satisfaction than extrinsic rewards.
FALSE
287
86. Interviews are more personal than surveys, but the summary and analysis of interview data is more time consuming and difficult.
TRUE
288
87. One way to assess the importance of rewards to employees is to examine the rewards that other organizations provide to their employees.
TRUE
289
88. Which of the following is not an example of an extrinsic reward?
C. Autonomy
290
89. It is critical than when employees are interviewed about their reward preferences, the content of the interviews is ____________.
B. kept confidential so employees can report honestly
291
90. Which of the following HR outcomes arise from providing and using rewards?
A. applicant attraction B. employee performance C. employee retention
292
91. What is the "employee value proposition?"
B. the organization's package of rewards provided to employees
293
92. Which of the following best represents the order of aspects important for job satisfaction identified in surveys, from most valued to least valued?
C. job security, benefits, opportunities to use skills and abilities, and financial stability
294
93. When assessing appropriate rewards, organizations can use information from _____________.
A. surveys conducted by the Department of Labor B. surveys conducted by the Society for Human Resources Management C. internal organizational sources
295
94. A work team is an interdependent collection of employees who share responsibility for achieving a specific goal.
TRUE
296
95. Teams are seldom designed to absorb management functions that allow for self-management because they inherently produce excess groupthink.
FALSE
297
96. The greater the task interdependence in a team, the greater the importance of KSAOs pertaining to interpersonal qualities and team self-management qualities.
TRUE
298
97. Job specific KSAOs become largely irrelevant in team-based work.
FALSE
299
98. An interdependent collection of employees who share responsibility for achieving a specific goal is called a _____.
C. work team
300
99. Which of the following are unique properties of teams, from a staffing point of view?
B. KSAOs for teams involve job-spanning skills because members perform multiple roles
301
100. The sample size used in job analysis is not relevant to legal defensibility.
FALSE
302
101. Details regarding knowledge, skills, and abilities in a job description are important components of a legally defensible selection system.
TRUE
303
102. If an employment discrimination case involves an organization's defense of its selection procedures, the UGESP require the conduct of job analysis.
TRUE
304
103. Although some have advocated for greater use of job analysis in legal cases, the courts currently recognize job titles as sufficiently detailed indicators of required characteristics of applicants.
FALSE
305
104. Employment regulations give several specific techniques for using job analysis to identify essential job functions.
FALSE
306
105. The EEOC has provided assistance to organizations for dealing with the issue of identifying essential job functions for the purpose of ADA compliance.
TRUE
307
106. The ADA requires the performance of a job analysis to identify the essential functions of a job.
FALSE
308
107. Which of the following could harm an organization's legal defense in an EEO/AA case?
D. Emphasis mostly on secondary tasks
309
.ÿAs a result of rising recruiting; selection; training; and development costs; companies are increasingly looking externally to staff positions.ÿ
FALSE
310
.ÿHierarchical mobility paths make it very easy; from an administrative vantage point; to identify where to look for applicants in the organization.ÿ
TRUE
311
.ÿUnder a parallel track system; the job titles and salaries of technical specialists are treated as hierarchically arranged.ÿ
FALSE
312
.ÿAlternative mobility paths tend to be very difficult to administer.ÿ
TRUE
313
.ÿOne hallmark of hierarchical mobility paths is an emphasis on pay for skill development and learning.ÿ
FALSE
314
.ÿTo maintain employee motivation; alternative mobility paths may need to be supplemented with pay for skill development and counseling sessions.ÿ
TRUE
315
.ÿIt is probably best to avoid listing who is eligible for open positions in a mobility policy; because it will just lock the organization in.ÿ
FALSE
316
.ÿResearch suggests that employees really don't care if mobility policies are well-spelled out; because they only care if they personally get promoted.ÿ
FALSE
317
.ÿIf only an external recruitment search is conducted; the morale of existing employees may be reduced when they feel that they have been passed over for a promotion.ÿ
TRUE
318
.ÿA major difference between internal and external recruitment is that external recruitment not only fills vacancies but also creates them.ÿ
FALSE
319
.ÿSome of the features of hierarchical mobility paths includeÿ
ÿthey are easier to administer; the prospect of promotions can motivate employees &they may not be useful in flat organizational structures
320
.ÿWhich of the following is true regarding mobility paths?ÿ
C.ÿAlternative mobility paths may move in any direction.
321
.ÿWhich of the following is a disadvantage of alternative mobility paths?ÿ
D.ÿthey often need to be supplemented with alternative reward systems to maintain motivation
322
.ÿA lattice mobility path is _________.ÿ
A.ÿcharacterized by upward; lateral; and downward movement
323
.ÿOrganizations have become interested in alternative mobility paths because ______________.ÿ
B.ÿthey allow employees to specialize in technical work or management work and advance within either
324
.ÿA well-defined mobility path should include all of the following except: ______________.ÿ
C.ÿencouragement for all individuals to apply
325
.ÿIn developing career path policies; a good approach for promotion would not include which of the following?ÿ
B.ÿReasons why external sources are preferred.
326
.ÿUnder a closed internal recruitment system; employees are not made aware of job vacancies.ÿ
TRUE
327
.ÿClosed internal recruitment systems are very efficient to administer.ÿ
TRUE
328
.ÿUnder a hybrid system; neither open nor close steps are implemented.ÿ
FALSE
329
.ÿClosed internal recruitment systems are an ideal choice if there are issues about perceived fairness and the organization want to make sure it isn't missing out on hidden talent.ÿ
FALSE
330
.ÿOne problem with job postings is that employees may believe that someone has been selected before the job was posted and so will either not bother to apply or will believe the system is unfair.ÿ
TRUE
331
.ÿA job posting may be announced through a bulletin board; newsletter; e-mail; or intranet.ÿ
TRUE
332
.ÿProviding feedback to employees if they are not selected in a job posting system is a bad idea because it will just discourage them from responding in the future.ÿ
FALSE
333
.ÿThe first stage of developing a talent management system is identifying the KSAOs required for all jobs in the organization.ÿ
TRUE
334
.ÿMost managers report that talent management systems have greatly simplified their work lives.ÿ
FALSE
335
.ÿSelf-nomination is an especially important consideration in the internal recruitment of minorities and women.ÿ
TRUE
336
.ÿInternal temporary employees require more orientation to the organization than would external hires.ÿ
FALSE
337
.ÿSuccession planning techniques are important as the workforce increasingly approaches retirement.ÿ
TRUE
338
.ÿSurveys demonstrate that employees are more satisfied when their employers provide them with ample communication and opportunities for internal advancement.ÿ
TRUE
339
.ÿCareer development centers are a low cost way to increase employee interest in internal career paths.ÿ
FALSE
340
.ÿThe degree to which an organization utilizes its own internal information on candidate qualifications and job performance will determine how qualified the applicants will be.ÿ
TRUE
341
.ÿThere is a great deal of research on the effectiveness of internal recruiting sources; so best practices can guide choice of the methods for internal recruiting.ÿ
FALSE
342
.ÿUnder a closed internal recruitment system; which of the following is not likely to occur?ÿ
C.ÿmanagers have less influence over the ultimate decision
343
.ÿAn open system of internal recruitment can be expected to minimize ________.ÿ
C.ÿoverlooking talent
344
.ÿWhich of the following is true regarding closed internal recruitment systems?ÿ
C.ÿThey are not costly to implement.
345
.ÿWhich of the following is true regarding an open internal recruitment system?ÿ
Employees are made aware of all job openings; They use a job posting and job bidding system & They often lead to uncovering "hidden talent."
346
.ÿJob postings influence the recruitment process by ________.ÿ
A.ÿclarifying requirements of the job
347
.ÿJob postings are effective internal recruitment tools because they ________.ÿ
B.ÿare efficient in matching employees to organizational needs
348
.ÿAn empirical study of the characteristics of a job posting system which lead to high user satisfaction found that _________ was(were) critical.ÿ
A.ÿthe adequacy of job descriptions; ÿthe adequacy of job notification procedures &treatment during the interview
349
.ÿKSAOs which are used in making advancement decisions are stored in _________.ÿ
C.ÿtalent management systems
350
.ÿWhich of the following statements regarding talent management systems is(are) true?ÿ
D.ÿtalent management systems require a user-friendly data base for effective use
351
.ÿA company's internal e-mail and internet capabilities ________________.ÿ
A.ÿmake it easy and inexpensive to disseminate internal recruiting messages
352
.ÿWhich of the following statements regarding talent management systems is true?ÿ
C.ÿthey are increasingly integrated with all of an organization's human resources information systems
353
.ÿWhy might an organization use internal temporary pools?ÿ
B.ÿto avoid paying agency fees to temporary help agencies
354
.ÿA ______________ provides employees with opportunities to fill out interest inventories; explore career options; and discuss plans with counselors.ÿ
D.ÿcareer development center
355
.ÿKey metrics for evaluating an internal staffing system include:ÿ
cost; quantitiy & quality
356
.ÿWhich of the following are important components of ensuring sufficient quality in an internal recruiting system?ÿ
B.ÿregular performance appraisals of all employees
357
.ÿWhich of the following is true of realistic previews in internal recruiting?ÿ
C.ÿthey are more necessary for newly created jobs or jobs in new locations
358
.ÿWhich of the following is true of recruiting messages in internal recruiting?ÿ
supervisors can describe mobility paths in detail to internal candidates; peers can give internal recruits a realistic idea of what happens in internal promotions and transfers & word of mouth among internal employees can lead to inaccurate information
359
.ÿFormal policies for promotion and other internal recruiting activities can enhance:ÿ
B.ÿprocedural justice
360
.ÿFrom a legal standpoint; it can be said that __________.ÿ
C.ÿpromotions based on subjective assessments of who is more senior are not likely to be supported in court
361
.ÿA bona fide seniority system is _________________.ÿ
B.ÿpermitted in most cases under EEOC law even if it results in adverse impact
362
.ÿThe combination of factors that tend to place women and minorities in fewer top management positions are collectively termed _________________.ÿ
D.ÿthe glass ceiling
363
.ÿWhich of the following have contributed to the Glass Ceiling?ÿ
B.ÿlack of outreach recruitment practices
364
1. Measures are methods or techniques for describing and assessing attributes of objects that are of concern to us.
TRUE
365
2. When developing measures, it is a good idea to give each rater some license to interpret the meaning of scores as fits the specific situation.
FALSE
366
3. To achieve standardization the content of job application tests should be the same for all applicants.
TRUE
367
4. Scoring keys for tests should be developed immediately after the test has been administered.
FALSE
368
5. Most staffing measures can be best described as being on a ratio scale.
FALSE
369
6. A rank ordering of five job candidates in terms of overall qualification for the job is an example of an ordinal scale.
TRUE
370
7. Research shows that when an attribute is measured by both objective and subjective means, there is often relatively low agreement between scores from the two types of measures.
TRUE
371
8. The standard deviation is a measure of the central tendency of a scale.
FALSE
372
9. The most appropriate measure of central tendency for nominal scale data is the median.
FALSE
373
10. Standard scores are also useful for determining how a person performed, in a relative sense, on two or more tests. This is helpful for comparing relative standing across several tests.
TRUE
374
11. If an individual has a z-score of 2.0 on a performance test, this indicates this person's score is twice as high as the average test score.
FALSE
375
12. A correlation coefficient ranges from 0 to +1.
FALSE
376
13. A correlation between two variables does not necessarily that one causes the other.
TRUE
377
14. A standard level for statistical significance is p<.50.
FALSE
378
15. With very large samples, it is possible for a fairly weak relationship to still be statistically significant.
TRUE
379
16. Measurement standardization applies to measurement content, not the administration of measurements.
FALSE
380
17. When numbers are assigned by category, this reflects an ordinal scale of measurement.
FALSE
381
18. If scores are classified as "low", "medium", and high", the scale of measurement is nominal.
FALSE
382
19. Human body weight is an example of a variable measured on a ratio scale of measure.
TRUE
383
20. Numerical employment interview ratings represent objective measures.
FALSE
384
21. Performance appraisal ratings are subjective measures.
TRUE
385
22. The research literature indicates a high correlation between subjective and objective measures of performance.
FALSE
386
23. A correlation score of minus one between two sets of scores indicates an exceptionally low association or relationship between the two sets.
FALSE
387
24. If the correlation coefficient between variables X and Y is .90, this means that the proportion of common variance shared by the two variables is ninety percent.
FALSE
388
25. A correlation coefficient of 1.0 between variables X and Y indicates that there is a perfect linear relationship between these two variables.
TRUE
389
26. The correlation coefficient does not measure the change in one variable caused by another variable.
TRUE
390
27. While correlation is valuable as an indicator of the degree of association between variables, it is generally not used as a tool for prediction.
FALSE
391
28. Which of the following is not part of the process of measurement?
B. assessing the attribute's acceptability to applicants
392
34. A scale in which a given attribute is categorized, and numbers are assigned to the categories, but there is no order or level implied among the categories.
A. nominal
393
35. Rankings of the finishes of competitors in a foot race is an example of a(n) _______.
B. ordinal scale
394
36. Length in inches is an example of a(n) _________.
A. ratio scale
395
37. The most appropriate measure of central tendency for nominal data is the ______.
D. mode
396
38. The variability of a measure is best captured by the _____________.
B. range and standard deviation
397
39. The likelihood that a correlation exists in a population, based on knowledge of the actual value of r in a sample from that population is the ____________.
D. statistical significance
398
40. Which of the following results represents statistically significance as it is commonly understood?
B. p < .05
399
41. A z score of 3.0 for a job applicant's score on an aptitude test indicates the applicant ______.
B. received a score 3 standard deviations above the mean score
400
42. The correlation coefficient expresses _________.
C. strength of the relationship between two variables
401
43. A complete lack of correlation between two variables is expressed by a correlation coefficient of _________
D. zero
402
44. The larger the correlation coefficient, _________.
A. the greater the practical significance
403
45. The proper test to determine that a given sample correlation is statistically significant as an estimate of a correlation in a population is the __________.
D. the t test
404
46. Which of the following levels of statistical significance would provide the most confidence that a sample correlation coefficient would not be interpreted as having a relationship in the population, when, in fact, there is no such relationship?
C. .01
405
47. In staffing the scores of individuals are treated as if they were the attribute itself, rather than merely indicators of the attribute.
TRUE
406
48. The consistency of measurement of an attribute refers to its validity.
FALSE
407
49. Perfect reliability is virtually impossible to achieve because of the presence of measurement error.
TRUE
408
50. Calculation of the test-retest reliability of scores between time periods is done for objective measures, not subjective measures.
TRUE
409
51. Comparing scores of objective measures within the same time period is a measure of internal consistency.
TRUE
410
52. If all the members of a panel interview reach the same conclusion regarding a person who is being interviewed, it could be said that the interview ratings are reliable.
TRUE
411
53. Even when measurement error is present, true scores can be measured with perfect precision.
FALSE
412
54. Error caused by failing to measure a key aspect of the attribute of interest (i.e., the attribute we wish to measure), is known as contamination error.
FALSE
413
55. Asking different questions of job applicants during comparisons of interview ratings between these same job applicants is an example of contamination error.
TRUE
414
56. If an attribute of job performance is "planning and setting work priorities," and the raters fail to rate people on that dimension during their performance appraisal, then the performance measure is contaminated.
FALSE
415
57. A measure with a coefficient alpha of .55 should generally be regarding as having adequate reliability.
FALSE
416
58. The standard error of measurement is a useful indicator of how accurate actual scores of applicants are in assessing the true scores of a given measure.
TRUE
417
59. Reliability sets the lower limit on validity.
FALSE
418
60. The extent to which scores on a knowledge test truly reflect a job applicant's knowledge is a measure of the test's validity.
TRUE
419
61. Measuring the accuracy of a mechanical ability test in predicting the job performance of current employees involves a predictive validity design.
FALSE
420
62. Criterion measures are not used in the calculation of content validity.
TRUE
421
63. Even if methodological and statistical differences across criterion-related validation studies are not controlled for statistically, it is still probable that validity can be generalized from one specific situation to another.
FALSE
422
64. Organizations that collect assessment data need to attend to professional standards that govern their use.
TRUE
423
65. The process of criterion-related validation begins with the identification of criterion measures.
FALSE
424
66. The assessment of concurrent validity is more convenient and more efficient than the assessment of predictive validity.
TRUE
425
67. One guideline for effective staffing practice is that all predictors should be routinely subjected to content validation.
TRUE
426
68. Reliability of measurement is defined as __________.
D. consistency of measurement
427
69. Which of the following is a true statement?
B. actual score equals true score plus error
428
70. Coefficient alpha assesses ____________.
A. reliability within a single time period
429
71. Comparing objective scores from T1 to T2 is a method for assessing _____ reliability.
C. test-retest
430
72. Comparing the same supervisor's rating of an employee's performance at T1 to T2 is a method for assessing ______ reliability.
A. intrarater
431
73. Reliability of a measure places ________.
D. an upper limit on the validity of a measure
432
74. Deficiency error would not indicate a failure to _________.
D. calculate the standard deviation
433
75. Contamination error _________.
C. represents unwanted sources of influence on a measure
434
76. Which of the following is an example of contamination error?
D. all of the above
435
77. The standard error of measurement allows ________.
A. calculation of confidence intervals for true scores
436
78. Validity of a measure is best defined as ________.
B. the degree to which the measure does indeed measure what it is intended to measure
437
79. Which of the following is a type of validity?
C. criterion
438
80. When predictor and criterion scores have been obtained, the predictor can be considered valid if __________.
A. the correlation coefficient has the desired practical and statistical significance
439
81. Content validation is most appropriate when ____________.
D. sample size is too small for criterion validity calculation
440
82. The case for validity generalization across situations becomes stronger if ___.
C. differences in method and statistical differences are controlled
441
83. Which of the following is not part of the process of measurement? A. choosing an attribute of concern
B. assessing the attribute's acceptability to applicants
442
84. Applicant flow statistics require the calculation of selection rates for groups and the subsequent comparison of those rates to determine if they are significantly different from each other.
TRUE
443
85. According to the Uniform Guidelines for Employee Selection Procedures (UGESP), comparisons of selection rates among groups should be based on the 70% rule.
FALSE
444
86. When assessing adverse impact, the law prohibits taking sample size into account.
FALSE
445
87. Investigation of applicant stock statistics is also known as "utilization analysis."
TRUE
446
88. Adverse impact statistics are very stable sample estimates of the amount of true adverse impact occurring in an organization.
FALSE
447
89. The use of standardized measurement eliminates the possibility of adverse impact occurring.
FALSE
448
90. The Uniform Guidelines in Employee Selection procedures indicates that when a selection procedure shows adverse impact, the organization must either eliminate it or justify it through presentation of validity evidence.
TRUE
449
91. The Uniform Guidelines in Employee Selection procedures require the calculation of selection rates for ________.
A. every disability category currently assessed
450
92. Applicant flow statistics require the calculation of ________.
A. selection rates for the groups under analysis
451
93. Applicant stock statistics for groups under analysis require calculation of percentages for _________.
C. availability in the population
452
1. External selection refers to the assessment and evaluation of external job applicants.
TRUE
453
2. Cost should not be used to guide the choice of initial assessment methods.
FALSE
454
3. Job analysis sometimes finds that seemingly unrelated jobs may have more in common than would be expected by relying just on job titles.
TRUE
455
4. The logic of prediction indicates that a point-to-point comparison needs to be made between requirements of the job to be filled and the qualifications of the job applicants.
TRUE
456
5. A power test is used when the speed of work is an important part of the job.
FALSE
457
6. The first step in developing a selection plan is to list relevant KSAOs associated with a job.
TRUE
458
7. The process of translating the results of a job analysis into actual predictors to be used for selection is known as a discriminant validity study.
FALSE
459
8. Organizations are increasingly finding that the costs of developing a selection plan outweigh the benefits.
FALSE
460
9. A finalist is someone who has not yet received an offer, but who possesses the minimum qualifications to be considered for further assessment.
FALSE
461
10. Contingent methods mean that the job offer is subject to certain qualifications, such as the offer receiver passing a medical exam or a drug test.
TRUE
462
11. Within the context of the selection process, the "logic of prediction" means that:
B. indicators of a person's degree of success in past situations should be predictive of future job success
463
12. Which of the following is necessary for the logic of prediction to work in practice for selecting employees?
B. qualifications carry over from one job to another C. that each candidate is assessed based on his or her unique experiences
464
1. Measures are methods or techniques for describing and assessing attributes of objects that are of concern to us.
TRUE
465
2. When developing measures, it is a good idea to give each rater some license to interpret the meaning of scores as fits the specific situation.
FALSE
466
3. To achieve standardization the content of job application tests should be the same for all applicants.
TRUE
467
4. Scoring keys for tests should be developed immediately after the test has been administered.
FALSE
468
5. Most staffing measures can be best described as being on a ratio scale.
FALSE
469
6. A rank ordering of five job candidates in terms of overall qualification for the job is an example of an ordinal scale.
TRUE
470
7. Research shows that when an attribute is measured by both objective and subjective means, there is often relatively low agreement between scores from the two types of measures.
TRUE
471
8. The standard deviation is a measure of the central tendency of a scale.
FALSE
472
9. The most appropriate measure of central tendency for nominal scale data is the median.
FALSE
473
10. Standard scores are also useful for determining how a person performed, in a relative sense, on two or more tests. This is helpful for comparing relative standing across several tests.
TRUE
474
11. If an individual has a z-score of 2.0 on a performance test, this indicates this person's score is twice as high as the average test score.
FALSE
475
12. A correlation coefficient ranges from 0 to +1.
FALSE
476
13. A correlation between two variables does not necessarily that one causes the other.
TRUE
477
14. A standard level for statistical significance is p<.50.
FALSE
478
15. With very large samples, it is possible for a fairly weak relationship to still be statistically significant.
TRUE
479
16. Measurement standardization applies to measurement content, not the administration of measurements.
FALSE
480
17. When numbers are assigned by category, this reflects an ordinal scale of measurement.
FALSE
481
18. If scores are classified as "low", "medium", and high", the scale of measurement is nominal.
FALSE
482
19. Human body weight is an example of a variable measured on a ratio scale of measure.
TRUE
483
20. Numerical employment interview ratings represent objective measures.
FALSE
484
21. Performance appraisal ratings are subjective measures.
TRUE
485
22. The research literature indicates a high correlation between subjective and objective measures of performance.
FALSE
486
23. A correlation score of minus one between two sets of scores indicates an exceptionally low association or relationship between the two sets.
FALSE
487
24. If the correlation coefficient between variables X and Y is .90, this means that the proportion of common variance shared by the two variables is ninety percent.
FALSE
488
25. A correlation coefficient of 1.0 between variables X and Y indicates that there is a perfect linear relationship between these two variables.
TRUE
489
26. The correlation coefficient does not measure the change in one variable caused by another variable.
TRUE
490
27. While correlation is valuable as an indicator of the degree of association between variables, it is generally not used as a tool for prediction.
FALSE
491
28. Which of the following is not part of the process of measurement?
B. assessing the attribute's acceptability to applicants
492
34. A scale in which a given attribute is categorized, and numbers are assigned to the categories, but there is no order or level implied among the categories.
A. nominal
493
35. Rankings of the finishes of competitors in a foot race is an example of a(n) _______.
B. ordinal scale
494
36. Length in inches is an example of a(n) _________.
A. ratio scale
495
37. The most appropriate measure of central tendency for nominal data is the ______.
D. mode
496
38. The variability of a measure is best captured by the _____________.
B. range and standard deviation
497
39. The likelihood that a correlation exists in a population, based on knowledge of the actual value of r in a sample from that population is the ____________.
D. statistical significance
498
40. Which of the following results represents statistically significance as it is commonly understood?
B. p < .05
499
41. A z score of 3.0 for a job applicant's score on an aptitude test indicates the applicant ______.
B. received a score 3 standard deviations above the mean score
500
42. The correlation coefficient expresses _________.
C. strength of the relationship between two variables
501
43. A complete lack of correlation between two variables is expressed by a correlation coefficient of _________
D. zero
502
44. The larger the correlation coefficient, _________.
A. the greater the practical significance
503
45. The proper test to determine that a given sample correlation is statistically significant as an estimate of a correlation in a population is the __________.
D. the t test
504
46. Which of the following levels of statistical significance would provide the most confidence that a sample correlation coefficient would not be interpreted as having a relationship in the population, when, in fact, there is no such relationship?
C. .01
505
47. In staffing the scores of individuals are treated as if they were the attribute itself, rather than merely indicators of the attribute.
TRUE
506
48. The consistency of measurement of an attribute refers to its validity.
FALSE
507
49. Perfect reliability is virtually impossible to achieve because of the presence of measurement error.
TRUE
508
50. Calculation of the test-retest reliability of scores between time periods is done for objective measures, not subjective measures.
TRUE
509
51. Comparing scores of objective measures within the same time period is a measure of internal consistency.
TRUE
510
52. If all the members of a panel interview reach the same conclusion regarding a person who is being interviewed, it could be said that the interview ratings are reliable.
TRUE
511
53. Even when measurement error is present, true scores can be measured with perfect precision.
FALSE
512
54. Error caused by failing to measure a key aspect of the attribute of interest (i.e., the attribute we wish to measure), is known as contamination error.
FALSE
513
55. Asking different questions of job applicants during comparisons of interview ratings between these same job applicants is an example of contamination error.
TRUE
514
56. If an attribute of job performance is "planning and setting work priorities," and the raters fail to rate people on that dimension during their performance appraisal, then the performance measure is contaminated.
FALSE
515
57. A measure with a coefficient alpha of .55 should generally be regarding as having adequate reliability.
FALSE
516
58. The standard error of measurement is a useful indicator of how accurate actual scores of applicants are in assessing the true scores of a given measure.
TRUE
517
59. Reliability sets the lower limit on validity.
FALSE
518
60. The extent to which scores on a knowledge test truly reflect a job applicant's knowledge is a measure of the test's validity.
TRUE
519
61. Measuring the accuracy of a mechanical ability test in predicting the job performance of current employees involves a predictive validity design.
FALSE
520
62. Criterion measures are not used in the calculation of content validity.
TRUE
521
63. Even if methodological and statistical differences across criterion-related validation studies are not controlled for statistically, it is still probable that validity can be generalized from one specific situation to another.
FALSE
522
64. Organizations that collect assessment data need to attend to professional standards that govern their use.
TRUE
523
65. The process of criterion-related validation begins with the identification of criterion measures.
FALSE
524
66. The assessment of concurrent validity is more convenient and more efficient than the assessment of predictive validity.
TRUE
525
67. One guideline for effective staffing practice is that all predictors should be routinely subjected to content validation.
TRUE
526
68. Reliability of measurement is defined as __________.
D. consistency of measurement
527
69. Which of the following is a true statement?
B. actual score equals true score plus error
528
70. Coefficient alpha assesses ____________.
A. reliability within a single time period
529
71. Comparing objective scores from T1 to T2 is a method for assessing _____ reliability.
C. test-retest
530
72. Comparing the same supervisor's rating of an employee's performance at T1 to T2 is a method for assessing ______ reliability.
A. intrarater
531
73. Reliability of a measure places ________.
D. an upper limit on the validity of a measure
532
74. Deficiency error would not indicate a failure to _________.
D. calculate the standard deviation
533
75. Contamination error _________.
C. represents unwanted sources of influence on a measure
534
76. Which of the following is an example of contamination error?
D. all of the above
535
77. The standard error of measurement allows ________.
A. calculation of confidence intervals for true scores
536
78. Validity of a measure is best defined as ________.
B. the degree to which the measure does indeed measure what it is intended to measure
537
79. Which of the following is a type of validity?
C. criterion
538
80. When predictor and criterion scores have been obtained, the predictor can be considered valid if __________.
A. the correlation coefficient has the desired practical and statistical significance
539
81. Content validation is most appropriate when ____________.
D. sample size is too small for criterion validity calculation
540
82. The case for validity generalization across situations becomes stronger if ___.
C. differences in method and statistical differences are controlled
541
83. Which of the following is not part of the process of measurement? A. choosing an attribute of concern
B. assessing the attribute's acceptability to applicants
542
84. Applicant flow statistics require the calculation of selection rates for groups and the subsequent comparison of those rates to determine if they are significantly different from each other.
TRUE
543
85. According to the Uniform Guidelines for Employee Selection Procedures (UGESP), comparisons of selection rates among groups should be based on the 70% rule.
FALSE
544
86. When assessing adverse impact, the law prohibits taking sample size into account.
FALSE
545
87. Investigation of applicant stock statistics is also known as "utilization analysis."
TRUE
546
88. Adverse impact statistics are very stable sample estimates of the amount of true adverse impact occurring in an organization.
FALSE
547
89. The use of standardized measurement eliminates the possibility of adverse impact occurring.
FALSE
548
90. The Uniform Guidelines in Employee Selection procedures indicates that when a selection procedure shows adverse impact, the organization must either eliminate it or justify it through presentation of validity evidence.
TRUE
549
91. The Uniform Guidelines in Employee Selection procedures require the calculation of selection rates for ________.
A. every disability category currently assessed
550
92. Applicant flow statistics require the calculation of ________.
A. selection rates for the groups under analysis
551
93. Applicant stock statistics for groups under analysis require calculation of percentages for _________.
C. availability in the population
552
1. External selection refers to the assessment and evaluation of external job applicants.
TRUE
553
2. Cost should not be used to guide the choice of initial assessment methods.
FALSE
554
3. Job analysis sometimes finds that seemingly unrelated jobs may have more in common than would be expected by relying just on job titles.
TRUE
555
4. The logic of prediction indicates that a point-to-point comparison needs to be made between requirements of the job to be filled and the qualifications of the job applicants.
TRUE
556
5. A power test is used when the speed of work is an important part of the job.
FALSE
557
6. The first step in developing a selection plan is to list relevant KSAOs associated with a job.
TRUE
558
7. The process of translating the results of a job analysis into actual predictors to be used for selection is known as a discriminant validity study.
FALSE
559
8. Organizations are increasingly finding that the costs of developing a selection plan outweigh the benefits.
FALSE
560
9. A finalist is someone who has not yet received an offer, but who possesses the minimum qualifications to be considered for further assessment.
FALSE
561
10. Contingent methods mean that the job offer is subject to certain qualifications, such as the offer receiver passing a medical exam or a drug test.
TRUE
562
11. Within the context of the selection process, the "logic of prediction" means that:
B. indicators of a person's degree of success in past situations should be predictive of future job success
563
12. Which of the following is necessary for the logic of prediction to work in practice for selecting employees?
B. qualifications carry over from one job to another C. that each candidate is assessed based on his or her unique experiences
564
.Within the context of the selection process: the logic of prediction means that .
indicators of a person's degree of success in past situations should be predictive of future job success
565
.Which of the following is necessary for the logic of prediction to work in practice for selecting employees.
qualifications carry over from one job to another
566
.If the correctness of a response is essential for a job: then a(n) ________ test should be used.
.power
567
.Essay tests are best used to assess ___________ skills.
.written communication
568
.The most accurate description of the basic purpose of a selection plan is ______________.
a selection plan describes predictors to be used to assess KSAOs required to perform the job
569
.The strength of the relationship between a predictor and performance is called ________.
.validity
570
.Most initial assessment methods have _________ validity.
moderate to low
571
.Which of the following statements regarding the development of a selection plan is false?
.The process of developing a selection plan is usually straightforward and can be done quickly
572
.A major problem with resumes and cover letters is lying.
TRUE
573
.Although employers can outsource r?sum? collection to r?sum?-tracking services: in practice this type of outsourcing is too inefficient to be worth the cost.
FALSE
574
.Which of the following is(are) initial assessment methods?
resumes and cover letters: aplication blanks & Biographical information
575
.Which of the following are common sources of r?sum? fraud?
inflated titles: inflated education or purchased degrees & inaccurate dates to cover up job hopping or unemployment
576
.Which of the following statements regarding r?sum?s is true?
Most surveys suggest that around half of all r?sum?s have substantial inaccuracies or distortions
577
.In using educational level as an initial selection criterion: which of the following statements is false?
A GED is a high school equivalency degree and is about as good as a conventional high school diploma in predicting job performance.
578
.Which of the following statements regarding the use of grade point averages as a predictor is true?
GPA may be influenced by many factors in addition to the applicant's KSAOs and motivation.
579
.When considering the use of extracurricular activities as a job performance predictor: one should _________.
use extracurricular activities when they correlate with KSAOs required by the job
580
.The highest estimate of validity coefficients of unweighted applicant banks as predictors of job performance are _________.
.20
581
.Research on application blanks has suggested that the most common questions that are misinterpreted include _________.
reasons for leaving previous jobs
582
.The principal assumption behind the use of biodata is the axiom: ________.
The best predictor of future behavior is past behavior
583
.Which of the following is true regarding biodata and background tests?
Background information is obtained through interviews and conversations with references.
584
.Biographical information is like application blanks: except _______.
biographical data can be more fruitfully used for substantive selection decisions
585
.Which of the following is a criterion on which biodata items can be classified?
objective vs. subjective
586
.The problem with using _____ for hiring purposes is that only very poor applicants cannot obtain these: and the format is unstandardized.
letters of recommendation
587
.The information collected for an accomplishments record includes ______.
a written statement of the accomplishment: when the accomplishment took place & any recognition for the accomplishment
588
.Which of the following methods is the most valid predictor of performance?
Biodata
589
.Research has indicated that job applicants generally have a __________ view of biodata inventories.
negative
590
.One major problem with letters of recommendation is that they _________.
are not structured or standardized
591
.The most common person to be contacted in a reference check is the applicant's __________.
former supervisor
592
.Background testing is concerned with the __________ of an applicant.
integrity: reliability &personal adjustments
593
.One of the major disadvantages of using handwriting analysis as an assessment method is that it is ______.
not related to job performance
594
.Which of the following is true regarding genetic screening?
It helps to screen out people who are susceptible to certain diseases.
595
.One guideline for improving the effectiveness of initial interviews is to ____.
ask questions which assess the most basicSAOs
596
.The issue of consistency of measurement with assessment methods is called ______.
reliability
597
.An example of an assessment method which has relatively low reliability is ________.
initial interviews
598
._________ refers to the possibility that a disproportionate number of protected-class members may be rejected using this predictor.
adverse impact
599
.A statement that identifies the rights than an employer wishes to maintain for itself that often accompanies initial employment assessments is called a ____.
disclaimer
600
.Examples of initial assessment methods that have moderate degrees of adverse impact against women and/or minorities include ______.
education level: quality of school &training and experience
601
.Employers protect themselves in the initial stages of contact with job applicants through the use of _______.
disclaimers
602
.Which of the following is true regarding pre-employment inquiries (PI)?
It is critical for employers to understand the laws and regulations regarding PIs.
603
.Which of the following is the law that governs the collection of background check information for employment purposes?
Fair Credit Reporting Act
604
.According to ADA: it is not permissible for employers to do which of the following at the pre-offer stage of assessment process?
Ask if the applicant has any disabilities.
605
.Which of the following is a typical justification of a BFOQ involving sex that employers use?
One sex has an inability to perform the work. Personal contact with others requires same sex & Customers have a preference for dealing with one sex.
606
.Within the context of the selection process: the logic of prediction means that .
indicators of a person's degree of success in past situations should be predictive of future job success
607
.Which of the following is necessary for the logic of prediction to work in practice for selecting employees.
qualifications carry over from one job to another
608
.If the correctness of a response is essential for a job: then a(n) ________ test should be used.
.power
609
.Essay tests are best used to assess ___________ skills.
.written communication
610
.The most accurate description of the basic purpose of a selection plan is ______________.
a selection plan describes predictors to be used to assess KSAOs required to perform the job
611
.The strength of the relationship between a predictor and performance is called ________.
.validity
612
.Most initial assessment methods have _________ validity.
moderate to low
613
.Which of the following statements regarding the development of a selection plan is false?
.The process of developing a selection plan is usually straightforward and can be done quickly
614
.A major problem with resumes and cover letters is lying.
TRUE
615
.Although employers can outsource r?sum? collection to r?sum?-tracking services: in practice this type of outsourcing is too inefficient to be worth the cost.
FALSE
616
.Which of the following is(are) initial assessment methods?
resumes and cover letters: aplication blanks & Biographical information
617
.Which of the following are common sources of r?sum? fraud?
inflated titles: inflated education or purchased degrees & inaccurate dates to cover up job hopping or unemployment
618
.Which of the following statements regarding r?sum?s is true?
Most surveys suggest that around half of all r?sum?s have substantial inaccuracies or distortions
619
.In using educational level as an initial selection criterion: which of the following statements is false?
A GED is a high school equivalency degree and is about as good as a conventional high school diploma in predicting job performance.
620
.Which of the following statements regarding the use of grade point averages as a predictor is true?
GPA may be influenced by many factors in addition to the applicant's KSAOs and motivation.
621
.When considering the use of extracurricular activities as a job performance predictor: one should _________.
use extracurricular activities when they correlate with KSAOs required by the job
622
.Asking applicants to complete a supplemental application in which they describe their most significant accomplishments relative to a list of job behaviors is known as the _______.
behavioral consistency method
623
.The highest estimate of validity coefficients of unweighted applicant banks as predictors of job performance are _________.
.20
624
.Research on application blanks has suggested that the most common questions that are misinterpreted include _________.
reasons for leaving previous jobs
625
.The principal assumption behind the use of biodata is the axiom: ________.
The best predictor of future behavior is past behavior
626
.Which of the following is true regarding biodata and background tests?
Background information is obtained through interviews and conversations with references.
627
.Biographical information is like application blanks: except _______.
biographical data can be more fruitfully used for substantive selection decisions
628
.Which of the following is a criterion on which biodata items can be classified?
objective vs. subjective
629
.The problem with using _____ for hiring purposes is that only very poor applicants cannot obtain these: and the format is unstandardized.
letters of recommendation
630
.The information collected for an accomplishments record includes ______.
a written statement of the accomplishment: when the accomplishment took place & any recognition for the accomplishment
631
.Which of the following methods is the most valid predictor of performance?
Biodata
632
.Research has indicated that job applicants generally have a __________ view of biodata inventories.
negative
633
.One major problem with letters of recommendation is that they _________.
are not structured or standardized
634
.The most common person to be contacted in a reference check is the applicant's __________.
former supervisor
635
.Background testing is concerned with the __________ of an applicant.
integrity: reliability &personal adjustments
636
.One of the major disadvantages of using handwriting analysis as an assessment method is that it is ______.
not related to job performance
637
.Which of the following is true regarding genetic screening?
It helps to screen out people who are susceptible to certain diseases.
638
.One guideline for improving the effectiveness of initial interviews is to ____.
ask questions which assess the most basicSAOs
639
.The issue of consistency of measurement with assessment methods is called ______.
reliability
640
.An example of an assessment method which has relatively low reliability is ________.
initial interviews
641
._________ refers to the possibility that a disproportionate number of protected-class members may be rejected using this predictor.
adverse impact
642
.A statement that identifies the rights than an employer wishes to maintain for itself that often accompanies initial employment assessments is called a ____.
disclaimer
643
.Examples of initial assessment methods that have moderate degrees of adverse impact against women and/or minorities include ______.
education level: quality of school &training and experience
644
.Employers protect themselves in the initial stages of contact with job applicants through the use of _______.
disclaimers
645
.Which of the following is true regarding pre-employment inquiries (PI)?
It is critical for employers to understand the laws and regulations regarding PIs.
646
.Which of the following is the law that governs the collection of background check information for employment purposes?
Fair Credit Reporting Act
647
.According to ADA: it is not permissible for employers to do which of the following at the pre-offer stage of assessment process?
Ask if the applicant has any disabilities.
648
.Which of the following is a typical justification of a BFOQ involving sex that employers use?
One sex has an inability to perform the work. Personal contact with others requires same sex & Customers have a preference for dealing with one sex.
649
.________ assessment methods are used to reduce the candidate pool to finalists for a job.
B.Substantive
650
.Which of the following is not one of the five-factor model personality traits?
C.General mental ability
651
.Which of the following is true regarding the Big Five personality factors?
A.They are reasonably valid in predicting job performance.
652
.This personality trait is associated with better performance. higher job satisfaction. and lower adaptability on the job.
D.Conscientiousness
653
.This personality trait is associated with more helping behaviors. teamwork. and difficulty in coping with conflicts.
C.Agreeableness
654
.This personality trait is associated with more creativity. effective leadership. and a lower commitment to one's employer.
E.Openness to experience
655
.What are the most useful personality traits. in order. for selection contexts?
.Concientiousness. emotional stability. extraversion
656
.Which of the following is true regarding research on the validity of personality tests?
.Conscientiousness predicts performance across occupational groups.
657
.Which of the following statements is false?
C.Faking has a negative impact on the validity of personality tests
658
.Measures which assess an individual's capacity to function in a certain way are called ______.
B.ability tests
659
.Which of the following cognitive abilities appear to reflect general intelligence?
A.verbal abilities& quantitative abilities & reasoning abilities
660
.The most widely used test of general mental ability for selection decisions is the _____.
C.Wonderlic Personnel Test
661
.Research has shown that most of the effect of cognitive ability on performance is due to the fact that intelligent employees have greater _____.
.job knowledge
662
.The biggest reason why cognitive ability tests are not more widely used is _____________.
D.they have an adverse impact on minorities
663
.The difference between black and white test takers on cognitive ability tests has been _____.
B.decreasing over time & lower when tests are given in an open-ended format
664
.Research studies have found ___________ support for the validity of job knowledge tests.
A.relatively strong
665
.The process of administering tests that place applicants in hypothetical. job-related situations and asking them to choose a course of action among several alternatives is called _____________.
.situational judgment tests
666
.The assessment method which involves the use of very realistic equipment and scenarios to simulate actual tasks of a job is called a(n) ________ test.
C.high fidelity
667
.Situational judgment tests ______.
B.involve applicants' descriptions of how they would behave in work scenarios
668
.Which of the following is true regarding integrity tests?
C.They are usually paper-and-pencil or computerized measures.
669
.Interest inventories are designed to improve person job match by assessing applicant preferences for different types of work. Research suggests that these inventories ____.
C.are not strongly predictive of job performance
670
.Which of the following is a characteristic of a typical unstructured interview?
B.The interviewer makes a quick and final evaluation of the candidate.
671
.Which of the following is a source of error or bias in unstructured interviews?
A.Low reliability between interviewers & Nonverbal cues from interviewees influence interview ratings&. Primacy effects.
672
.The first step of the structured interview process is __________.
C.consulting the job requirements matrix
673
.The type of structured interview that assesses an applicant's ability to project what his/her behavior would be in the future is the ____________ interview.
.situational
674
.Which of the following is(are) true based on research regarding interviews?
C.Panel interviews were less valid than individual interviews.
675
.The correlation between structured interviews and cognitive ability tests is ____________.
.positive
676
.Applicants' reactions to interviews tend to be _________.
A.very favorable
677
.Selection for team contexts ____.
B.should emphasize both interpersonal and self-management KSAOs
678
.Which of the following is true regarding drug testing?
B.The rate of drug testing has declined slightly in recent years.
679
.Which of the following is a recommendation for the use of drug testing programs?
C.Provide rejected applicants with an opportunity to appeal.
680
.Drug tests are not common for many jobs because _____.
.drug tests do not "catch" many people
681
.Organizations may not ______ prior to making a job offer.
A.make medical inquiries
682
.The best description of UGESP is that they are _____.
B.a set of federal regulations related to selection systems as covered by the Civil Rights Act
683
.The UGESP requires employers to ____.
C.consider suitable alternative selection procedures if one of the selection techniques has adverse impact
684
.Which of the following items is a major principle pertaining to selection under the Americans with Disabilities Act?
.It is unlawful to screen out individuals with disabilities unless the procedure is consistent with a business necessity
685
.Which of the following inquiries can be made prior to giving a job offer?
C.Oral or written questions about the existence of a disability
686
1. Measures are methods or techniques for describing and assessing attributes of objects that are of concern to us.
TRUE
687
2. When developing measures it is a good idea to give each rater some license to interpret the meaning of scores as fits the specific situation.
FALSE
688
3. To achieve standardization the content of job application tests should be the same for all applicants.
TRUE
689
4. Scoring keys for tests should be developed immediately after the test has been administered.
FALSE
690
5. Most staffing measures can be best described as being on a ratio scale.
FALSE
691
6. A rank ordering of five job candidates in terms of overall qualification for the job is an example of an ordinal scale.
TRUE
692
7. Research shows that when an attribute is measured by both objective and subjective means there is often relatively low agreement between scores from the two types of measures.
TRUE
693
8. The standard deviation is a measure of the central tendency of a scale.
FALSE
694
9. The most appropriate measure of central tendency for nominal scale data is the median.
FALSE
695
10. Standard scores are also useful for determining how a person performed in a relative senseon two or more tests. This is helpful for comparing relative standing across several tests.
TRUE
696
11. If an individual has a z-score of 2.0 on a performance
FALSE
697
12. A correlation coefficient ranges from 0 to +1.
FALSE
698
13. A correlation between two variables does not necessarily that one causes the other.
TRUE
699
14. A standard level for statistical significance is p<.50.
FALSE
700
15. With very large samples it is possible for a fairly weak relationship to still be statistically significant.
TRUE
701
16. Measurement standardization applies to measurement content not the administration of measurements.
FALSE
702
17. When numbers are assigned by category this reflects an ordinal scale of measurement.
FALSE
703
18. If scores are classified as low medium and high
FALSE
704
19. Human body weight is an example of a variable measured on a ratio scale of measure.
TRUE
705
20. Numerical employment interview ratings represent objective measures.
FALSE
706
21. Performance appraisal ratings are subjective measures.
TRUE
707
22. The research literature indicates a high correlation between subjective and objective measures of performance.
FALSE
708
23. A correlation score of minus one between two sets of scores indicates an exceptionally low association or relationship between the two sets.
FALSE
709
24. If the correlation coefficient between variables X and Y is .90 this means that the proportion of common variance shared by the two variables is ninety percent.
FALSE
710
25. A correlation coefficient of 1.0 between variables X and Y indicates that there is a perfect linear relationship between these two variables.
TRUE
711
26. The correlation coefficient does not measure the change in one variable caused by another variable.
TRUE
712
27. While correlation is valuable as an indicator of the degree of association between variables it is generally not used as a tool for prediction.
FALSE
713
28. Which of the following is not part of the process of measurement?
B. assessing the attribute's acceptability to applicants
714
34. A scale in which a given attribute is categorized and numbers are assigned to the categories but there is no order or level implied among the categories.
A. nominal
715
35. Rankings of the finishes of competitors in a foot race is an example of a(n) _______.
B. ordinal scale
716
36. Length in inches is an example of a(n) _________.
A. ratio scale
717
37. The most appropriate measure of central tendency for nominal data is the ______.
D. mode
718
38. The variability of a measure is best captured by the _____________.
B. range and standard deviation
719
39. The likelihood that a correlation exists in a population based on knowledge of the actual value of r in a sample from that population is the ____________.
D. statistical significance
720
40. Which of the following results represents statistically significance as it is commonly understood?
B. p < .05
721
41. A z score of 3.0 for a job applicant's score on an aptitude test indicates the applicant ______.
B. received a score 3 standard deviations above the mean score
722
42. The correlation coefficient expresses _________.
C. strength of the relationship between two variables
723
43. A complete lack of correlation between two variables is expressed by a correlation coefficient of _________
D. zero
724
44. The larger the correlation coefficient
A. the greater the practical significance
725
45. The proper test to determine that a given sample correlation is statistically significant as an estimate of a correlation in a population is the __________.
D. the t test
726
46. Which of the following levels of statistical significance would provide the most confidence that a sample correlation coefficient would not be interpreted as having a relationship in the population when in fact there is no such relationship?
C. .01
727
47. In staffing the scores of individuals are treated as if they were the attribute itself rather than merely indicators of the attribute.
TRUE
728
48. The consistency of measurement of an attribute refers to its validity.
FALSE
729
49. Perfect reliability is virtually impossible to achieve because of the presence of measurement error.
TRUE
730
50. Calculation of the test-retest reliability of scores between time periods is done for objective measures not subjective measures.
TRUE
731
51. Comparing scores of objective measures within the same time period is a measure of internal consistency.
TRUE
732
52. If all the members of a panel interview reach the same conclusion regarding a person who is being interviewed it could be said that the interview ratings are reliable.
TRUE
733
53. Even when measurement error is present true scores can be measured with perfect precision.
FALSE
734
54. Error caused by failing to measure a key aspect of the attribute of interest (i.e. the attribute we wish to measure) is known as contamination error.
FALSE
735
55. Asking different questions of job applicants during comparisons of interview ratings between these same job applicants is an example of contamination error.
TRUE
736
56. If an attribute of job performance is planning and setting work priorities and the raters fail to rate people on that dimension during their performance appraisal then the performance measure is contaminated.
FALSE
737
57. A measure with a coefficient alpha of .55 should generally be regarding as having adequate reliability.
FALSE
738
58. The standard error of measurement is a useful indicator of how accurate actual scores of applicants are in assessing the true scores of a given measure.
TRUE
739
59. Reliability sets the lower limit on validity.
FALSE
740
60. The extent to which scores on a knowledge test truly reflect a job applicant's knowledge is a measure of the test's validity.
TRUE
741
61. Measuring the accuracy of a mechanical ability test in predicting the job performance of current employees involves a predictive validity design.
FALSE
742
62. Criterion measures are not used in the calculation of content validity.
TRUE
743
63. Even if methodological and statistical differences across criterion-related validation studies are not controlled for statistically it is still probable that validity can be generalized from one specific situation to another.
FALSE
744
64. Organizations that collect assessment data need to attend to professional standards that govern their use.
TRUE
745
65. The process of criterion-related validation begins with the identification of criterion measures.
FALSE
746
66. The assessment of concurrent validity is more convenient and more efficient than the assessment of predictive validity.
TRUE
747
67. One guideline for effective staffing practice is that all predictors should be routinely subjected to content validation.
TRUE
748
68. Reliability of measurement is defined as __________.
D. consistency of measurement
749
69. Which of the following is a true statement?
B. actual score equals true score plus error
750
70. Coefficient alpha assesses ____________.
A. reliability within a single time period
751
71. Comparing objective scores from T1 to T2 is a method for assessing _____ reliability.
C. test-retest
752
72. Comparing the same supervisor's rating of an employee's performance at T1 to T2 is a method for assessing ______ reliability.
A. intrarater
753
73. Reliability of a measure places ________.
D. an upper limit on the validity of a measure
754
74. Deficiency error would not indicate a failure to _________.
D. calculate the standard deviation
755
75. Contamination error _________.
C. represents unwanted sources of influence on a measure
756
76. Which of the following is an example of contamination error?
D. all of the above
757
77. The standard error of measurement allows ________.
A. calculation of confidence intervals for true scores
758
78. Validity of a measure is best defined as ________.
B. the degree to which the measure does indeed measure what it is intended to measure
759
79. Which of the following is a type of validity?
C. criterion
760
80. When predictor and criterion scores have been obtained
A. the correlation coefficient has the desired practical and statistical significance
761
81. Content validation is most appropriate when ____________.
D. sample size is too small for criterion validity calculation
762
82. The case for validity generalization across situations becomes stronger if ___.
C. differences in method and statistical differences are controlled
763
83. Which of the following is not part of the process of measurement? A. choosing an attribute of concern
B. assessing the attribute's acceptability to applicants
764
84. Applicant flow statistics require the calculation of selection rates for groups and the subsequent comparison of those rates to determine if they are significantly different from each other.
TRUE
765
85. According to the Uniform Guidelines for Employee Selection Procedures (UGESP) comparisons of selection rates among groups should be based on the 70% rule.
FALSE
766
86. When assessing adverse impact the law prohibits taking sample size into account.
FALSE
767
87. Investigation of applicant stock statistics is also known as utilization analysis.
TRUE
768
88. Adverse impact statistics are very stable sample estimates of the amount of true adverse impact occurring in an organization.
FALSE
769
89. The use of standardized measurement eliminates the possibility of adverse impact occurring.
FALSE
770
90. The Uniform Guidelines in Employee Selection procedures indicates that when a selection procedure shows adverse impact the organization must either eliminate it or justify it through presentation of validity evidence.
TRUE
771
91. The Uniform Guidelines in Employee Selection procedures require the calculation of selection rates for ________.
A. every disability category currently assessed
772
92. Applicant flow statistics require the calculation of ________.
A. selection rates for the groups under analysis
773
93. Applicant stock statistics for groups under analysis require calculation of percentages for _________.
C. availability in the population
774
1. External selection refers to the assessment and evaluation of external job applicants.
TRUE
775
2. Cost should not be used to guide the choice of initial assessment methods.
FALSE
776
3. Job analysis sometimes finds that seemingly unrelated jobs may have more in common than would be expected by relying just on job titles.
TRUE
777
4. The logic of prediction indicates that a point-to-point comparison needs to be made between requirements of the job to be filled and the qualifications of the job applicants.
TRUE
778
5. A power test is used when the speed of work is an important part of the job.
FALSE
779
6. The first step in developing a selection plan is to list relevant KSAOs associated with a job.
TRUE
780
7. The process of translating the results of a job analysis into actual predictors to be used for selection is known as a discriminant validity study.
FALSE
781
8. Organizations are increasingly finding that the costs of developing a selection plan outweigh the benefits.
FALSE
782
9. A finalist is someone who has not yet received an offer but who possesses the minimum qualifications to be considered for further assessment.
FALSE
783
10. Contingent methods mean that the job offer is subject to certain qualifications such as the offer receiver passing a medical exam or a drug test.
TRUE
784
11. Within the context of the selection process the logic of prediction means that:
B. indicators of a person's degree of success in past situations should be predictive of future job success
785
12. Which of the following is necessary for the logic of prediction to work in practice for selecting employees?
B. qualifications carry over from one job to another C. that each candidate is assessed based on his or her unique experiences
786
.________ assessment methods are used to reduce the candidate pool to finalists for a job.
.Substantive
787
.Which of the following is not one of the five-factor model personality traits?
.General mental ability
788
.Which of the following is true regarding the Big Five personality factors?
.They are reasonably valid in predicting job performance.
789
.This personality trait is associated with better performance. higher job satisfaction. and lower adaptability on the job.
.Conscientiousness
790
.This personality trait is associated with more helping behaviors. teamwork. and difficulty in coping with conflicts.
.Agreeableness
791
.This personality trait is associated with more creativity. effective leadership. and a lower commitment to one's employer.
.Openness to experience
792
.What are the most useful personality traits. in order. for selection contexts?
Concientiousness. emotional stability. extraversion
793
.Which of the following is true regarding research on the validity of personality tests?
.Conscientiousness predicts performance across occupational groups.
794
.Which of the following statements is false?
.Faking has a negative impact on the validity of personality tests
795
.Measures which assess an individual's capacity to function in a certain way are called ______.
.ability tests
796
.Which of the following cognitive abilities appear to reflect general intelligence?
.verbal abilities& quantitative abilities & reasoning abilities
797
.The most widely used test of general mental ability for selection decisions is the _____.
.Wonderlic Personnel Test
798
.Research has shown that most of the effect of cognitive ability on performance is due to the fact that intelligent employees have greater _____.
.job knowledge
799
.The biggest reason why cognitive ability tests are not more widely used is _____________.
.they have an adverse impact on minorities
800
.The difference between black and white test takers on cognitive ability tests has been _____.
.decreasing over time & lower when tests are given in an open-ended format
801
.Research studies have found ___________ support for the validity of job knowledge tests.
.relatively strong
802
.The process of administering tests that place applicants in hypothetical. job-related situations and asking them to choose a course of action among several alternatives is called _____________.
.situational judgment tests
803
.The assessment method which involves the use of very realistic equipment and scenarios to simulate actual tasks of a job is called a(n) ________ test.
.high fidelity
804
.Situational judgment tests ______.
.involve applicants' descriptions of how they would behave in work scenarios
805
.Which of the following is true regarding integrity tests?
.They are usually paper-and-pencil or computerized measures.
806
.Interest inventories are designed to improve person job match by assessing applicant preferences for different types of work. Research suggests that these inventories ____.
.are not strongly predictive of job performance
807
.Which of the following is a characteristic of a typical unstructured interview?
.The interviewer makes a quick and final evaluation of the candidate.
808
.Which of the following is a source of error or bias in unstructured interviews?
.Low reliability between interviewers & Nonverbal cues from interviewees influence interview ratings&. Primacy effects.
809
.The first step of the structured interview process is __________.
.consulting the job requirements matrix
810
.The type of structured interview that assesses an applicant's ability to project what his/her behavior would be in the future is the ____________ interview.
.situational
811
.Which of the following is(are) true based on research regarding interviews?
.Panel interviews were less valid than individual interviews.
812
.The correlation between structured interviews and cognitive ability tests is ____________.
.positive
813
.Applicants' reactions to interviews tend to be _________.
.very favorable
814
.Selection for team contexts ____.
.should emphasize both interpersonal and self-management KSAOs
815
.Which of the following is true regarding drug testing?
.The rate of drug testing has declined slightly in recent years.
816
.Which of the following is a recommendation for the use of drug testing programs?
.Provide rejected applicants with an opportunity to appeal.
817
.Organizations may not ______ prior to making a job offer.
.make medical inquiries
818
.The best description of UGESP is that they are _____.
.a set of federal regulations related to selection systems as covered by the Civil Rights Act
819
.The UGESP requires employers to ____.
.consider suitable alternative selection procedures if one of the selection techniques has adverse impact
820
.Which of the following items is a major principle pertaining to selection under the Americans with Disabilities Act?
It is unlawful to screen out individuals with disabilities unless the procedure is consistent with a business necessity
821
.Which of the following inquiries can be made prior to giving a job offer?
.Oral or written questions about the existence of a disability
822
1. Measures are methods or techniques for describing and assessing attributes of objects that are of concern to us.
TRUE
823
2. When developing measures it is a good idea to give each rater some license to interpret the meaning of scores as fits the specific situation.
FALSE
824
3. To achieve standardization the content of job application tests should be the same for all applicants.
TRUE
825
4. Scoring keys for tests should be developed immediately after the test has been administered.
FALSE
826
5. Most staffing measures can be best described as being on a ratio scale.
FALSE
827
6. A rank ordering of five job candidates in terms of overall qualification for the job is an example of an ordinal scale.
TRUE
828
7. Research shows that when an attribute is measured by both objective and subjective means there is often relatively low agreement between scores from the two types of measures.
TRUE
829
8. The standard deviation is a measure of the central tendency of a scale.
FALSE
830
9. The most appropriate measure of central tendency for nominal scale data is the median.
FALSE
831
10. Standard scores are also useful for determining how a person performed in a relative senseon two or more tests. This is helpful for comparing relative standing across several tests.
TRUE
832
11. If an individual has a z-score of 2.0 on a performance
FALSE
833
12. A correlation coefficient ranges from 0 to +1.
FALSE
834
13. A correlation between two variables does not necessarily that one causes the other.
TRUE
835
14. A standard level for statistical significance is p<.50.
FALSE
836
15. With very large samples it is possible for a fairly weak relationship to still be statistically significant.
TRUE
837
16. Measurement standardization applies to measurement content not the administration of measurements.
FALSE
838
17. When numbers are assigned by category this reflects an ordinal scale of measurement.
FALSE
839
18. If scores are classified as low medium and high
FALSE
840
19. Human body weight is an example of a variable measured on a ratio scale of measure.
TRUE
841
20. Numerical employment interview ratings represent objective measures.
FALSE
842
21. Performance appraisal ratings are subjective measures.
TRUE
843
22. The research literature indicates a high correlation between subjective and objective measures of performance.
FALSE
844
23. A correlation score of minus one between two sets of scores indicates an exceptionally low association or relationship between the two sets.
FALSE
845
24. If the correlation coefficient between variables X and Y is .90 this means that the proportion of common variance shared by the two variables is ninety percent.
FALSE
846
25. A correlation coefficient of 1.0 between variables X and Y indicates that there is a perfect linear relationship between these two variables.
TRUE
847
26. The correlation coefficient does not measure the change in one variable caused by another variable.
TRUE
848
27. While correlation is valuable as an indicator of the degree of association between variables it is generally not used as a tool for prediction.
FALSE
849
28. Which of the following is not part of the process of measurement?
B. assessing the attribute's acceptability to applicants
850
34. A scale in which a given attribute is categorized and numbers are assigned to the categories but there is no order or level implied among the categories.
A. nominal
851
35. Rankings of the finishes of competitors in a foot race is an example of a(n) _______.
B. ordinal scale
852
36. Length in inches is an example of a(n) _________.
A. ratio scale
853
37. The most appropriate measure of central tendency for nominal data is the ______.
D. mode
854
38. The variability of a measure is best captured by the _____________.
B. range and standard deviation
855
39. The likelihood that a correlation exists in a population based on knowledge of the actual value of r in a sample from that population is the ____________.
D. statistical significance
856
40. Which of the following results represents statistically significance as it is commonly understood?
B. p < .05
857
41. A z score of 3.0 for a job applicant's score on an aptitude test indicates the applicant ______.
B. received a score 3 standard deviations above the mean score
858
42. The correlation coefficient expresses _________.
C. strength of the relationship between two variables
859
43. A complete lack of correlation between two variables is expressed by a correlation coefficient of _________
D. zero
860
44. The larger the correlation coefficient
A. the greater the practical significance
861
45. The proper test to determine that a given sample correlation is statistically significant as an estimate of a correlation in a population is the __________.
D. the t test
862
46. Which of the following levels of statistical significance would provide the most confidence that a sample correlation coefficient would not be interpreted as having a relationship in the population when in fact there is no such relationship?
C. .01
863
47. In staffing the scores of individuals are treated as if they were the attribute itself rather than merely indicators of the attribute.
TRUE
864
48. The consistency of measurement of an attribute refers to its validity.
FALSE
865
49. Perfect reliability is virtually impossible to achieve because of the presence of measurement error.
TRUE
866
50. Calculation of the test-retest reliability of scores between time periods is done for objective measures not subjective measures.
TRUE
867
51. Comparing scores of objective measures within the same time period is a measure of internal consistency.
TRUE
868
52. If all the members of a panel interview reach the same conclusion regarding a person who is being interviewed it could be said that the interview ratings are reliable.
TRUE
869
53. Even when measurement error is present true scores can be measured with perfect precision.
FALSE
870
54. Error caused by failing to measure a key aspect of the attribute of interest (i.e. the attribute we wish to measure) is known as contamination error.
FALSE
871
55. Asking different questions of job applicants during comparisons of interview ratings between these same job applicants is an example of contamination error.
TRUE
872
56. If an attribute of job performance is planning and setting work priorities and the raters fail to rate people on that dimension during their performance appraisal then the performance measure is contaminated.
FALSE
873
57. A measure with a coefficient alpha of .55 should generally be regarding as having adequate reliability.
FALSE
874
58. The standard error of measurement is a useful indicator of how accurate actual scores of applicants are in assessing the true scores of a given measure.
TRUE
875
59. Reliability sets the lower limit on validity.
FALSE
876
60. The extent to which scores on a knowledge test truly reflect a job applicant's knowledge is a measure of the test's validity.
TRUE
877
61. Measuring the accuracy of a mechanical ability test in predicting the job performance of current employees involves a predictive validity design.
FALSE
878
62. Criterion measures are not used in the calculation of content validity.
TRUE
879
63. Even if methodological and statistical differences across criterion-related validation studies are not controlled for statistically it is still probable that validity can be generalized from one specific situation to another.
FALSE
880
64. Organizations that collect assessment data need to attend to professional standards that govern their use.
TRUE
881
65. The process of criterion-related validation begins with the identification of criterion measures.
FALSE
882
66. The assessment of concurrent validity is more convenient and more efficient than the assessment of predictive validity.
TRUE
883
67. One guideline for effective staffing practice is that all predictors should be routinely subjected to content validation.
TRUE
884
68. Reliability of measurement is defined as __________.
D. consistency of measurement
885
69. Which of the following is a true statement?
B. actual score equals true score plus error
886
70. Coefficient alpha assesses ____________.
A. reliability within a single time period
887
71. Comparing objective scores from T1 to T2 is a method for assessing _____ reliability.
C. test-retest
888
72. Comparing the same supervisor's rating of an employee's performance at T1 to T2 is a method for assessing ______ reliability.
A. intrarater
889
73. Reliability of a measure places ________.
D. an upper limit on the validity of a measure
890
74. Deficiency error would not indicate a failure to _________.
D. calculate the standard deviation
891
75. Contamination error _________.
C. represents unwanted sources of influence on a measure
892
76. Which of the following is an example of contamination error?
D. all of the above
893
77. The standard error of measurement allows ________.
A. calculation of confidence intervals for true scores
894
78. Validity of a measure is best defined as ________.
B. the degree to which the measure does indeed measure what it is intended to measure
895
79. Which of the following is a type of validity?
C. criterion
896
80. When predictor and criterion scores have been obtained
A. the correlation coefficient has the desired practical and statistical significance
897
81. Content validation is most appropriate when ____________.
D. sample size is too small for criterion validity calculation
898
82. The case for validity generalization across situations becomes stronger if ___.
C. differences in method and statistical differences are controlled
899
83. Which of the following is not part of the process of measurement? A. choosing an attribute of concern
B. assessing the attribute's acceptability to applicants
900
84. Applicant flow statistics require the calculation of selection rates for groups and the subsequent comparison of those rates to determine if they are significantly different from each other.
TRUE
901
85. According to the Uniform Guidelines for Employee Selection Procedures (UGESP) comparisons of selection rates among groups should be based on the 70% rule.
FALSE
902
86. When assessing adverse impact the law prohibits taking sample size into account.
FALSE
903
87. Investigation of applicant stock statistics is also known as utilization analysis.
TRUE
904
88. Adverse impact statistics are very stable sample estimates of the amount of true adverse impact occurring in an organization.
FALSE
905
89. The use of standardized measurement eliminates the possibility of adverse impact occurring.
FALSE
906
90. The Uniform Guidelines in Employee Selection procedures indicates that when a selection procedure shows adverse impact the organization must either eliminate it or justify it through presentation of validity evidence.
TRUE
907
91. The Uniform Guidelines in Employee Selection procedures require the calculation of selection rates for ________.
A. every disability category currently assessed
908
92. Applicant flow statistics require the calculation of ________.
A. selection rates for the groups under analysis
909
93. Applicant stock statistics for groups under analysis require calculation of percentages for _________.
C. availability in the population
910
1. External selection refers to the assessment and evaluation of external job applicants.
TRUE
911
2. Cost should not be used to guide the choice of initial assessment methods.
FALSE
912
3. Job analysis sometimes finds that seemingly unrelated jobs may have more in common than would be expected by relying just on job titles.
TRUE
913
4. The logic of prediction indicates that a point-to-point comparison needs to be made between requirements of the job to be filled and the qualifications of the job applicants.
TRUE
914
5. A power test is used when the speed of work is an important part of the job.
FALSE
915
6. The first step in developing a selection plan is to list relevant KSAOs associated with a job.
TRUE
916
7. The process of translating the results of a job analysis into actual predictors to be used for selection is known as a discriminant validity study.
FALSE
917
8. Organizations are increasingly finding that the costs of developing a selection plan outweigh the benefits.
FALSE
918
9. A finalist is someone who has not yet received an offer but who possesses the minimum qualifications to be considered for further assessment.
FALSE
919
10. Contingent methods mean that the job offer is subject to certain qualifications such as the offer receiver passing a medical exam or a drug test.
TRUE
920
11. Within the context of the selection process the logic of prediction means that:
B. indicators of a person's degree of success in past situations should be predictive of future job success
921
12. Which of the following is necessary for the logic of prediction to work in practice for selecting employees?
B. qualifications carry over from one job to another C. that each candidate is assessed based on his or her unique experiences
922
13. If the correctness of a response is essential for a job then a(n) ________ test should be used.
C. power
923
14. Essay tests are best used to assess ___________ skills.
B. written communication
924
15. The most accurate description of the basic purpose of a selection plan is ______________.
C. a selection plan describes predictors to be used to assess KSAOs required to perform the job
925
16. The strength of the relationship between a predictor and performance is called ________.
B. validity
926
17. Most initial assessment methods have _________ validity.
A. moderate to low
927
18. Which of the following statements regarding the development of a selection plan is false?
B. The process of developing a selection plan is usually straightforward and can be done quickly
928
19. A major problem with resumes and cover letters is lying.
TRUE
929
20. Although employers can outsource collection to tracking services in practice this type of outsourcing is too inefficient to be worth the cost.
FALSE
930
21. R‚sum‚ scanning software tends to look for nouns more than action verbs.
TRUE
931
22. Video r‚sum‚s have become a major component of selection in most large organizations.
FALSE
932
23. To protect an employer from charges of unfair discrimination it is best to only include information related to KSAOs demonstrated as important to the job on an application blank.
TRUE
933
24. Research has found that level of education is moderately related to job performance.
FALSE
934
25. College grades are more valid predictors of job performance than high school grades.
FALSE
935
26. Research suggests that the quality of the school a person graduates from makes a difference in the labor market.
TRUE
936
27. Occupational certifications are nearly all regulated by the Department of Labor to ensure that they accurately reflect job knowledge.
FALSE
937
28. Occupational certification helps guard against the misuse of job titles in human resource selection.
TRUE
938
29. Scored evaluations of unweighted application blanks are good predictors of job performance.
FALSE
939
30. The validity evidence for weighted application blanks is better than that for unweighted application blanks.
TRUE
940
31. Most organizations use only weighted application blanks for initial screening decisions.
FALSE
941
32. The principal assumption behind the use of biodata in selection processes is the axiom the best predictor of future behavior is past behavior.
TRUE
942
33. Biodata refers to medical or physiological tests of applicants prior to hiring.
FALSE
943
34. Biodata is like a background check in many ways but background checks tend to focus on external references rather than applicant surveys.
TRUE
944
35. Biodata items are generally the same regardless of the job being staffed.
FALSE
945
36. Research suggests that biodata does not provide incremental validity over personality and cognitive ability.
FALSE
946
37. Research on the reliability and validity of biodata has been quite positive.
TRUE
947
38. Biographical information tends to have low reliability.
FALSE
948
39. Research shows that applicants have a favorable attitude toward biodata inventories.
FALSE
949
40. Letters of recommendation are an excellent way to help organizations separate highly qualified from moderately qualified applicants.
FALSE
950
41. One study that showed there was a stronger correlation between two letters written by one person for two different applicants than between two different people writing letters for the same person.
TRUE
951
42. The most common person to be contacted in a reference check is the applicant's former colleagues who worked in the same position.
FALSE
952
43. Many organizations are reluctant to give out detailed reference information regarding their former employees because they are afraid of being sued.
TRUE
953
44. Surveys suggest that only 3 out of 10 organizations conduct reference checks.
FALSE
954
45. The proportion of organizations that conduct pre-hire background checks to determine if employees have criminal records or inaccurate reporting onhas risen dramatically in recent years.
TRUE
955
46. Genetic screening is becoming a valuable component of many organizations' selection systems.
FALSE
956
47. The purpose of the initial interview is to screen out the most obvious cases of person/job mismatches.
TRUE
957
48. The initial interview is the least expensive method of initial assessment.
FALSE
958
49. Initial interviews can be made more useful by asking the same questions of all job applicants.
TRUE
959
50. Most initial assessment methods have moderate to low validity.
TRUE
960
51. The most frequently used methods of initial assessment are education level training and experience reference checks and initial interview.
TRUE
961
52. Level of education requirements have little adverse impact against minority applicants.
TRUE
962
53. Which of the following is(are) initial assessment methods?
A. and cover letters B. Application blanks C. Biographical information
963
54. Which of the following are common sources of r‚sum‚ fraud?
A. inflated titles B. inflated education or purchased degrees C. inaccurate dates to cover up job hopping or unemployment
964
55. Which of the following statements regarding r‚sum‚s is true?
B. Most surveys suggest that around half of all have substantial inaccuracies or distortions
965
56. In using educational level as an initial selection criterion which of the following statements is false?
B. A GED is a high school equivalency degree and is about as good as a conventional high school diploma in predicting job performance
966
57. Which of the following statements regarding the use of grade point averages as a predictor is true?
A. GPA may be influenced by many factors in addition to the applicant's KSAOs and motivation.
967
58. When considering the use of extracurricular activities as a job performance predictor one should _________.
D. use extracurricular activities when they correlate with KSAOs required by the job
968
59. Asking applicants to complete a supplemental application in which they describe their most significant accomplishments relative to a list of job behaviors is known as the _______.
A. behavioral consistency method
969
60. The highest estimate of validity coefficients of unweighted applicant banks as predictors of job performance are _________.
C. .20
970
61. Research on application blanks has suggested that the most common questions that are misinterpreted include _________.
B. reasons for leaving previous jobs
971
62. The principal assumption behind the use of biodata is the axiom
D. The best predictor of future behavior is past behavior
972
63. Which of the following is true regarding biodata and background tests?
A. Background information is obtained through interviews and conversations with references
973
64. Biographical information is like application blanks except _______.
D. biographical data can be more fruitfully used for substantive selection decisions
974
65. Which of the following is a criterion on which biodata items can be classified?
C. objective vs. subjective
975
66. The problem with using _____ for hiring purposes is that only very poor applicants cannot obtain these and the format is unstandardized.
C. letters of recommendation
976
67. The information collected for an accomplishments record includes ______.
A. a written statement of the accomplishment B. when the accomplishment took place C. any recognition for the accomplishment
977
68. Which of the following methods is the most valid predictor of performance?
C. Biodata
978
69. Research has indicated that job applicants generally have a __________ view of biodata inventories.
B. negative
979
70. One major problem with letters of recommendation is that they _________.
B. are not structured or standardized
980
71. The most common person to be contacted in a reference check is the applicant's __________.
C. former supervisor
981
72. Background testing is concerned with the __________ of an applicant.
A. integrity B. reliability C. personal adjustments
982
73. One of the major disadvantages of using handwriting analysis as an assessment method is that it is ______.
B. not related to job performance
983
74. Which of the following is true regarding genetic screening?
C. It helps to screen out people who are susceptible to certain diseases
984
75. One guideline for improving the effectiveness of initial interviews is to ____.
A. ask questions which assess the most basic KSAOs
985
76. The issue of consistency of measurement with assessment methods is called ______.
B. reliability
986
77. An example of an assessment method which has relatively low reliability is ________.
B. initial interviews
987
78. _________ refers to the possibility that a disproportionate number of protected-class members may be rejected using this predictor
B. Adverse impact
988
79. Disclaimers are used as a means of protecting employer rights.
TRUE
989
80. Employers are advised to let applicants know in advance that they reserve the right to not hire terminate or discipline prospective employee for providing false information during the selection process.
TRUE
990
81. Failure to conduct a reference check opens an organization to the possibility of a negligent hiring suit.
TRUE
991
82. The laws in most states provide employers with little protection if they provide any information in a reference check that might damage an applicant's chances of getting a job.
FALSE
992
83. Although arrest information may be gathered in the process of doing a background check it cannot be used in staffing decisions.
TRUE
993
84. It is illegal to use pre-employment inquiry information that has a disparate impact on the basis of a protected characteristic unless such disparate impact can be shown to be job-related and consistent with business necessity.
TRUE
994
85. Bona fide occupational qualifications are not of relevance to the initial assessment phase.
FALSE
995
86. Bona fide occupational qualification claims made on the basis of customer preferences are typically upheld by the courts.
FALSE
996
87. Adverse impact refers to the possibility that a disproportionate number of protect class members may be rejected using a given predictor.
TRUE
997
88. The Americans with Disabilities Act states that employers may not ask disability-related questions and may not conduct medical examinations until after it makes a conditional job offer to a person.
TRUE
998
89. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act explicitly permits discrimination on the basis of sex religion or national origin if it can be shown to be a bona fide occupational qualification.
TRUE
999
90. The burden of proof is on employers to defend BFOQ claims.
TRUE
1000
91. A statement that identifies the rights than an employer wishes to maintain for itself that often accompanies initial employment assessments is called a ____.
B. disclaimer
1001
92. Examples of initial assessment methods that have moderate degrees of adverse impact against women and/or minorities include ______.
A. education level B. quality of school C. training and experience
1002
93. Employers protect themselves in the initial stages of contact with job applicants through the use of _______.
C. disclaimers
1003
94. Which of the following is true regarding pre-employment inquiries (PI)?
C. It is critical for employers to understand the laws and regulations regarding PIs.
1004
95. Which of the following is the law that governs the collection of background check information for employment purposes?
B. Fair Credit Reporting Act
1005
97. Which of the following is a typical justification of a BFOQ involving sex that employers use?
A. One sex has an inability to perform the work. B. Personal contact with others requires same sex. C. Customers have a preference for dealing with one sex.
