Final Flashcards
The types of employee turnover include ___________
Voluntary & Involuntary(discharge & downsizing)
Discharge turnover is usually due to ___________.
poor employee performance
Turnover due to organizational downsizing is classified as ______.
involuntary
The desirability of leaving an organization is often an outgrowth of _________.
poor person and organizational match
An employee’s intention to leave an organization is influenced by __________.
perceived desirability of movement, perceived ease of movement and alternatives available to the employee
Ease of leaving is greater when
lavor markets are loose
downsizing is typically a reflection of
overstaffing
Data are seldom available regarding when or where employee turnover is occurring in most organizations.
false
Research suggests that there are differences between the reasons for turnover that employees provide in exit interviews and the reasons employees provide in anonymous surveys.
true
Because it is typically very easy to collect and analyze job satisfaction data meaningfully, most organizations make this a cornerstone of their retention strategy.
false
Exit interviews can be used to explain _________ to departing employees.
rehiring rights, benefits and confidentiality agreements
Which of the following is a suggestion for conducting an appropriate exit interview
the interviewer should prepare for each interview by reviewing the interview format and the interviewee’s personnel file
Which of the following is a common tool to assess employee reasons for leaving?
exit interview
Economic separation costs associated with voluntary turnover include ________.
manager’s time
Replacement costs associated with voluntary turnover include __________.
HR staff incudtion costs
Which of the following is a potential benefit associated with voluntary employee turnover?
savings from not replacing an employee
Which of the following makes involuntary turnover potentially more costly than a similar level of voluntary turnover?
possibility of a lawsuit
Economic costs associated with downsizing include ___________.
higher unemployment insurance premiums
Which of the following is a potential benefit associated with downsizing?
focus on core businesses, emliminating peripheral ones, spreading risk by outsourcing activities to other organizations, lower payroll and benefit costs
The first strategy for improving employee retention is to _____________.
increase job satisfaction
Guidelines for increasing job satisfaction and retention include ___________.
link rewards to retention behaviors
Which of the following is an attribute of a high value employee that an organization would want to prevent from leaving?
strong KSAOs
Which of the following is an attribute of a low value employee that an organization would not want to prevent from leaving?
little intellectual capital
Research most clearly suggests that when organizations wish to increase retention they need to _____.
offer “bundles” of HR practices that complement one another
Which of the following factors leading to turnover cannot usually be addressed by the organization?
employee shocks
Organizations can use compensation to reduce turnover by _____.
providing deferred compensation, giving specific rewards for seniority, increasing pay levels to surpass the market
Organizations that link extrinsic rewards to employee performance (i.e. that use incentive compensation plans) find that _____.
turnover of high performers decreases and turnover of low performers increases
Work-life balance programs are an example of _____.
intrinsic rewards
Research on organizational justice suggests that ____.
justice influences turnover in highly industrialized countries, communication has a large impact on employee attitudes or turnover intentions
To increase the cost of leaving, employers ____.
provide deferred compensation
As assessment of employee success in reaching goals, ratings of competencies, and suggestions for improvement are all part of _____.
performance appraisal
Recommendations for the effective design and use of a performance appraisal or management system include that ____________.
evaluations should be in writing, the employee should recieve timely feedback about the evaluation and explanation for any outcome decision and there should be agreement amoung different raters in their evaluation of the employee’s performance
______ includes the completion of job tasks that are specifically included in the job description.
task performance
Which of the following is a part of normal progressive discipline?
give employees notice of the rules of conduct, allow for full investigation of alleged employee misconduct and give employees the right to appeal a decision
Which of the following is an example of a major employee offense?
sabotage, theft and drug/alcohol abuse at work
The typical penalty for a first major offense by an employee is
suspension or discharge
One problem that has been shown to accompany downsizing is _____.
decrease in employee health and motivation
Which of the following is the most commonly pursued alternative to layoffs for reducing staffing levels?
attrition
In many cases, the post-layoff environment for those who remain is marked by _____.
reductions in trust of management, stress among those who remain and reductions in workforce quality
One problem that has been shown to From a legal standpoint, if performance appraisal information is to be used in the retention management and termination process for an organization, the organization needs to ensure that the information is _____.
communicated in advance to the employee
The process of acquiring, deploying, and retaining a workforce of sufficient quantity and quality to create positive impacts on the organization’s effectiveness is called ________.
staffing
Which of the following statements is true regarding staffing?
The staffing process is composed of a series of interrelated parts including recruitment, selection, decision making and job offers.
The process that involves the placement of new hires on the actual job they will hold is called ___________.
deployment
The purpose of retention systems is to __________.
manage the flow of employees out of the organization
Staffing systems exist, and should ultimately be used, to __________.
contribute to the attainment of organizational goals such as survival, profitability and growth
According to the staffing quantity model, an organization will be __________ when availabilities exceed requirements.
overstaffed
The staffing quantity model uses _________ to determine whether a condition of being overstaffed, fully staffed, or understaffed exists.
projected staffing requirements and availabilities
Which of the following are portions of person-job match?
jobs are characterized by their requirements, embedded rewards and individuals are characterized by their level of qualificiations and motivation
Which of the following statements is false regarding person-job match?
Organizational culture is an important aspect of person-job match.
The person/job match model says that there must be a match between _______.
job requirements with KSAOs and job rewards with individual motivation
In terms of the person/organization match ________.
there is a concern with the “fit” of people to multiple jobs or future jobs
Which of the following matching concerns arise in person-organization match?
values, new job duties, multiple jobs and future jobs
The staffing system components model says that the phases of the staffing process occur in which order after the initial interaction between the applicant and the organization?
recruitment, selection, employment
According to the overall staffing organizations model, one support activity is ________.
job analysis
According to the overall staffing organizations model, an example of a core staffing activity is ______.
internal recruitment
According to the overall staffing organizations model, HR and staffing strategy are driven by _____________.
the mission, goals and objectives of the organization
Which of the following is a part of the recruiting phase of the staffing process?
developing and conducting job fairs
Which of these activities is most directly associated with the employment phase of the staffing process?
deciding on finalists for a job
Staffing system management involves _________.
guiding, coordinating, controlling and evaluating staffing activities
_____________ staffing strategy would have an organization concentrate on acquiring new employees who can “hit the ground running.”
pure acquisition
The ___________ is composed of more peripheral workers who are used on an as-needed, just-in-time basis.
flexible workforce
Outsourcing is _________.
moving a business process to another vendor
Organizations often __________ when they choose to ride out dips in demand for goods and services or to stockpile talent.
overstaff
A _____________ staffing strategy is when organizations decide to go to locations where there are ample labor supplies.
relocate
When jobs are highly fluid, it is probably advisable for organizations to focus more on:
A. person-job match
person-organization match
Regarding employment contracts, ________.
both written and oral contracts are enforceable
The most prevalent form of the employment relationship is _________.
employer-employee
The common law principle which states that, in the absence of any contract language to the contrary, either the employer or employee may terminate the employment relationship at any time is called _________.
employment-at-will
An example of an exception to the principle of employment-at-will would be _________.
employers cannot discharge employees on the basis of race
Which of the following statements is true regarding independent contractors?
Using an independent contractor frees an employer from the tax withholding and tax payment obligations it has for its employees.
Which of the following factors increase the likelihood that a worker will be considered an independent contractor?
The independent contractor works without supervision or oversight from the employer, sets his or her own work hours and is paid by the project rather than by the time spent
Which of the following is true regarding temporary employees?
use of temporaty workers can often raise issues of “co-employment”
What can employers do to ensure that permatemps, that is, individuals from staffing firms who have long-term relationships with an employer, are not considered employees of their firm?
never exercise direct control over these people and treat them separate from regular employees
Which of the following statements is true regarding the laws and regulations which govern the employment relationship?
Their purpose is to create a reasonable balance of power between the employer and employee.
The primary source of common law is ________.
past court decisions
Due process rights have their primary source in _________.
the US constitution amendments
A _________ is a civil wrong that occurs when the employer violates a duty owed to its employees or customers that results in harm or damages
tort
Statutory law is derived from ________.
written documents passed by legislative bodies
Agencies that regulate fair employment practice exist at which level?
federal, state and local
The role of federal agencies is to __________.
interpret, administer and enforce the law
Which of the following is(are) true regarding federal EEO/AA laws?
specific agencies exist which regulate administration and enforcement
Which of the following is not covered by the Civil Rights Act ________?
disabilities
The Age Discrimination in Employment Act focuses on individuals over the age of ________.
40
Disparate treatment focuses on _________.
allegations and evidence about intions to discriminate
The initial burden of proof in discrimination claims lies ______.
with the plaintiff
When using stock statistics in job selection discrimination cases, the comparison being made is __________.
percentages of groups in job categories relative to their availability in the population
The key to a successful rebuttal in a disparate treatment case is _________.
to provide nondiscriminatory reasons for the practice(s) in question
In EEOC cases, a consent decree is ________
court approved
Enforcement mechanisms used by the OFCCP ________.
may involve conciliation agreements
Which of the following is prohibited discrimination under civil rights law?
discrimination in hiring, compensation or classification
The essence of a BFOQ is that _________.
it justifies discrimination based on reasonable necessity of the job
Regarding the use of tests in staffing, it can be said that ______.
they are permitted by law
The legal status of seniority and merit systems is that _______.
both are legal
The Age Discrimination In Employment Act (1967) prohibits discrimination against individuals who are ____ years or older.
40
Employers can use which of the following techniques without violating the Age Discrimination in Employment Act.
using reasonable factors other than age in making employment decisions, seniority systems or terms or phrases that express a preference for older workers
Where the Americans with Disabilities Act is concerned, ______?
the law only applies to disabled individuals who are otherwise qualified
Where reasonable accommodations for disabled individuals are concerned, it can be said that _______.
the need to accommodate often hinges on whether or not a given job function is necessary or essential
Which of the following is not prohibited by the ADA?
asking a job applicant to undergo a medical exam after a job offer has been made
Executive Order 11246 covers _________.
federal contractors with contracts in excess of $10,000
Noncompliance with the Immigration Reform and Control Act (1986) could result in __________.
imprisonment for up to six months
Which of the following is true regarding EEO laws?
State (but not local) government employees are immune from lawsuits by employees who allege violation of ADA or ADEA, States must pursue age and disability discrimination claims under applicable state laws, A foreign company which is owned or controlled by an American employer and is doing business overseas generally also must comply with Title VII, the ADA, and the ADEA
Which of the following is true regarding discrimination on the basis of sexual orientation?
although such discrimination is not covered by federal law, it is covered by some state and local laws
Which of the following are likely to occur during job expansion periods?
Departure of some employees to take opportunities at other firms
Projections suggest that there will be growth in which of the following sectors of the economy?
education and health services
In general, the labor force is becoming ____.
older
What percentage of employers believe high school graduates are deficient in work habits such as professionalism, critical thinking, personal accountability, and time management?
40%
Which of the following are likely responses to labor shortages?
hiring bonuses and stock options
Which of the following is a likely effect of technology on employment demand?
Changes in the skill requirements of the workforce, Elimination of some jobs and Creation of new jobs
What proportion of the workforce is unionized?
About 7% of the private sector and about 36% of the public sector
Human resource planning activities most directly involve _____.
forecasting labor requirements and availabilities
The process of determining reconciliation and gaps tells managers _____.
how many employees will be needed for jobs in the coming period
Plan-based HRP consists of _________.
planning that is part of the organization’s strategic planning process
Project-based HRP consists of _________.
organizational responses to sudden changes in the environment
Population-based HRP consists of _________.
planning focused on a specific employee group
A manager has gathered data on staffing levels over time, and then predicts future requirements based on the pattern of demand, taking seasonal variations in demand into account. This equation is used to predict future staffing levels. This is an example of _______________.
trend analysis
A manager has collected data on the dollar value of sales and has divided this by the number of FTE. Assuming this relationship will hold in the future, and using projected sales, the manager estimates the number of employees required. This is an example of _______________.
ratio analysis
. A manager has collected data on sales, the economy, and taxes over a number of years, and statistically estimates an equation that describes how each of these predictors has affected staffing levels in the past. This equation is used to predict future staffing levels. This is an example of _______________.
regression analysis
Which of the following would be addressed in forecasting HR availabilities?
promotions, transfers and exits
Markov analysis is a technique for __________.
availability forecasting
A transition matrix would appear in a _________.
Markov analysis
In Markov analysis for staffing, __________ is used to forecast future workforce availabilities.
transition probabilities
Which of the following creates a problem for Markov analysis?
small sample sizes
Manager judgment is an important method for staffing in _________.
smaller organizations
Which of the following is not a shortcoming of using manager judgment for forecasting availability?
managers are always overly aggressive in making estimates of hiring requirements
Employment reconciliation analyzes gaps between ________.
future HR requirements and HR availability
For succession planning to work, organizations must also have _____.
training and development systems in place
Human resource information systems provide which of the following functions for succession planning?
Creating lists of employees who are ready to move into specific positions, Seeking out passive candidates within the organization and Tracking candidates across a variety of locations
A key advantage of having a core work force is that it provides _________.
greater organizational profitability
A major disadvantage of a flexible work force is that ________.
it leads to loss of some control over worker, it can lead to conflict between core and flexible workers and flexible workers are often less familiar with equipment
Advantages of a core workforce include ______________.
stability, continuity, and predictability, a sense of commitment and shared purpose toward the organization’s purpose and an organization can directly control how it acquires its workforce
Which of the following are advantages of external staffing?
bringing in employees with new KSAOs
Which of the following services is provided by staffing firms?
Advance screening of job candidates and They may provide on-site managers to help with training
A(n) ______ provides specific task and project assistance to the organization, such as maintenance, bookkeeping, advertising, programming, and consulting, with payment contingent on completion of the project (rather than time worked or methods of completing the task).
independent contractor
Firms offshore work because ______________.
wages are often lower overseas and there is a growing pool of highly qualified workers overseas
In recent years there has been an increase in the number of _________ in the workforce.
women, latinos and individuals with disabilities
Passive diversity planning means _______.
reviewing policies and practices to ensure there is no discrimination
The major legal issue for HR strategy and planning is _______.
affirmative action plans
Affirmative action plans and programs originate from _______.
voluntary employer efforts, court-imposed remedies for discriminatory practices and consent agreements
To have a high probability of being acceptable in the eyes of the Supreme Court, an organization’s AAP should _________.
not necessarily interfere with the job status of non-minority and male employees
Advantages of a core workforce include ______________.
stability, continuity, and predictability, a sense of commitment and shared purpose toward the organization’s purpose and an organization can directly control how it acquires its workforce
Which of the following are advantages of external staffing?
bringing in employees with new KSAOs
Which of the following services is provided by staffing firms?
Advance screening of job candidates and They may provide on-site managers to help with training
A(n) ______ provides specific task and project assistance to the organization, such as maintenance, bookkeeping, advertising, programming, and consulting, with payment contingent on completion of the project (rather than time worked or methods of completing the task).
independent contractor
Firms offshore work because ______________.
wages are often lower overseas and there is a growing pool of highly qualified workers overseas
In recent years there has been an increase in the number of _________ in the workforce.
women, latinos and individuals with disabilities
Passive diversity planning means _______.
reviewing policies and practices to ensure there is no discrimination
The major legal issue for HR strategy and planning is _______.
affirmative action plans
Affirmative action plans and programs originate from _______.
voluntary employer efforts, court-imposed remedies for discriminatory practices and consent agreements
To have a high probability of being acceptable in the eyes of the Supreme Court, an organization’s AAP should _________.
not necessarily interfere with the job status of non-minority and male employees
Which of the following are elements of traditional job design?
formal organization charts, clear and precise job descriptions, well-defined mobility (promotion and transfer) paths
Which of the following is an advantage of using an external recruiting agency?
it is useful for companies too small to have dedicated recruiters
Which of the following are advantages of centralized recruitment?
duplications of effort are reduced
Which of the following are components of a well-developed recruiting requisition?
quantity of labor to be hired, affirmative action compliance methods and list of selection methods to be used
Which of the following is not one of the major areas written into recruiting budgets?
costs of signing bonuses
A recruiting requisition is ________________________.
a formal document that authorizes the filling of a job opening
Which of the following is not one of the major areas written into recruiting budgets?
costs of signing bonuses
A recruiting requisition is ________________________.
a formal document that authorizes the filling of a job opening
14.Which of the following is an advantage of using an external recruiting agency?
B.it is useful for companies too small to have dedicated recruiters
15.Which of the following are advantages of centralized recruitment?
A.duplications of effort are reduced
16.Which of the following are components of a well-developed recruiting requisition?
quantity of labor to be hired; affirmative action compliance methods & list of selection methods to be used
17.Which of the following is not one of the major areas written into recruiting budgets?
B.costs of signing bonuses
18.A recruiting requisition is ________________________.
A.a formal document that authorizes the filling of a job opening
19.A recruitment guide is ________________________.
C.a document that details the process to be followed to attract applicants to a job
20.Research suggests that an ideal recruiter has ________________________.
strong interpersonal skills; knowledge about the organization extensive knowledge about the job
40.What are the two major strategies for recruiting?
C.open or targeted
41.Which of the following is an advantage of open recruiting?
A.it is seen as more fair & it ensures a diverse set of applicants
42.Which of the following is an advantage of targeted recruiting?
C.a small set of qualified applicants is considered
43.Which situation most strongly calls for open recruitment?
C.pre-entry qualifications are not important
44.Which situation most strongly calls for targeted recruitment?
B.specific skill sets are needed
45.The recruitment approach in which an organization identifies those segments of the labor market where qualified candidates are likely to be is called __________.
A.targeted recruitment
46.Which of the following is an appropriate use of targeted recruiting?
A.Using non-traditional sources to enhance minority hiring.
47.Which of the following are not components of a strong corporate recruiting website?
A.exciting flash graphics presentations of opportunities
48.A study of the best practices of the Web sites of 140 high-profile organizations indicates that one of the features of a high-impact Web site is ____________.
a job cart function; personal search engines &self-assessment inventories
49.Which of the following statements about using employee referrals is true?
B.those recruited by referrals are more qualified and committed
50.Which of the following statements is true?
many employment sites now offer the ability to create and approve job requisitions online; employment sites sometimes cross-list jobs with local newspapers & at any given time there are millions of résumés available on employment websites
51.College placement offices are used because ___________.
D.campus recruiting efforts are seen as more credible than websites or bulletin boards
52.The more broadly transmitted the organization’s search methods; the more likely that a ____________ will be attracted to apply.
D.large number of individuals
53.A high cost method of search may be worth the cost to the organization if ___________.
B.KSAOs are in short supply
54.Evidence suggests that; overall; ___________ are likely to attract employees who have a better understanding of the organization and its culture.
A.referrals and job trials
70.A realistic job preview is _________________________.
A.a description of a job that integrates both positive and negative information
71.Research suggests __________ realistic job previews lead to reduce turnover most.
A.verbal
72.What is the main reason for taking a realistic job preview approach to developing a job communication message?
A.The approach aids applicants in self-selecting out of the organization.
73.Which method of recruiting is most effective at reducing turnover?
A.realistic
74.Which method of recruiting is most effective for tight labor markets and highly valued jobs?
D.branded
75.Which method of recruiting is designed to be used when an organization is seeking a specific set of KSAOs?
B.targeted
76.Which of the following statements regarding the development of recruiting strategies is false?
D.organizations need to be careful about over-promoting their brand because repetition of a message tends to decrease its persuasive appeal
77.Which communication medium refers to the informal information regarding an organization’s reputation; employment practices; and policies?
B.word of mouth
78.Which of the following communication media is marked by low richness and high cost; but also with an especially broad audience of potential applicants?
C.advertising
89.Applicants typically prefer recruiters who are ________________.
A.well-informed about the job
90.Recruiter characteristics are ________________.
C.not as important as the actual job characteristics
91.Recruiters should not _______________.
D.try to avoid showing too much interest in candidates
92.Research suggests that an ideal recruiter possesses ________________.
strong interpersonal skills; knowledge about the organization; jobs; and career issues & enthusiasm about the organization and job candidates
93.Which of the following statements is false?
C.increasing expenditures on recruiting increases yields
94.Which of the following techniques is helpful in improving diversity of applicants obtained through the recruiting process?
A.advertisements showing women and minorities in positions of leadership
104.Which of the following is not a good way to manage the recruiting process for optimal legal defense?
C.keep applications on hold or on file for future consideration
105.Which of the following is not required for someone to be considered an Internet applicant?
D.evidence of a visit to the physical employment site
106.Employers need to keep track of which of the following for adverse impact calculations?
B.all expressions of interest submitted through the Internet
107.Which of the following statements is true regarding the OFCCP’s regulation of affirmative action plans?
A.organizations may find that recruiting at secondary schools and community colleges with large minority enrollments may facilitate AAP success
108.OFCCP suggested actions for the recruitment process include _____________.
B.carefully select and train all personnel included in staffing
109.What is the legal status of video résumés?
D.they reveal protected class characteristics that may form the basis of a lawsuit
110.Which of the following does not have to be shown by a plaintiff in fraud and misrepresentation lawsuit related to recruiting?
C.that the plaintiff had perfect knowledge regarding the misrepresentation
111.Which of the following statements; when placed in a job message; would not be likely to create problems with the EEOC?
A.”Applicants must be enthusiastic and willing to take risks.”
- In most modern organizations, jobs are largely well established and change little over time
FALSE
- Job analysis is the process of studying jobs in order to gather, analyze, synthesize, and report information about job requirements
TRUE
- Competency based job analysis seeks to identify and describe the specific tasks, KSAOs, and job context for a particular job
FALSE
- The traditional way of designing a job is to identify and define its elements and tasks precisely and then incorporate them into a job description
TRUE
- Traditional job design is marked by formal organization charts, clear and precise job descriptions and specifications, and well-defined relationships between jobs
TRUE
- Changes to jobs have become so radical that the concept of “jobs” is no longer a useful concept in most organizations
FALSE
- Advances in technology are one of the major reasons for changes in jobs.
TRUE
- A job family is a grouping of positions that are similar in their tasks and task dimensions.
FALSE
- The smallest unit into which work can be divided without analyzing separate motions, movements, and mental processes is called an element.
TRUE
- Many small-business owners, general managers of start-up strategic business units, and top management members perform flexible jobs that are difficult to classify in traditional job analysis.
TRUE
- Measures of engagement reflect specific skills sets that are readily measured through job analysis.
FALSE
- Competency analysis is one way to incorporate engagement into job analysis.
TRUE
- A job description is best defined as _____.
B. the organization’s indicator of tasks required for each job
- Which of the following are elements of traditional job design?
A. formal organization charts B. clear and precise job descriptions C. well-defined mobility (promotion and transfer) paths
- Which of the following is a good definition of a job family?
B. A grouping of jobs, usually according to function
- Which of the following is a good definition of a job category?
C. A grouping of jobs according to generic job title or occupation
- Which of the following is a good definition of a job?
D. A grouping of positions that are similar in their tasks and task dimensions
- Which of the following is a good definition of a task?
A. A grouping of elements to form an identifiable work activity that is a logical and necessary step in the performance of a job
- Job requirements job analysis begins by identifying the specific tasks and the job context for a particular job.
TRUE
- Job analysis is a primary input and support activity for most functional staffing activities.
TRUE
- Team-based jobs lend themselves particularly well to job requirements job analysis.
FALSE
- The job requirements matrix is composed of two components: tasks and KSAOs.
TRUE
- Task statements are objectively written descriptions of the behaviors or work activities engaged in by employees in order to perform the job.
TRUE
- Task statements should reflect what the employee does, to whom or what the employee does what he or she does, what is produced, and what is used.
TRUE
- The KSAO portion of a job requirements matrix is often converted to a job description.
FALSE
- The term “task dimension” has the same basic meaning as “duties” or “areas of responsibility.”
TRUE
- Sentence analysis is used to develop competencies.
FALSE
- Tasks should be constructed using broadly applicable verbs, such as “supports,” “assists,” and “handles.”
FALSE
- It is possible to weight task dimensions using either relative time spent, percentage of time spent, or importance to overall job performance.
TRUE
- Knowledge is a body of information that can be directly applied to the performance of tasks.
TRUE
- Skills are underlying, enduring traits of a person that are useful for performing a range of tasks.
FALSE
- The work setting, attire, environmental conditions, and job hazards are associated with a job’s “context.”
TRUE
- Having two or more people independently develop task statements for a given job is a way to enhance content validity and assess reliability.
TRUE
- It is not really necessary, or even advisable, to have an incumbent or supervisor serve as job analysts.
FALSE
- Little research has been done to identify particular job-related skills.
FALSE
- In general, there are few, if any, sources of job information external to the organization where the job is performed.
FALSE
- Direct observation is a source for job information that is well suited for jobs with physical components, and relatively short cycle times for job tasks.
TRUE
- Using managers in a job analysis lends both expertise and neutrality to the process.
FALSE
- When a job analysis is likely to be legally, technically or politically scrutinized, it is best to use an internal person to do the analysis, rather than an external consultant.
FALSE
- In general, when rational or narrative job analysis methods are desired, it is advisable to rely on external consultants rather than internal staff.
FALSE
- A valuable use of O*NET is that it serves as a starting point in preparing knowledge statements.
TRUE
- Subject matter experts should not include previous jobholders, private consultants, and customers/clients.
FALSE
- The O*Net contains work context factors pertaining to interpersonal relationships and to structural job characteristics.
TRUE
- The term essential functions refers to the fundamental job duties of the employment position the individual with a disability holds or desires.
TRUE
- The Position Analysis Questionnaire measures extrinsic rewards such as pay, recognition, and promotional opportunities.
FALSE
- The best approach to job analysis for traditional or evolving jobs is _____.
A. job requirements job analysis
- Which of the following is NOT shown by an ideal task statement?
D. how each behavior is rewarded
- Which of the following is a component of a job requirements matrix?
C. Job context
- Sentence analysis technique is an aid to __________.
C. drafting precise task statements
- It can be accurately said of the “task dimension” component of a job description that it ___________.
B. is a grouping of similar tasks
- The job context component of a job description does not __________.
D. address pay scales
- The KSAO portion of a job requirements matrix may be _________.
A. converted to a job specification
- A body of information that can be directly applied to the performance of tasks is _______.
A. knowledge
- An underlying, enduring trait of the person that is useful for performing a range of tasks is _______.
C. abilities
- An observable competence for working with or applying information to perform a particular task is _______.
B. skills
- If tasks/dimensions are not weighted formally, then ________.
C. all tasks/dimensions are assessed as equally important by default
- The reason for having the manager participate as a job analyst is to ______.
B. verify statements are inclusive and accurate
- A limitation of observation as a means of gathering job information would be ______________.
D. mental processes are difficult to measure
- Which of the following is an advantage of using job task questionnaires?
A. Use with large numbers of people
- Which of the following is not a good reason for using an outside consultant for job analysis?
C. Knowledge of organization culture is critical
- Skills contained in O*Net include _____________.
D. all of the above
- Competency-based job analysis begins by identifying the specific tasks and the job context for a particular job.
FALSE
- Competencies are more specific than KSAOs.
FALSE
- Competency-based job analysis attempts to identify and describe job requirements in the form of general KSAOs that are required across a range of jobs.
TRUE
- Competencies contribute to job performance, but not to organizational success.
FALSE
- Competency based job analysis is a way to facilitate increased staffing flexibility.
TRUE
- A key strategic HR reason for performing competency modeling is to create awareness and understanding of the need for change in business.
TRUE
- Competency modeling is useful for improving workforce skills, but is generally of little use for replacement or succession planning.
FALSE
- Although competency modeling has its advantages relative to job requirements job analysis, it does require considerable time and effort to establish competency models in an organization.
TRUE
- The “Great Eight” competencies include leading, supporting, presenting, analyzing, creating, organizing, adapting, and performing.
TRUE
- The legal implications of analyzing competencies beyond job specific ones are well-known.
FALSE
- The best approach to job analysis for flexible jobs with changing requirements is _____.
B. competency based job analysis
- A competency is _____.
B. an underlying characteristic of an individual that contributes to job or role performance
- Unlike KSAOs, competencies usually describe characteristics ________.
C. that contribute to success across multiple jobs
- Competency modeling is useful for which of the following applications?
A. Identifying needs for replacement and succession planning B. Internal promotion processes C. Facilitating the HR planning process
- Competency modeling is strategically used to _________.
B. Enhance the skill level of the workforce
- Which of the following is not one of the “great eight” competencies?
A. Mechanical knowledge
- Pay, benefits, and promotions are typical intrinsic job rewards.
FALSE
- Intrinsic rewards are best characterized as “inherent in the nature of the job and experienced by the employee as an outgrowth of actually doing the job.”
TRUE
- The employee value proposition is the bundle or package of KSAOs that the employee provides to the organization.
FALSE
- Surveys and interviews with employees are a key way to gather information on job rewards preferences.
TRUE
- One advantage of intrinsic rewards is that they are basically costless.
FALSE
- Interviews and surveys of current employees on job rewards, no matter how comprehensive, miss several relevant groups of individuals.
TRUE
- Surveys of employees clearly suggest that intrinsic rewards are seen as more important for job satisfaction than extrinsic rewards.
FALSE
- Interviews are more personal than surveys, but the summary and analysis of interview data is more time consuming and difficult.
TRUE
- One way to assess the importance of rewards to employees is to examine the rewards that other organizations provide to their employees.
TRUE
- Which of the following is not an example of an extrinsic reward?
C. Autonomy
- It is critical than when employees are interviewed about their reward preferences, the content of the interviews is ____________.
B. kept confidential so employees can report honestly
- Which of the following HR outcomes arise from providing and using rewards?
A. applicant attraction B. employee performance C. employee retention
- What is the “employee value proposition?”
B. the organization’s package of rewards provided to employees
- Which of the following best represents the order of aspects important for job satisfaction identified in surveys, from most valued to least valued?
C. job security, benefits, opportunities to use skills and abilities, and financial stability
- When assessing appropriate rewards, organizations can use information from _____________.
A. surveys conducted by the Department of Labor B. surveys conducted by the Society for Human Resources Management C. internal organizational sources
- A work team is an interdependent collection of employees who share responsibility for achieving a specific goal.
TRUE
- Teams are seldom designed to absorb management functions that allow for self-management because they inherently produce excess groupthink.
FALSE
- The greater the task interdependence in a team, the greater the importance of KSAOs pertaining to interpersonal qualities and team self-management qualities.
TRUE
- Job specific KSAOs become largely irrelevant in team-based work.
FALSE
- An interdependent collection of employees who share responsibility for achieving a specific goal is called a _____.
C. work team
- Which of the following are unique properties of teams, from a staffing point of view?
B. KSAOs for teams involve job-spanning skills because members perform multiple roles
- The sample size used in job analysis is not relevant to legal defensibility.
FALSE
- Details regarding knowledge, skills, and abilities in a job description are important components of a legally defensible selection system.
TRUE
- If an employment discrimination case involves an organization’s defense of its selection procedures, the UGESP require the conduct of job analysis.
TRUE
- Although some have advocated for greater use of job analysis in legal cases, the courts currently recognize job titles as sufficiently detailed indicators of required characteristics of applicants.
FALSE
- Employment regulations give several specific techniques for using job analysis to identify essential job functions.
FALSE
- The EEOC has provided assistance to organizations for dealing with the issue of identifying essential job functions for the purpose of ADA compliance.
TRUE
- The ADA requires the performance of a job analysis to identify the essential functions of a job.
FALSE
- Which of the following could harm an organization’s legal defense in an EEO/AA case?
D. Emphasis mostly on secondary tasks
.ÿAs a result of rising recruiting; selection; training; and development costs; companies are increasingly looking externally to staff positions.ÿ
FALSE
.ÿHierarchical mobility paths make it very easy; from an administrative vantage point; to identify where to look for applicants in the organization.ÿ
TRUE
.ÿUnder a parallel track system; the job titles and salaries of technical specialists are treated as hierarchically arranged.ÿ
FALSE
.ÿAlternative mobility paths tend to be very difficult to administer.ÿ
TRUE
.ÿOne hallmark of hierarchical mobility paths is an emphasis on pay for skill development and learning.ÿ
FALSE
.ÿTo maintain employee motivation; alternative mobility paths may need to be supplemented with pay for skill development and counseling sessions.ÿ
TRUE
.ÿIt is probably best to avoid listing who is eligible for open positions in a mobility policy; because it will just lock the organization in.ÿ
FALSE
.ÿResearch suggests that employees really don’t care if mobility policies are well-spelled out; because they only care if they personally get promoted.ÿ
FALSE
.ÿIf only an external recruitment search is conducted; the morale of existing employees may be reduced when they feel that they have been passed over for a promotion.ÿ
TRUE
.ÿA major difference between internal and external recruitment is that external recruitment not only fills vacancies but also creates them.ÿ
FALSE
.ÿSome of the features of hierarchical mobility paths includeÿ
ÿthey are easier to administer; the prospect of promotions can motivate employees &they may not be useful in flat organizational structures
.ÿWhich of the following is true regarding mobility paths?ÿ
C.ÿAlternative mobility paths may move in any direction.
.ÿWhich of the following is a disadvantage of alternative mobility paths?ÿ
D.ÿthey often need to be supplemented with alternative reward systems to maintain motivation
.ÿA lattice mobility path is _________.ÿ
A.ÿcharacterized by upward; lateral; and downward movement
.ÿOrganizations have become interested in alternative mobility paths because ______________.ÿ
B.ÿthey allow employees to specialize in technical work or management work and advance within either
.ÿA well-defined mobility path should include all of the following except: ______________.ÿ
C.ÿencouragement for all individuals to apply
.ÿIn developing career path policies; a good approach for promotion would not include which of the following?ÿ
B.ÿReasons why external sources are preferred.
.ÿUnder a closed internal recruitment system; employees are not made aware of job vacancies.ÿ
TRUE
.ÿClosed internal recruitment systems are very efficient to administer.ÿ
TRUE
.ÿUnder a hybrid system; neither open nor close steps are implemented.ÿ
FALSE
.ÿClosed internal recruitment systems are an ideal choice if there are issues about perceived fairness and the organization want to make sure it isn’t missing out on hidden talent.ÿ
FALSE
.ÿOne problem with job postings is that employees may believe that someone has been selected before the job was posted and so will either not bother to apply or will believe the system is unfair.ÿ
TRUE
.ÿA job posting may be announced through a bulletin board; newsletter; e-mail; or intranet.ÿ
TRUE
.ÿProviding feedback to employees if they are not selected in a job posting system is a bad idea because it will just discourage them from responding in the future.ÿ
FALSE
.ÿThe first stage of developing a talent management system is identifying the KSAOs required for all jobs in the organization.ÿ
TRUE
.ÿMost managers report that talent management systems have greatly simplified their work lives.ÿ
FALSE
.ÿSelf-nomination is an especially important consideration in the internal recruitment of minorities and women.ÿ
TRUE
.ÿInternal temporary employees require more orientation to the organization than would external hires.ÿ
FALSE
.ÿSuccession planning techniques are important as the workforce increasingly approaches retirement.ÿ
TRUE
.ÿSurveys demonstrate that employees are more satisfied when their employers provide them with ample communication and opportunities for internal advancement.ÿ
TRUE
.ÿCareer development centers are a low cost way to increase employee interest in internal career paths.ÿ
FALSE
.ÿThe degree to which an organization utilizes its own internal information on candidate qualifications and job performance will determine how qualified the applicants will be.ÿ
TRUE
.ÿThere is a great deal of research on the effectiveness of internal recruiting sources; so best practices can guide choice of the methods for internal recruiting.ÿ
FALSE
.ÿUnder a closed internal recruitment system; which of the following is not likely to occur?ÿ
C.ÿmanagers have less influence over the ultimate decision
.ÿAn open system of internal recruitment can be expected to minimize ________.ÿ
C.ÿoverlooking talent
.ÿWhich of the following is true regarding closed internal recruitment systems?ÿ
C.ÿThey are not costly to implement.
.ÿWhich of the following is true regarding an open internal recruitment system?ÿ
Employees are made aware of all job openings; They use a job posting and job bidding system & They often lead to uncovering “hidden talent.”
.ÿJob postings influence the recruitment process by ________.ÿ
A.ÿclarifying requirements of the job
.ÿJob postings are effective internal recruitment tools because they ________.ÿ
B.ÿare efficient in matching employees to organizational needs
.ÿAn empirical study of the characteristics of a job posting system which lead to high user satisfaction found that _________ was(were) critical.ÿ
A.ÿthe adequacy of job descriptions; ÿthe adequacy of job notification procedures &treatment during the interview
.ÿKSAOs which are used in making advancement decisions are stored in _________.ÿ
C.ÿtalent management systems
.ÿWhich of the following statements regarding talent management systems is(are) true?ÿ
D.ÿtalent management systems require a user-friendly data base for effective use
.ÿA company’s internal e-mail and internet capabilities ________________.ÿ
A.ÿmake it easy and inexpensive to disseminate internal recruiting messages
.ÿWhich of the following statements regarding talent management systems is true?ÿ
C.ÿthey are increasingly integrated with all of an organization’s human resources information systems
.ÿWhy might an organization use internal temporary pools?ÿ
B.ÿto avoid paying agency fees to temporary help agencies
.ÿA ______________ provides employees with opportunities to fill out interest inventories; explore career options; and discuss plans with counselors.ÿ
D.ÿcareer development center
.ÿKey metrics for evaluating an internal staffing system include:ÿ
cost; quantitiy & quality
.ÿWhich of the following are important components of ensuring sufficient quality in an internal recruiting system?ÿ
B.ÿregular performance appraisals of all employees
.ÿWhich of the following is true of realistic previews in internal recruiting?ÿ
C.ÿthey are more necessary for newly created jobs or jobs in new locations
.ÿWhich of the following is true of recruiting messages in internal recruiting?ÿ
supervisors can describe mobility paths in detail to internal candidates; peers can give internal recruits a realistic idea of what happens in internal promotions and transfers & word of mouth among internal employees can lead to inaccurate information
.ÿFormal policies for promotion and other internal recruiting activities can enhance:ÿ
B.ÿprocedural justice
.ÿFrom a legal standpoint; it can be said that __________.ÿ
C.ÿpromotions based on subjective assessments of who is more senior are not likely to be supported in court
.ÿA bona fide seniority system is _________________.ÿ
B.ÿpermitted in most cases under EEOC law even if it results in adverse impact
.ÿThe combination of factors that tend to place women and minorities in fewer top management positions are collectively termed _________________.ÿ
D.ÿthe glass ceiling
.ÿWhich of the following have contributed to the Glass Ceiling?ÿ
B.ÿlack of outreach recruitment practices
- Measures are methods or techniques for describing and assessing attributes of objects that are of concern to us.
TRUE
- When developing measures, it is a good idea to give each rater some license to interpret the meaning of scores as fits the specific situation.
FALSE
- To achieve standardization the content of job application tests should be the same for all applicants.
TRUE
- Scoring keys for tests should be developed immediately after the test has been administered.
FALSE
- Most staffing measures can be best described as being on a ratio scale.
FALSE
- A rank ordering of five job candidates in terms of overall qualification for the job is an example of an ordinal scale.
TRUE
- Research shows that when an attribute is measured by both objective and subjective means, there is often relatively low agreement between scores from the two types of measures.
TRUE
- The standard deviation is a measure of the central tendency of a scale.
FALSE
- The most appropriate measure of central tendency for nominal scale data is the median.
FALSE
- Standard scores are also useful for determining how a person performed, in a relative sense, on two or more tests. This is helpful for comparing relative standing across several tests.
TRUE
- If an individual has a z-score of 2.0 on a performance test, this indicates this person’s score is twice as high as the average test score.
FALSE
- A correlation coefficient ranges from 0 to +1.
FALSE
- A correlation between two variables does not necessarily that one causes the other.
TRUE
- A standard level for statistical significance is p<.50.
FALSE
- With very large samples, it is possible for a fairly weak relationship to still be statistically significant.
TRUE
- Measurement standardization applies to measurement content, not the administration of measurements.
FALSE
- When numbers are assigned by category, this reflects an ordinal scale of measurement.
FALSE
- If scores are classified as “low”, “medium”, and high”, the scale of measurement is nominal.
FALSE
- Human body weight is an example of a variable measured on a ratio scale of measure.
TRUE
- Numerical employment interview ratings represent objective measures.
FALSE
- Performance appraisal ratings are subjective measures.
TRUE
- The research literature indicates a high correlation between subjective and objective measures of performance.
FALSE
- A correlation score of minus one between two sets of scores indicates an exceptionally low association or relationship between the two sets.
FALSE
- If the correlation coefficient between variables X and Y is .90, this means that the proportion of common variance shared by the two variables is ninety percent.
FALSE
- A correlation coefficient of 1.0 between variables X and Y indicates that there is a perfect linear relationship between these two variables.
TRUE
- The correlation coefficient does not measure the change in one variable caused by another variable.
TRUE
- While correlation is valuable as an indicator of the degree of association between variables, it is generally not used as a tool for prediction.
FALSE
- Which of the following is not part of the process of measurement?
B. assessing the attribute’s acceptability to applicants
- A scale in which a given attribute is categorized, and numbers are assigned to the categories, but there is no order or level implied among the categories.
A. nominal
- Rankings of the finishes of competitors in a foot race is an example of a(n) _______.
B. ordinal scale
- Length in inches is an example of a(n) _________.
A. ratio scale
- The most appropriate measure of central tendency for nominal data is the ______.
D. mode
- The variability of a measure is best captured by the _____________.
B. range and standard deviation
- The likelihood that a correlation exists in a population, based on knowledge of the actual value of r in a sample from that population is the ____________.
D. statistical significance
- Which of the following results represents statistically significance as it is commonly understood?
B. p < .05
- A z score of 3.0 for a job applicant’s score on an aptitude test indicates the applicant ______.
B. received a score 3 standard deviations above the mean score
- The correlation coefficient expresses _________.
C. strength of the relationship between two variables
- A complete lack of correlation between two variables is expressed by a correlation coefficient of _________
D. zero
- The larger the correlation coefficient, _________.
A. the greater the practical significance
