Final Flashcards
(300 cards)
1
Q
The combining form tympan/o means ____.
A
drum.
2
Q
The watery fluid in front of the lens is referred to as the ____.
A
aqueous humor.
3
Q
The conjunctiva refers to the ____.
A
clear mucous membrane lining the inner eyelids and anterior of the eye.
4
Q
When a physician records the results of an eye examination as PERRLA, it means that the patient’s eyes are ____.
A
normal.
5
Q
In this condition, the retina is not fully developed and the blood vessels can become leaky, causing irreversible blindness.
A
retinopathy of prematurity (ROP)
6
Q
What is diplopia?
A
double vision
7
Q
An inward turning of the eyes is referred to as ____, while an outward turning of the eyes is called ____. -amblyopia; diplopia
- diplopia; amblyopia
- exotropia; esotropia
- esotropia; exotropia
- amblyopia; hypertropia
A
esotropia; exotropia
8
Q
This progressive thinning of the cornea is most often seen in females and becomes evident in puberty.
A
keratoconus
9
Q
The farsightedness associated with aging is referred to as ____.
A
presbyopia.
10
Q
A cataract is the clouding of the ____.
A
crystalline lens.
11
Q
Loss of sight occurs with retinal detachment because ____.
A
the rods and cones no longer receive nourishment.
12
Q
____ is caused by damage to the photoreceptor cells in the area of the macula.
A
Macular degeneration
13
Q
Of the following practitioners related to the special senses, which is not a doctor (MD or OD)? -otolaryngologist
- optometrist
- ophthalmologist
- otorhinolaryngologist
- optician
A
optician
14
Q
Nearsightedness, or myopia, occurs when the eyeball is too ____.
A
long.
15
Q
____ is an inflammation of the lining of the eye and eyelid and can be caused by bacterial, viral, fungal, or parasitic organisms.
A
Conjunctivitis
16
Q
Keratitis is an infection of the ____.
A
cornea.
17
Q
A(n) ____ is an inflammatory cyst or granuloma of the meibomian gland.
A
chalazion
18
Q
What is leukocoria?
A
a white reflection from a mass in the eye
19
Q
Phacoemulsification uses ultrasonic waves to ____.
A
disintegrate cataracts.
20
Q
This test measures for intraocular pressure (IOP).
A
tonometry
21
Q
The visible portion of the external ear is called the ____.
A
auricle.
22
Q
The canal that leads from the auricle to the eardrum is called the ____.
A
external auditory meatus.
23
Q
The eardrum, or ____, separates the external ear from the middle ear.
A
tympanic membrane
24
Q
The area that contains the sebaceous glands of the eye is known as the ____.
A
lacrimal caruncle.
25
Which of the following is not part of the ossicular chain?
- cochlea
- incus
- malleus
- a and b
- stapes
cochlea
26
The structure of the inner ear is called the ____.
labyrinth.
27
The saclike structures contained within the vestibule are called the ____ and ____.
- endolymph; perilymph
- helix; incus
- malleus; meatus
- utricle; saccule
- round window; oval window
utricle; saccule
28
This part of the ear is considered the main organ of hearing.
cochlea
29
In the process of hearing, the ____ acts as a satellite dish that catches sound waves.
outer ear
30
The passageway leading from the middle ear to the nasopharynx is called the ____.
eustachian tube.
31
The incus is a bone of the middle ear that is shaped like a(n) ____.
anvil.
32
A child born without ears has this condition.
anotia
33
Ear pain is known by this term.
otalgia
34
A person wearing contact lenses would place the lens on this part of the eye.
cornea
35
A deliberate perforation of the eardrum is called a(n) ____.
myringotomy.
36
The hardening of the spongy bone surrounding the oval window that is often seen in seniors is called ____.
otosclerosis.
37
What is typanosclerosis?
hardening of the tympanic membrane
38
What is cholesteatoma?
a tumor-like mass of scaly epithelial tissue and cholesterol in the middle ear
39
Tinnitus is a ____.
ringing in the ears.
40
A(n) ____ is a medical instrument used to visualize the external ear and tympanic membrane.
otoscope
41
This surgical procedure involves the removal of one of the bones of the middle ear.
stapedectomy
42
This mushroom-shaped area near the tip of the tongue contains some of the more than 10,000 taste buds on the tongue.
fungiform
43
Each taste bud is made up of supporting cells and hair cells known as ____ receptors.
gustatory
44
Signals are transmitted along the olfactory nerve to the ____ regions in the temporal lobe of the brain.
rhinencephalon
45
The retina contains about 120 million ____, which are very sensitive to light and are responsible for night vision.
rods
46
The sense of touch includes ____, an awareness of the position of one's body parts in relation to the whole body.
proprioception
47
Photopic vision is vision in ____.
bright light.
48
This small area within the macula lutea at the back of the eye is the spot where visual acuity is the greatest.
fovea centralis
49
This combining form means tears.
lacrim/o
50
An ____ is a medical doctor (MD) who diagnoses and treats eye disorders.
- a, b, and c
- optician
- ophthalmologist
- a and b
- optometrist
ophthalmologist
51
The bluish color associated with decreased oxygen is called ____.
cyanosis.
52
Oxygen is converted into this waste product and expelled through expiration.
carbon dioxide
53
The ____ is the area between the vocal cords.
glottis
54
In the analogy of the bronchial tree, the bronchioles represent the ____.
branches.
55
As the bronchial tree branches out, it ends with the ____.
alveoli.
56
The average adult body has about ____ alveoli.
600 million
57
The superior portion of each lung is called the ____.
apex.
58
This thin, moist membrane covers the outer surfaces of the lungs and allows them to move smoothly against the ribs during respiration.
pleura
59
The intercostal muscles are attached to the ____.
ribs.
60
During this process, the high concentration of oxygen in the alveoli is exchanged for the low oxygen concentration in the capillaries of the lungs.
diffusion
61
The rib area is connoted by the combining form
pleur/o.
62
Which of the following structures of the respiratory system is not part of the upper respiratory tract?-nasopharynx
- diaphragm
- nasal cavity
- larynx
- oropharynx
diaphragm
63
This combining form relates to the nose.
rhin/o
64
This combining form refers to the windpipe.
trache/o
65
In the respiratory system, these hairlike structures help move out foreign substances.
cilia
66
The process of breathing out is known as exhalation or ____.
expiration.
67
The substance secreted into the alveoli to decrease surface tension is called ____.
surfactant.
68
____ sounds are the abnormal chest sounds heard through the stethoscope on auscultation.
Adventitious
69
____ are continuous chest sounds which are usually more prominent during expiration and cleared with coughing.
Rhonchi
70
Dyspnea is the medical term for ____.
difficulty breathing.
71
What is hypoxia?
the condition of having too little oxygen
72
During inspiration, air enters the nose through the ____, or nostrils.
nares
73
Difficulty in breathing when lying down is called ____.
orthopnea.
74
In utero, the ____ system is the only system that is non-functional.
respiratory
75
This condition is a major cause of death in premature infants who are born before surfactants are produced.
infant respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS)
76
The infant breathes through the nose rather than the mouth until about ____ of age.
three months
77
This condition causes cells to mesh rather than remain singular, and in infants and children can cause pneumonia.
respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
78
As children are exposed to ____ and experience the symptoms, they develop immunity.
upper respiratory infections (URIs)
79
This viral infection in children produces noisy and difficult respiration and a barklike cough.
croup
80
____ is often first diagnosed in childhood and may be caused by an allergy to the environment, food, or other substances.
Asthma
81
A common respiratory disease among seniors is ____, in which a loss of alveolar elasticity prevents movement of air from the air sacs.
emphysema
82
This contagious, opportunistic infection of the respiratory system was in decline in the United States until the outbreak of AIDS.
tuberculosis
83
The hairlike structures that line the nasal cavities are called ____.
cilia.
84
Lung cancer is also known as ____.
bronchogenic carcinoma.
85
____ is an inflammation of the lung tissue.
Pneumonia
86
An inflammation of one of the paranasal sinuses is referred to as ____.
sinusitis.
87
A(n) ____ is an x-ray procedure that uses a contrast medium to view the bronchial tree.
bronchogram
88
Bronchoscopy is an examination of the bronchi using ____.
an endoscope.
89
As it relates to pulmonary function tests, what does the abbreviation TV stand for?
tidal volume
90
What is a thoracotomy?
an incision made into the chest wall
91
____ are pharmacologic agents used to decrease fever.
Antipyretics
92
Antitussives are used to suppress ____.
coughs.
93
Which of the following brand names is not an asthma preparation?
- Beconase
- Proventil
- Atrovent
- Claritin
- Ventolin
Claritin
94
The upper respiratory tract includes ____ paranasal sinuses.
four
95
What abbreviation is used to denote a chest x-ray?
CXR
96
Which of these is not the name of a sinus?
- superior
- ethmoidal
- maxillary
- sphenoidal
- frontal
superior
97
The section of the pharynx known as the oropharynx is located behind the ____.
mouth.
98
By what common name is the larynx known?
voice box
99
The ____ is a cartilaginous structure that covers the larynx during swallowing.
epiglottis
100
What does a lipid risk panel measure?
- low-density lipoproteins
- triglycerides
- high-density lipoproteins
- All of the above
- serum cholesterol
All of the above(low-density lipoproteins, triglycerides, high-density lipoproteins, serum cholesterol)
101
Embolism is the term for ____.
an obstruction of a vessel by a clot.
102
Which of the following cardiac tests uses a nuclear scan to depict the workings of the heart?
- lipid risk panel
- MUGA scan
- echocardiogram
- angiogram
- echocardiogram
MUGA scan
103
In this procedure, a catheter with a balloon tip is inserted into an occluded vessel to open it up and allow blood to flow freely.
percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PCTA)
104
An endarterectomy involves the ____.
removal of the lining of artery that contains plaque.
105
Which of the following tests uses a radioactive substance to visualize the heart's action during physical activity?
- echocardiogram
- percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty
- angiogram
- thallium stress test
- balloon angioplasty
thallium stress test
106
The class of drugs known as antianginals are used to ____.
relieve the pain of acute angina.
107
This class of drug decreases fluid retention by promoting increased urinary output.
diuretics
108
What valve connects the right atrium and the right ventricle?
tricuspid
109
Hypolipidemics are drugs that ____.
decrease cholesterol level in the blood.
110
These structures attach the valves to the heart walls.
chordae tendineae
111
The two semilunar valves, the aortic and pulmonary, are ____.
- All of the above
- open at the same time.
- closed when the atrioventricular valves are open.
- closed at the same time.
- open when the atrioventricular valves are closed.
All of the above(opens at the same time, closed when the atrioventricular valves are open, closed at the same time, open when the atrioventricular valves are closed)
112
The cardiac cycle consists of a contraction, called the ____ followed by a relaxation phase called the ____.
- systole; diastole
- wax; wane
- pulse; lumen
- warp; weft
- pronation; supination
systole; diastole
113
Blood enters the right atrium through the ____.
superior and inferior venae cavae.
114
The outer membrane of the heart wall is called the ____.
pericardium.
115
After leaving the right atrium, blood is pumped into the ____.
right ventricle.
116
Blood flows from the liver into the ____ on its way to the heart.
inferior vena cava
117
The pulmonary veins carry blood from the ____ to the ____.
- lungs; left atrium
- lungs; right ventricle
- left ventricle; lungs
- left atrium; lungs
- lungs; left ventricle
lungs; left atrium
118
Which of the following is not part of the electrical conduction system of the heart?
- Bundle of His
- atrioventricular node
- apex
- Purkinje fibers
- sinoatrial node
apex
119
The arteries carry blood ____ the heart.
away from
120
Which of the following blood vessels is smallest in diameter?
- vena cava
- aorta
- venules
- veins
- arteries
venules
121
The passage in a blood vessel through which the blood flows is called the ____.
lumen.
122
In addition to moving blood around the body for nutrient and gas exchange, the arteries and arterioles also help maintain the body's ____.
blood pressure.
123
High blood pressure is known by this medical term.
hypertension
124
The top number in a blood pressure reading is the ____.
systolic pressure
125
What is the myocardium?
the thick layer muscle tissue between the pericardium and the endocardium
126
The combining form angi/o refers to ____.
vessels.
127
To what does the combining form phleb/o refer?
vein
128
This combining form means relating to the pulse.
sphygm/o
129
This membrane forms the inner layer of the pericardium.
epicardium
130
The ____ is the dilation of an artery from the contraction of the heart causing blood to be sent into the vessel.
pulse
131
What is the largest vein in the body?
vena cava
132
The smallest vessels are called the ____.
capillaries.
133
When a physician auscultates the heart, he or she is ____.
listening to the sound of the heart.
134
The foramen ovale is found in the ____.
atrial septum of the fetal heart.
135
What happens to the fetal shunts after birth?
they close within about 15 hours after birth.
136
The left half of the heart pumps oxygen-____ blood to the ____.
- rich; body's tissues
- depleted; brain
- depleted; lungs
- rich; lungs
- depleted; body's tissues
rich; body's tissues
137
The newborn's heart rate may range from ____ to ____ beats per minute.
- 200;400
- 20;40
- 100; 180
- 150;300
- 20;60
100; 180
138
This type of congenital heart defect involves a severe narrowing of the descending portion of the aorta.
coarctation of the aorta
139
Which of the following types of heart valve defect features a mitral valve that does not open properly because of calcification?
- mitral stenosis
- aortic stenosis
- pulmonic stenosis
- tricuspid regurgitation
- mitral regurgitation
mitral stenosis
140
Innocent or functional ____ are not uncommon in childhood and have no health significance.
murmurs
141
During pregnancy, a woman's blood volume increases by about ____ percent.
40
142
Myocardial infarction is known by what common name?
heart attack
143
From age 20 to age 80, an individual's blood pressure normally ____.
increases by about 25 percent.
144
Coronary artery disease is sometimes called ____.
hardening of the arteries.
145
An enlargement of the heart is referred to as ____.
cardiomegaly.
146
This term is used to refer to very rapid unsynchronized heartbeats in which the heart muscle fibers are beating at different times.
fibrillation
147
The upper chambers of the heart are called the ____.
atria.
148
What is an aneurysm?
a balloonlike swelling or outpouching of an artery
149
This cardiac test uses ultrasound to visualize the valves and flow of blood through the heart.
echocardiogram
150
The alimentary canal is another name for the ____.
gastrointestinal tract
151
Ducts in the middle of the ____ empty digestive juices from the pancreas and bile from the liver.
duodenum
152
Where is the ileocecal valve located?
between the small intestine and large intestine
153
How long does it take material to pass through the large intestine?
1 to 5 days
154
The digestive process breaks proteins down into ____.
amino acids
155
____ are broken down in the small intestine by amylase and other enzymes.
Carbohydrates
156
The ____ is a serous membrane that lines the abdominal cavity.
peritoneum
157
The combining form -ase means ____.
enzyme
158
This combining form is used to refer to the gums.
gingiv/o
159
This combining form means tongue.
gloss/o
160
The ____ is a bony socket in which the root of each tooth sits.
alveolus
161
What is the function of the uvula?
prevents food from entering the nasal cavity
162
Amylase is secreted by the ____.
pancreas
163
From where is gastric juice secreted?
stomach
164
The ____ is a fan-shaped fold of the peritoneum that covers most of the small intestine.
mesentery
165
____ is the action of the intestine characterized by alternating contraction and relaxation.
Peristalsis
166
____ are folds in the lining of the stomach.
Rugae
167
Premature infants are at risk for this disorder, which is characterized by tissue death in the ileum and colon.
neonatal necrotizing enterocolitis
168
This condition in the infant can be more evident when he or she cries.
umbilical hernia
169
A newborn's first stool is called the ____.
meconium
170
This condition causes projectile vomiting and appears at about six weeks of age, most commonly in males.
pyloric stenosis
171
Crohn's disease is a disease of the gastrointestinal system marked by ____.
- weight loss.
- diarrhea.
- All of the above
- cramps.
- abdominal pain.
All of the above(weight loss, diarrhea, cramps, abdominal pain)
172
About how much saliva is produced by an adult human's saliva glands each day?
one liter
173
One of the most common gastrointestinal disorders affecting adults is ____, which is a hole in the mucosa of the alimentary canal.
an ulcer
174
Diverticula are ____ that develop in the GI tract.
pouches
175
A hiatal hernia is a hernia of the ____ and frequently occurs in older adults.
stomach
176
Lactose intolerance is the inability to properly digest a(n) ____ found in diary products.
sugar
177
This condition is an inflammation of the gall bladder after fatty foods are ingested.
cholecystitis
178
In this condition, the tongue is not freely moveable.
ankyloglossia
179
____ is the formation of gallstones in the gallbladder or bile ducts.
Cholelithiasis
180
____ is the absence of peristalsis, causing obstruction in the intestine.
Ileus
181
Jaundice is a yellowish color of the skin and mucous membranes because of increased ____ in the blood.
bile pigment
182
____ is the backward flow of stomach contents.
Reflux
183
What are the parotids, submandibulars, and the sublinguals?
salivary glands
184
A(n) ____ is an abnormal opening between the trachea and the esophagus.
tracheoesophageal fistula
185
The procedure in which gallstones are crushed and removed is called ____.
lithotripsy
186
What is cholangiography?
- None of the above
- an endoscopic visualization of the rectum and anal canal
- an x-ray of the gallbladder and its ducts
- a test to determine the functioning of the liver
- the removal of the gallbladder
an x-ray of the gallbladder and its ducts
187
The general term for the procedure to view the various organs of the GI tract using a flexible tube is ____.
endoscopy
188
A gastrectomy is the removal of part of the ____.
stomach
189
The sigmoidoscopy is the endoscopic examination of the sigmoid region of the ____.
colon
190
The brand name drugs Maalox and Mylanta fall into this category of drugs.
- appetite suppressants
- antidiarrheals
- antacids and antiflatulents
- laxatives
- antiemetics
antacids and antiflatulents
191
The drugs known as histamine (H2) receptor antagonists are used to treat ____.
ulcers
192
Which of the following drug brands is used to replace a pancreatic digestive enzyme?
- Maalox
- Dulcolax
- Lactaid
- Pepcid
- Zantac
Lactaid
193
This region of the abdomen is above the pubic area and below the umbilicus.
hypogastric
194
After food passes through the esophagus, it enters the ____.
stomach
195
This medical abbreviation means before meals.
- ULQ
- BM
- a.c.
- PP
- IVC
a.c.
196
The cardiac sphincter prevents food from moving from the ____ to the ____.
- stomach; large intestine
- stomach; esophagus
- larynx; pharynx
- esophagus; pharynx
- large intestine; small intestine
stomach; esophagus
197
What is chyme?
the semisolid mixture of food produce by the digestive process of the stomach
198
About how long is an adult's small intestine?
20 feet
199
Bicarbonate, the alkaline substance that neutralizes hydrochloric acid in the gastric juice, is secreted from the ____.
pancreas
200
Sperm develop within the walls of the ____.
seminiferous tubules
201
The spongy tissues of the shaft fill with ____ during arousal, causing the penis to become erect.
blood
202
The function of the sperm's tail is to ____.
- store the genetic material that will combine with the ovum.
- propel the sperm during its journey.
- puncture the ovum.
- All of the above
- manufacture energy for the sperm's journey.
propel the sperm during its journey
203
The ductus deferens is also known as the ____.
vas deferens
204
About 60 percent of the volume of semen is created by the ____.
seminal vesicles
205
The seminal vesicles join to form the ____.
ejaculatory duct
206
The prostate secretes a(n) ____ that ____ the sperm.
- lipid; nourishes
- milky fluid; aids the mobility of
- pH-balanced fluid; preserves
- enzyme; activates
- sugar; nourishes
milky fluid; aids the mobility of
207
The bulbourethral glands are also known as the ____ glands.
Cowper's
208
The purpose of the Cowper's glands is to ____.
lubricate the urethra
209
Which of the following sequences correctly identifies the route sperm take from their spot of creation to the location where they are stored?
- testes to vas deferens to prostate gland
- vas deferens to seminal vesicles to prostate gland
- epididymis to vas deferens to seminal vesicles
- testes to seminiferous tubules to epididymis
- prostate gland to bulbourethral glands to urethra
testes to seminiferous tubules to epididymis
210
When a sperm and an ovum meet and join, the product is a ____.
zygote
211
This combining form means male or masculine.
andr/o
212
This combining form means testicle.
orchid/o
213
Male and female sex cells are called ____.
gametes
214
The testes develop in the ____ of the fetus.
abdominal cavity
215
The singular of ova is ____.
ovum
216
The size of the testes grow only slightly from birth through childhood, but begin to increase in size
at the onset of puberty
217
Male sexual development is completed in the span of about ____ years.
three to five
218
Around what age does sperm production decrease?
40
219
What does circumcision remove?
prepuce
220
What is epispadias?
an abnormality in which the urethral opening is on the dorsum of the penis
221
The congenital abnormality in which the testicles are absent is referred to as ____.
anorchism
222
The external organs of the reproductive system are called ____.
genitalia
223
Hermaphroditism is a congenital abnormality characterized by ____.
the presence of both ovarian and testicular tissue
224
Polyorchism is a congenital abnormality marked by the ____.
presence of more than two testicles
225
This condition of early childhood is marked by varicose veins in the spermatic cord which can cause the affected testicle to be smaller.
varicocele
226
This serious condition occurs in late childhood and is caused by an incomplete or faulty attachment of the testis to the scrotum wall.
testicular torsion
227
This condition is often associated with sickle cell anemia, which causes a blockage of blood flow from the penis.
priapism
228
Benign prostatic hyperplasia can cause ____.
- frequent urination.
- All of the above
- painful urination
- a squeezing of the urethra.
- difficult urination.
All of the above(frequent urination, painful urination, a squeezing of the urethra, difficult urination)
229
The inability to have and/or maintain an erection is known by two names: erectile dysfunction and ____.
impotence
230
____ is the inability to produce sperm.
Aspermatogenesis
231
What is aspermia?
- the inability to produce an erection
- a, b, and c
- the inability to produce sperm
- the inability to produce semen
- a and b
a, b, and c(the inability to produce an erection, sperm, and semen)
232
A decreased amount of sperm in the ejaculate is called ____.
oligospermia
233
The pouch-like sac containing the testes is called the ____.
scrotum
234
Orchitis is an inflammation of the ____.
testis
235
Prostatitis is a(n) ____ of the prostate gland.
inflammation
236
The blood test known as PSA is used to help diagnose ____.
cancer of the prostate
237
What is accomplished with semen analysis?
- Determination of the presence of prostate-specific antigen
- Evaluation of sperm viability
- a, b, and c
- Count of the amount of sperm ejaculated
- a and b
a and b(evaluation of sperm viability, count of the amount of sperm ejaculated)
238
An epididymotomy is usually performed to ____.
to drain fluid or pus resulting from epididymitis
239
Orchiectomy is the surgical ____.
removal of one or both testicles
240
In a vasectomy, the ____ is surgically removed.
vas deferens
241
The surgical removal of the seminal vesicle is called a ____.
vesiculectomy
242
Which of the following brand name is not used as a therapy for erectile dysfunction?
- Levitra
- Viagra
- Muse Pellet
- Caverject Injection
- AndroGel
AndroGel
243
Which of the following abbreviations stands for a surgical procedure that is preformed through the urethral opening?
- STD
- TURP
- PSA
- BPH
- DRE
TURP
244
What hormone is secreted by the seminiferous tubules?
testosterone
245
Which of the following brand names is used as testosterone replacement hormone?
- Testoderm
- Testred
- AndroGel
- All of the above
- Androderm
All of the above(Testoderm, Testred, AndroGel, Androderm
246
Medical descriptions of the penis assume an orientation in the ____ state, thus putting the ventral side ____ the body and the dorsal side facing ____.
- flaccid; next to; outward
- flaccid; away from; inward
- erect; toward; outward
- erect; away from; inward
- flaccid; toward; outward
erect; away from; inward
247
The retractable, loose-fitting skin covering the glans penis is called the ____.
foreskin
248
The foreskin can also be referred to as the ____.
prepuce
249
The sperm's mitochondria are located within the ____.
midpiece
250
A Pap smear screens for ____.
cervical cancer
251
Gravida is the medical term for ____.
pregnancy
252
The term used to indicate the number of times a woman has given birth is ____.
para
253
Acute salpingitis is the inflammation and infection of the ____.
fallopian tubes
254
____ are firm, mobile, painless nodules in the uterine wall.
Fibroids
255
Which of the following is not a characteristic of menopause?
- decreased fat on the mons pubis
- vagina becomes shorter and narrower
- uterus shrinks in size
- decreased pubic hair
- ovaries increase production of estrogen
ovaries increase production of estrogen
256
Even though they play no direct role in reproduction, the ____ are considered part of the female reproductive system.
breasts
257
Uterine prolapse is a condition associated with menopause in which the uterus
protrudes into the vagina
258
Cystocele is a condition associated with menopause in which the ____.
bladder protrudes into the vagina
259
Pelvic inflammatory disease is a condition in which the pelvic cavity is inflamed, usually as the result of a(n) ____.
infection
260
What is a rectocele?
a prolapse of the rectum through the vagina
261
The most common procedure associated with the female reproductive system is ____, which is performed to obtain endometrial or endocervical tissue for cytologic examination.
dilation and curettage
262
A hysterectomy is the surgical removal of the ____.
uterus
263
A colposcopy is the examination of the ____ using an endoscope.
cervix
264
Which of the following drug brands is not a contraceptive?
- Ortho Evra
- Depo-Provera
- Ortho-Cyclen
- Pergonal
- Ortho-Novum 1/50
Pergonal
265
The drug brands Clomid and Pergonal are used as ____.
fertility agents
266
What is the medical abbreviation used to indicate gonorrhea?
- PID
- BTL
- GYN
- GC
- PMP
GC
267
The ____ is the pad of fatty tissue that lies over the bone on the lower portion of the pelvis.
mons pubis
268
Of the following abbreviations associated with the female reproductive system, which one does not refer to a procedure?
- VH
- TAH
- D&C
- GYN
- TAH/BSO
GYN
269
This structure of the female external genitalia is translated to mean large lips.
labia majora
270
This erectile tissue lies just behind the anterior juncture of the labia minora.
clitoris
271
The area between the vaginal opening and the anus is called the ____.
perineum
272
What is oogenesis?
the production of ova
273
Obstetrics is the medical specialty concerned with ____.
pregnancy and the delivery of a baby
274
The ____ is (are) the female gonad(s).
ovaries
275
The fingerlike projections at the end of the fallopian tubes are called ____.
fimbriae
276
The uterus is normally about the size of a ____.
pear
277
The main portion of the uterus is called the ____.
body or corpus
278
The structures within the breast that hold the milk are called the ____.
lactiferous sinuses
279
The breasts produce milk in response to ____.
- a, b, and c
- the stimulation of the infant's sucking.
- a and b
- established infant feeding times.
- hormonal secretions.
a and b(the stimulation of the infant's sucking, hormonal secretions)
280
Females are born with about ____ ovarian follicles.
one million
281
This hormone is secreted from an oocyte when it matures.
estrogen
282
As a girl grows to puberty, about ____ follicles remain.
400,000
283
This event begins the process of ovulation.
the follicle breaks open and releases the ovum
284
The study and treatment of the newborn infant, especially the premature infant, is called ____.
neonatology
285
After an ovarian follicle has released its ovum, it shrinks to become the yellowish-colored ____.
corpus luteum
286
Which of the following is not one of the four phases of the menstrual cycle?
- ovulation
- gestation
- proliferative phase
- menses
- secretory phase
gestation
287
Ovulation occurs over days ____ of a 28-day menstrual cycle.
14-15
288
The pigmented area surrounding the nipple of the breast is called the ____.
areola
289
When a pregnancy does not occur, the corpus luteum shrinks and becomes a whitish structure called the ____.
corpus albicans
290
A female's first menstrual cycle is referred to as her ____.
menarche
291
What is the myometrium?
the muscular wall of the uterus
292
Part of the examination of the female reproductive system usually involves the examiner teaching the patient how to perform a ____.
- cervical palpation.
- pap smear.
- All of the above
- uterine palpation.
- breast self examination.
breast self examination
293
The instrument inserted into the vaginal opening to allow visualization and palpation during an examination is called a ____.
speculum
294
The absence of the cervical opening is a congenital anomaly known as cervical ____.
atresia
295
Which of the following structures is not part of the female reproductive system?
- ovaries
- cervix
- uterus
- urethra
- fallopian tubes
urethra
296
The beginning of breast development during female puberty is called ____.
thelarche
297
What is hypermenorrhea?
long or excessive bleeding during menstruation
298
Painful menstruation is referred to as ____.
menorrhalgia
299
Scanty menstrual flow is referred to as ____.
oligomenorrhea
300
Gas exchange takes place in this part of the bronchial tree.
alveoli
