Midterm Flashcards
(259 cards)
1
Q
Who did the formal practice of medicine begin with?
A
Greeks and Romans
2
Q
What combining form refers to blood?
A
hemat/o
3
Q
What are medical terms composed of?
A
combining forms, prefixes, and suffixes
4
Q
What is a suffix?
A
An ending that modifies the meaning of a root word
5
Q
Aden/o is an example of what?
A
A combining form
6
Q
What is the meaning of the suffix –trophy?
A
Development
7
Q
What is the meaning of the prefix ecto- ?
A
Outside
8
Q
What is the meaning of the prefix trans- ?
A
Across or through
9
Q
What prefix means “slow”?
A
Brady-
10
Q
What prefix means “backward” or “behind”?
A
Retro-
11
Q
What prefix means “bad”?
A
Mal-
12
Q
What combining form means “bone”?
A
Oste/o
13
Q
An endocrinologist is ____?
A
someone who specializes in studying hormonal problems
14
Q
What is a macrocyte?
A
A very large cell
15
Q
What is an osteoma?
A
A type of blood cell
16
Q
What combining form refers to the kidneys?
A
Nephr/o
17
Q
What is an electrocardiogram?
A
A record of electrical activity in the heart
18
Q
What is a tracheotomy?
A
An incision of the trachea
19
Q
What suffix means “formation”?
A
-form
20
Q
What prefix means “without”?
A
Semi-
21
Q
What suffix means pain?
A
-stasis
22
Q
Who wrote the first code of ethics for physicians?
A
Hippocrates
23
Q
What body system does the field of orthopedics deal with?
A
Musculoskeletal
24
Q
Which of the following organs is not considered a visceral organ?
- skin
- kidneys
- liver
- stomach
- heart
A
Skin
25
Which pair of directional terms share the same meaning?
- inferior and caudal
- proximal and medial
- lateral and dorsal
- superior and ventral
- anterior and dorsal
Inferior and caudal
26
What is cytology?
The study of cells
27
How are the patient's arms positioned in the anatomical position?
At the sides with the palms facing forward
28
Which of the following pairs of directional terms have opposite meanings?
- anterior and lateral
- inferior and posterior
- superior and posterior
- posterior and medial
- proximal and distal
Proximal and distal
29
What does lateral mean?
Toward the side of the body or structure
30
Near the surface.
Superficial
31
Visceral.
Covering the surface of an inner organ
32
Which of the following body positions might be used for an examination of the posterior body surfaces?
- Trendelenburg
- prone
- dorsal recumbent
- lithotomy
- supine
Prone
33
Which of the following body positions does not require the patient to lie on his or her back?
- modified Trendelenburg
- supine
- dorsal recumbent
- Trendelenburg
- Sims'
Sims
34
What body positions may be used during child birth?
Dorsal recumbent and lithotomy
35
Fowler's position is most similar to what other body position?
Sitting
36
Which pair of direction plane terms has the same meaning?
Transverse and horizontal
37
What is the bending of a joint referred to as?
Supination
38
Which pair of movement terms do not have opposite meanings?
- dorsiflexion and plantar flexion
- circumduction and eversion
- supination and pronation
- flexion and extension
- abduction and adduction
Circumduction and eversion
39
Which pair of terms refers specifically to the movement of the foot?
- supination and pronation
- dorsiflexion and plantar flexion
- flexion and extension
- eversion and inversion
- circumduction and eversion
Dorsiflexion and plantar flexion
40
What is it called when you turn the palm of your hand upward?
Supinating
41
Which abdominopelvic region is in the lower middle position, under the navel?
- right lumbar
- epigastric
- hypogastric
- left lumbar
- umbilical
Hypogastric
42
Which abdominopelvic region is in the upper right position, beneath the ribs?
- umbilical
- right hypochondriac
- right inguinal
- epigastric
- right lumbar
Right hypochondriac
43
Which of the following abdominopelvic regions is in the uppermost position?
- epigastric
- umbilical
- left inguinal
- hypogastric
- right lumbar
Epigastric
44
Which two spinal divisions contain fused vertebrae?
- coccygeal and cervical
- sacral and coccygeal
- sacral and thoracic
- thoracic and lumbar
- cervical and thoracic
Sacral and coccygeal
45
Microscopic study of tissues.
Histology
46
The lumbar spinal division corresponds to which region of the back?
Loin
47
The buccal body region refers to the what area?
Cheek
48
Which body region term is used for the arm?
Brachial
49
If you are kicked in the shin, what type of injury might you sustain?
Crural
50
Another term for sonography is?
Ultrasound
51
This medical imaging technique uses sensitized film to capture the energy waves generated by a cathode ray tube.
X-rays
52
Which imaging technique was used in shoe stores from the 1930s through the 1950s to assess how well shoes fit?
Fluoroscopy
53
Computed tomography uses computerized interpretation of what to produce images?
X-rays
54
An image on x-ray film is referred to as what?
Radiogram
55
Which term refers to x-rays of the spinal cord?
Myelography
56
What type of tissue is found throughout the body and covers internal and external surfaces?
Epithelial tissue
57
The surgical removal of a body part is referred to as what?
Resection
58
The instrument used to separate or hold tissues apart during surgery is called what?
Retractor
59
In a prescription, the abbreviation p.o. means what?
By mouth
60
Which unit of drug measurement belongs to the apothecary system rather than the metric system?
Dram
61
What abbreviation is used to indicate immediately?
Stat
62
In a subcutaneous injection, where is the drug injected?
Just beneath the skin
63
The pharynx, larynx, trachea, and bronchial tubes are major structures in the ____ system.
Respiratory
64
What is the purpose of a scratch test?
To determine the patients particular allergy
65
A surgical procedure removes a cancer layer by layer and tests each layer before removing the next.
Mohs technique
66
For what is the surgical procedure known as debriding used?
Removing eschar from a burn victim
67
What is hyaluronic acid?
A natural sugar molecule
68
Which topical cosmetic procedure uses glycolic acid or phenol to create smoother skin?
Chemical peels
69
According to the rule of nines, a burn covering a person's chest and abdomen would account for this percentage of the body.
18%
70
Where are apocrine sweat glands found?
Armpits and genital areas
71
Which of the following characteristics is not associated with third degree burns?
- skin grafts are usually required
- minimal fluid loss
- complete destruction of the dermis
- tissue death extends into subcutaneous layer
- complete destruction of the epidermis
Minimal fluid loss
72
The small tube-like structures within which hair is formed are called ____.
Follicles
73
What is the term for hair's growing phase?
Anagen
74
The highly vascular epithelial cells beneath fingernails and toenails are referred to as the ____.
Nail bed
75
Skin, hair, and nails are part of the ____ system.
Integumentary
76
Where are the new keratinized cells of the nail produced?
Nail root
77
The ____ portion of the skin protects against pathogenic and chemical entry into the body.
Stratum corneum
78
How does the skin function in temperature regulation?
Sweat glands help release heat, subcutaneous insulation stores heat, the epidermis reflects more or less heat based in body temperature
79
From the combining form contained in the word hidrosis, you know its meaning has something to do with the ____.
Sweat glands
80
In addition to derm/o and dermat/o, this combining form also means skin.
Cutane/o
81
Product of the sebaceous glands.
Sebum
82
Medical term for a freckle.
Ephelis
83
The term apocrine means relating to the ____.
Sweat glands
84
The medical term for a mole or birthmark is ____.
Nevus
85
The protective layer of moist, white, cheese-like substance covering the newborn is called the ____.
Vernix caseosa
86
The medical specialty concerned with the integumentary system is ____.
Dermatology
87
What is lanugo?
The fine hair on a newborn
88
____ is the term for the bluish color observed around the lips, hands, fingernails, feet, and toenails of some newborns.
Acrocyanosis
89
Which of the following conditions is not one change associated with pregnancy?
- striae
- vascular spiders
- alopecia
- linea nigra
- chloasma
Alopecia
90
The small, punctate, slightly raised bright red dots that appear on the trunk during middle age are called ____.
Cherry angiomas
91
By what common name are senile lentigines known?
Liver spots
92
Ringworm is caused by a ____.
Fungus
93
One of the most common disorders of the skin is ____, an inflammation of the skin that may be caused by contact with an allergen.
Dermatisis
94
What is the medical term for cradle cap?
Seborrheic dermatitis
95
The majority of skin cancers are
Basal cell carcinomas
96
A raised, erythematous, irregularly shaped area that is transient (as exemplified by the allergic reaction to a mosquito bite) is called a
Wheal
97
What type of skin lesion is associated with both impetigo and acne?
Pustule
98
This type of skin lesion is a round, flat, pigmented area and is exemplified by measles and freckles.
Macule
99
This secondary skin lesion is connective tissue that remains after a skin lesion has healed.
Scar
100
The secondary skin lesion known as a fissure is a
linear crack that extends into the dermis
101
This term is used to describe reddened abrasions, usually from itching.
Excoriation
102
What is hirsutism?
Excessive hair growth
103
In which racial/ethnic group would you not find Mongolian spots?
Caucasians
104
____ is an inflammation of the skin caused by an allergic response.
Atopic dermatitis
105
New skin cells are formed in the ____.
Stratum germinativum
106
This is an orange pigment transported via the blood that results in a change in skin color.
Carotonemia
107
What is keratosis?
A lesion formed form an overgrowth of the horny layer of skin
108
This term refers to the overactivity of the sebaceous glands.
Seborrhea
109
This diagnostic procedure involves removing a sample of affected tissue and examining it under the microscope.
Biopsy
110
What is the function of the articular cartilage found on the epiphyses of long bones?
To cushion the joint where two bones meet
111
The existence of this feature in the long bones indicates that bone growth is complete.
Epiphyseal line
112
Which of the following statements regarding cartilage is not true?
- It lacks a blood supply.
- It receives its nutrients by a process called diffusion.
- It consists of collagen fibers embedded in a gelatinous substance.
- It is made up of cells called chondrocytes.
- It heals very quickly after an injury.
It heals very quickly after an injury.
113
What do tendons connect?
Muscles to bones
114
What is the function of synovial fluid?
Prevents friction between the bone and the joint
115
What combining form is used to refer to the fingers or toes?
pod/o
116
This combining form refers to the foot.
pod/o
117
____ is the movement of molecules from one area to another to produce a uniform population in both.
Resorption
118
What is the name of the bone in the arm between the shoulder and elbow?
Humerus
119
The area inside a bone that contains the bone marrow is called the ____.
Medullary cavity
120
Which pair of terms for the types of muscle tissue has the same meaning?
- skeletal muscle; smooth muscle
- smooth muscle; cardiac muscle
- skeletal muscle; voluntary muscle
- cardiac muscle; voluntary muscle
- voluntary muscle; smooth muscle
skeletal muscle; voluntary muscle
121
What does the masseter muscle do?
Closes the jaw during chewing
122
What is the only bone in the human body that does not articulate with another bone?
Hyoid
123
A podiatrist specializes in diagnosing and treating disorders of the ____.
Foot
124
What muscle is responsible for flexing the arm?
Biceps brachii
125
During exercise, the rate and depth of respiration increases to replace the extra oxygen being used by the muscles. This an example of how the body attempts to ____.
Maintain homeostasis
126
Insufficient oxygenation during exercise results in a buildup of ____, which causes muscle pain.
Lactic acid
127
Chondritis is an inflammation of the
Cartilage
128
Which of the following combining forms means pertaining to movement?
- articul/o
- ankyl/o
- tend/o
- my/o
- kinesi/o
Kinesi/o
129
A ____ is a band of fibrous tissue connecting two or more bones.
Ligament
130
Which of the following pairs of combining forms share the same meaning?
- kinesi/o and chondr/o
- muscul/o and my/o
- tendin/o and my/o
- asthen/o and fibr/o
- ankyl/o and arthr/o
Muscul/o and my/o
131
What is a greenstick fracture?
A break in the softer, more pliable bone of an infant
132
The areas where the bones of the skull meet are called ____.
Suture lines
133
This congenital musculoskeletal deformity results in the feet being turned outward.
Metatarsus valgus
134
Human bones are categorized into one of four categories based on their shape. Which of the following is not one of those categories?
- flat bones
- round bones
- short bones
- long bones
- irregular bones
Round bones
135
What is the congenital malformation known as syndactyly?
Webbed or fused fingers or toes
136
What is the usual method of treating the abnormality known as genu valgum (knock-knee)?
The condition generally disappears by age three
137
What is the common name for the abnormality called pes planum?
Flatfoot
138
It is not uncommon to see this spinal deformity, known as humpback, in teenagers.
Kyphosis
139
This change in a pregnant woman's posture is known commonly as swayback.
Lordosis
140
Nearly all persons over age sixty have signs of this condition.
Osteoarthritis
141
Gout is a metabolic disorder caused by an accumulation of ____ in the joints.
Uric acid
142
The most common orthopedic operation performed on the older adult population involves this joint.
Hip
143
What is the medical term for the condition commonly known as tennis elbow?
Epicondylitis
144
A ____ is an incomplete dislocation, where there is some articulation between the bone and the joint.
Subluxation
145
This fibrous membrane lines the cavity within the long bones that contains bone marrow.
Endosteum
146
What is a ganglion?
A fluid-filled cyst that appears over a tendon
147
Osteosarcoma is a malignancy arising from ____.
Bone
148
Osteosarcoma occurs most frequently in this phase of life.
Puberty
149
____ is a condition resulting from lack of blood supply, which leads to erosion and destruction of a joint.
Avascular necrosis
150
What is podagra?
Severe pain in the foot
151
What does photon absorptiometry measure?
Bone density
152
An elevated level of calcium in the blood (a measure of bone destruction) is called ____.
Hypercalcemia
153
Arthrodesis is a surgical procedure for ____ joints.
Fixating or fusing
154
____ is the procedure that involves placing a prosthesis in the joint capsule.
Arthroplasty
155
Of the following brand names used as pharmacological agents in orthopedics, which does not function to relieve pain and decrease swelling?
- Flexeril
- Advil
- Anacin
- Motrin
- Bufferin
Flexeril
156
What do uricosuric agents do?
Lower the level of uric acid in the blood
157
____ are the living cells of bone.
Osteocytes
158
What is the name for the cartilage cells?
Chrondocytes
159
____ are physicians who specialize in treating patients who suffer from diseases of the joints, connective tissues, collagen, and other structures.
Rheumatologists
160
The fluid portion of blood is called the ____.
Plasma
161
Megakaryocytes in the bone marrow form these small cells in the blood that help in clotting.
Platelets
162
The combining form onc/o refers to ____.
Tumor
163
This hematology term refers to a protein in the blood.
Albumin
164
The state of having too little oxygen in the blood is referred to as ____.
Hypoxia
165
What is hemoglobin?
Protein in the red blood cell that carries oxygen
166
Chapter 5 refers to these cells as "the body's soldiers, ready and able to attach and destroy bacteria and other foreign invaders."
Leukocytes
167
The two primary groupings of leukocytes are differentiated based on whether they are ____ in appearance.
Grainy
168
The ____ is the main site of fetal blood cell production from the second to the sixth month of gestation.
Liver
169
Blood cell production that takes place outside the bone marrow is referred to as ____.
Extramedullary hematopoiesis
170
The most common hematologic disorder in infancy and childhood is ____.
Dietary iron deficiency
171
The human body contains ____ liters of blood.
Between four and six
172
This hereditary hematologic disorder is marked by abnormally-shaped red blood cells that get caught in the blood vessels.
Sickle cell anemia
173
Thalassemia is a hereditary blood disorder caused by ____.
An inequal production of alpha and other globin chains, resulting in the ineffective production of red blood cells
174
A deficiency in this vitamin, a condition known as pernicious anemia, can cause megaloblastic anemia.
B12
175
This hematologic disorder is often seen in seniors and is marked by high hemoglobin levels arising from an increase in total red blood cell volume.
Polycythemia vera
176
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is caused by ____.
Antibodies that destroy red blood cells
177
What is the meaning of the term hypochromia?
Too little hemoglobin
178
A macrocyte is a ____ red blood cell.
Large
179
An ecchymosis is a ____.
Black and blue mark caused by leakage of blood from the vessel
180
A blood clot that has broken free within the body is called a(n) ____.
Embolus
181
What does pallor mean?
Pale appearance
182
Blood and bone marrow contain three main types of blood cells: erythrocytes, leukocytes, and ____.
Thrombocytes
183
An increased size of the spleen is referred to as ____.
Splenomegaly
184
The condition of having too few white blood cells is referred to as ____.
Leukocytopenia
185
Thrombocytosis is the condition of having too ____.
Many platelets
186
Anemia is the condition of decreased ____.
Hemoglobin level
187
____ is the most common malignancy of the hematopoietic system.
Leukemia
188
In the complete blood count (CBC), the measure of the amount of hemoglobin carried in the red blood cells is reflected in this index.
- MCV
- MCHC
- All of the above
- MCH
- None of the above
MCH
189
The blood test known as the differential counts these cells.
White blood cells
190
The prothrombin time (PT) test is used to assess ____.
Clotting
191
This test is used to determine whether the patient has an autoimmune hemolytic anemia.
Coomb's test
192
This class of pharmaceutical agents breaks down clots that have formed.
Thrombolytic
193
Granulocytes and agranulocytes are subgroups of ____.
Leukocytes
194
Antithrombotic agents are also known as ____.
Anticoagulants
195
Antihemophilic factors are used to ____.
Promote clotting
196
The physician who specializes in the treatment of ____ is called an oncologist.
Cancer
197
Cancer cells show a loss of contact inhibition, which is the signal to the cell to ____.
Stop dividing
198
The successful management of cancer focuses on ____.
- a, b, and c
- assessing patient risk factors.
- a and b
- prevention.
- early detection.
A, b, and c
199
A tumor's grade refers to ____.
The tumor cells' degree of maturity
200
The term anaplastic refers to a cell's loss of ____.
Differentiation
201
This is the abbreviation for the most widely used tumor classification system.
TNM
202
The process of cell division is called ____.
Mitosis
203
Combining different cancer treatment strategies is called ____ therapy.
Multimodal
204
The process of creating red blood cells is called ____.
Erythropoiesis
205
If a tumor is found not to be cancerous, it is said to be ____.
Benign
206
When the body needs more red blood cells, cells in this organ secrete erythropoietin.
Kidney
207
Which of the following is not one of the four ABO blood types?
AO
208
When a donor's and a recipient's blood is mixed prior to transfusion, what happens if the blood types are not compatible?
The mixture will clump, or agglutinate.
209
When a blood vessel is damaged, the body works to stop the bleeding through the process of ____.
- vascular constriction.
- a, b, and c
- local blood coagulation.
- platelet plug formation.
- a and b
A, b, and c
210
Which of the following is not one of the organs of the immune system?
- lymph nodes
- thymus
- tonsils
- liver
- spleen
Liver
211
Once they enter the tissue to fight infection, monocytes mature into ____.
Macrophages
212
B cells change into these cells, which produce proteins called immunoglobulins.
Plasma cells
213
What does the T in T cells stand for?
Thymus
214
Which of the following is associated with specific immunity rather than nonspecific immunity?
- mucus
- tears
- mucous membrane
- macrophages
- skin
Macrophages
215
The inflammatory response is part of ____ immunity.
- cell-mediated
- humoral
- nonspecific
- All of the above
- specific
Nonspecific
216
This type of immunity is developed through exposure to a disease.
Active immunity
217
Maternal immunity develops when a mother passes her antibodies to her child through ____.
- the placenta.
- skin-to-skin contact.
- a and b
- a, b, and c
- her breast milk.
A and b (placenta and breast milk)
218
This combining form means gland.
Aden/o
219
What does the combining form auto- mean?
Self
220
An immunoglobulin that is specific to an antigen and that protects an individual from disease is called a(n) ____.
Antibody
221
Which of the following sets of lymph nodes are found below the waist?
- popliteal
- axillary
- inguinal
- cervical
- submandibular
Popliteal
222
The term humors refers to ____.
Watery fluids in the body
223
The ____ is the lymphoid tissue located on either side of the pharynx.
Palatine tonsil
224
Phagocytosis is the process of ____.
Ingesting and destroying cells or foreign substances
225
The ____ is the drainage sac for the lymph of the abdominal and lumbar regions.
Cisterna chyli
226
Lymphatic tissue is the only tissue in the body that ____.
Reaches adult growth during childhood
227
A mother's immunity provides her newborn protection for ____.
Several months
228
What happens to the immune system as a person ages?
It appears to function less efficiently.
229
When a body fights disease, the cells that it attacks and attempts to destroy are called ____.
Antigens
230
This autoimmune disorder, also called thyrotoxicosis, attacks the follicle membrane in the thyroid.
Grave's disease
231
This autoimmune disorder has its onset in young adulthood, and is most common in females.
Systemic lupus erythematosus
232
When does the thymus reach its maximum size, and what happens afterward?
It reaches its maximum size during puberty, after which it shrinks and becomes fatty tissue.
233
The most common allergy is hay fever, which was named in ____ in ____.
England; 1865
234
Anaphylactic shock results from ____.
A severe allergic reaction
235
____ is a local anaphylactic reaction resulting from swelling within the respiratory tract.
Asthma
236
A person with AIDS is especially at risk for this type of cancer.
Lymphoma
237
This infection, caused by a fungus normally found in the gastrointestinal tract, can cause systemic infection in a person with AIDS.
Candidiasis
238
This bacterial infection usually affects birds, but has also been found to be an opportunistic infection in AIDS patients.
Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare (MAI) complex
239
This progressive immunodeficiency disorder involves many systems, particularly the nervous system.
Ataxia telangiectasia
240
Graves' disease is an autoimmune condition of the ____.
Thyroid
241
Hemolytic anemia is an autoimmune disorder caused by antibodies directed against ____.
Red blood cells
242
____ is an immunologic disorder characterized by thickening of the skin.
Scleroderma
243
The ____ is the largest lymphoid structure.
Spleen
244
"Shotty" refers to a rubbery, freely movable, abnormal-feeling ____.
Lymph node
245
This immunoglobulin is the most common and crosses the placenta and assists with passive and recall immunity.
IgG
246
Which immunoglobulin accounts for about 5-10 percent of the total immunoglobulins in the blood and acts as the first line of defense?
IgM
247
The presence of HIV is assessed with this test.
- ELISA
- Western blot
- a, b, and c
- a and b
- Gallium scan
A and b (ELISA and Western blot)
248
When testing the immune system, a gallium scan is used to enhance the visibility of ____.
Lymphoid tissue
249
____ are the mainstay of treatment for bacterial infections.
Antibiotics
250
The drug AZT is used to combat ____.
HIV
251
For what is an antihistamine prescribed?
Allergies
252
Which of the following drug is an antifungal agent?
Mycostatin
253
Which of the following drugs is not an antiviral agent?
- Foscavir
- Videx
- Bactrim
- Retrovir
- Zovirax
Bactrim
254
The ____ is (are) the immune system's first line of defense against the outside environment.
Tonsils
255
Of these medical abbreviations discussed in Chapter 6, which refers to a surgical procedure?
- AZT
- T&A
- STD
- PCP
- CMV
T&A
256
The function of the lymph nodes is to
Filter lymph fluid
257
Lymph fluid flows into the ____ and the ____ before being emptied into the veins of the neck.
- appendix; gallbladder
- spleen; liver
- right lymphatic duct; thoracic duct
- liver; pancreas
- gallbladder, spleen
Right lymphatic duct; thoracic duct
258
Lymph in the abdomen is often referred to as ____.
Chyle
259
The lymphocytes known as ____ cells secrete antibodies into the blood in response to the presence of foreign substances.
B
