Final Flashcards
(212 cards)
1
Q
What layer of the stomach can be biopsied?
A
only mucosa, cant biopsy submucosa (holding layer)
2
Q
What is the surgical treatment for pyloric stenosis?
A
pyloromyotomy -incision in just seromuscular layer
pyloroplasty - full thickness longitudinal incision
3
Q
What surgical treatment is preferred for mucosal hypertrophy with pyloric stenosis?
A
Y-U pyloroplasty
4
Q
What is most common hypertrophic gastropathy?
A
chronic hypertrophic pyloric gastropathy - mucosal hypertrophy
5
Q
What is most common neoplasia of stomach in dogs? cats?
A
dog - adenocarcinoma
cat - lymphoma
6
Q
What different pressures does GDV cause?
A
portal hypertension and systemic hypotension
7
Q
What xray should be taken for GDV?
A
right lateral
8
Q
What does the latin word for jejunum mean?
A
empty of food - only liquid stuff in it
9
Q
Where should intestine be incised for foreign body?
A
aboral side, antimesenteric
10
Q
What type of enemas should never be used in cats?
A
phosphate enemas
11
Q
Damage to what nerve can cause incontinence?
A
caudal rectal nerve (branch of pudendal)
12
Q
What muscle becomes atrophied and leads to perineal herniation?
A
levator ani
13
Q
What is the cause of perineal herniation?
A
hormonal influence, straining, intact males
14
Q
What age should palatal defects be surgically repaired?
A
3-4 months
15
Q
What are salivary mucoceles lined by?
A
inflammatory connective tissue (does not have epithelial lining)
16
Q
If a ranula reoccurs, what glands must be removed?
A
mandibular and sublingual
17
Q
How is sialoadenitis treated?
A
trial of phenobarbital, address esophageal dz
18
Q
What salivary glands most commonly get tumors?
A
parotid and mandibular
19
Q
What are the most common types of salivary gland tumors?
A
malignant adenocarcinomas and carcinomas
20
Q
How should sutures be placed in repairing an ear hematoma?
A
mattress sutures parallel to incision
21
Q
What two types of adhesions involve the peritoneum?
A
fibrinous
fibrous - inflammation
22
Q
What abdominal fluid chemical is 100% sensitive and specific for septic peritonitis in a dog?
A
lactate (>2.0 mmol/L difference from blood)
also glucose very sensitive
23
Q
When is hyperparathyroidism considered recurrence?
A
occurs again after 6 months after resection
24
Q
What small ruminant oral virus is contagious to humans?
A
contagious ecthyma
25
What is the treatment for wooden tongue?
systemic sodium iodine
26
How is bluetongue virus transmitted?
culicoides
27
How is vescular stomatitis transmitted?
blackfly vector, direct contact
28
What is the first thing to be abnormal in rumen fluid in acute rumenal acidosis?
decline in protozoa (at pH 5.5)
29
What causes dehydration in rumenal acidosis?
increased rumen osmotic pressure
30
What are the sequelae of chronic rumenal acidosis?
liver abscesses - bad for meat industry
| caudal vena caval syndrome - sudden death
31
WHat are the 3 reasons for metabolic acidosis in an adult cow?
rumen acidosis
neurologic (lose saliva)
about to die
32
How do you diagnose subacute rumen acidosis in a herd?
locomotion scoring
decreased milk fat
cud chewing - should be 50%
33
What are the 3 specific liver specific tests for horses?
SDH, GLDH, (acute) and GGT (chronic)
34
What two organ systems will cause hyperammonemia?
GI disease or liver disease
35
What is equine hyperlipidemias caused by?
increased triglycerides, negative energy balance
36
What are CS of equine hyperlipidemias?
nonspecific - reduced water and feed intake, depression
37
What hormone increases in hyperlipemia in horses?
hormone sensitive lipase up-regulated
38
What two drugs can improve TG uptake in horses?
insulin - suppress hormone sensitive lipase
| heparin - stimulates lipoprotein lipase
39
What plants causes chronic megalocytic hepatopathy in horses?
pyrrolizidine alkaloid containg plants (cross links DNA)
40
What are CS of cholelithiasis in horses?
icterus, fever, intermittent colic
41
What bacteria causes Tyzzers disease?
clostridium piliforme
42
What is Tyzzers disease?
acute necrotizing hepatitis in foals
43
What is Theilers disease?
acute serum hepatitis - 4-10 weeks after giving biologic of equine origin
44
What is another name for failure of omasal transport?
anterior functional stenosis
45
What is another name for failure of transpyloric outflow?
posterior functional stenosis
46
What plant can cause cleft palates in calves?
poison hemlock
47
What is tooth eruption schedule in calves?
18, 24, 36, 42
48
What is the most common cause of pharyngeal abcesses in cattle?
iatrogenic - balling gun
49
What are the 4 sources of pain in a colic?
stretch, tension, inflammation, infarction
50
What is the most important thing to evaluate in a colic?
pain
51
What type of colic is associated with severe pain and visible abdominal distention?
large colon volvulus
52
What type of colic starts with severe pain and then pain decreases as the horse becomes depressed?
small intestinal dz
53
What type of colic has low grade persistant pain?
impaction
54
What is the most common lesions that cause colic in small intestine?
pedunculated lipoma, ileal impaction, proximal enteritis
55
How do you differentiate strangulation vs. proximal enteritis?
enteritis - febrile, rare in young horses
56
What is the most common colic in horse?
large colon tympany (spasmotic colic)
57
WHat is the most common lesions that cause colic in the large intestine?
fecal impaction and fecaliths
58
What bacteria is associated with fecal impaction?
salmonella
59
What is the number one reason to bring a horse to surgery for a colic?
intractable pain
60
What types of colic can be managed medically?
simple colon displacement
mild to moderate impactions
nephrosplenic entrapment
61
What are the 2 locations of intraluminal impactions in the small intestine in horses?
pylorus, ileal impactions
62
What are ileal impactions in horses associated with?
tapeworm infection, bermuda grass hay
63
What age of foals get ascarid impactions?
5 months
64
What causes ileal muscular hypertrophy in horeses?
ileal impactionas and recurrent colic, unknown etiology
65
What two species are prone to abdominal adhesions?
horses and people
66
What disease causes a large volue of nasogastric reflux in horses and may cause functional ileus?
proximal enteritis (duedonitis-proximal jejunitis)
67
What age of horses get strangulating lipoma?
older than 10 years
68
What portion of the horse intestine usually becomes entrapped in the epiploic foramen?
ileum and jejunum
69
What age of horses get epiploic foramen entrapment??
under 10 years
70
How do horses get diaphragmatic hernias?
congenital (not traumatic)
71
What is the most common type of scrotal hernia in horses?
indirect (contained within vaginal tunic)
72
What part of the intestine is usually involved in mesenteric rents in horses?
jejunum
73
What age is small intestinal intussusception usually seen in horses?
foals (parasitic in origin)
74
What part of the intestine is most commonly involved in intussceptions in horses?
ileocecal
75
What parasitic infection is associated with intussceptions in horses?
chronic tapeworm infestation
76
What degree cut should be made to increase ostium and ensure vascular supply in horse intestines?
60 degrees
77
What suture patterns are used in single layer anastomosis in horses?
minimally inverting cushing or lembert pattern in the serosubmucosa
78
What must be done if ileum is necrotic after epiploic foramen entrapment?
jejunocecostomy
79
When can horses be given water and food after surgery?
water - after 12 hours
| hay at 18 hours
80
What is the most common cecal disease in horses?
cecal impaction
81
What are the causes of cecal impaction?
low water intake, hospitalization (due to orthopedics)
82
How are cecal impactions treated? What is the sequlae of most concern?
medically or surgically
| high risk of bowel rupture
83
What is the most common disease of the large colon of the horse? Second common?
large colon tympany, gas colic\
| 2nd - large colon impaction
84
How is large colon tympany diagnosed?
rectal exam - large colon distention
85
What is the most common disease of the small colon in horses?
small colon impaction - isolated intraluminal
86
What treatment is preferred for fecalith small colon impactions?
surgical
87
What is the main differential for meconium impaction in foals?
atresia coli
88
What is another name for nephrosplenic entrapment of the colon in horses?
left dorsal displacement of large colon
89
What is the most painful and lethal GI disease in horses?
large colon volvulus
90
What are risk factors for large colon volvulus?
brood mares, recent parturition, diet changes, lush pasture
91
What is the age range of calves infected with ETEC?
3 days old
92
What is the mechanism for ETEC diarrhea in calves?
extrasecretory diarrhea
93
What diarrhea pathogen affects all ages of cows?
salmonella - colon and cecum, bloody diarrhea
94
What are the three entry points to cause calf neonatal septicemia?
GI tract, ubilicus, resp system
95
What age of calves is affected by rotavius and coronavirus? What part of intestine is affected?
up to 2 weeks of age
rota - jejunum - villi tips
corona - distal SI and LI - whole villi
96
What are the diagnostic tests for cryptospordium?
fecal float, acid fast fecal stain
97
What is the age of calves affected by cryptosporidium? What part of intestine?
10 days to 2 weeks
| large colon - mucoid diarrhea
98
What are the 3 factors for getting milk into the abomasum in calves to allow for rumen development?
neck position, sucking, composition of milk
99
What diet is needed for optimal rumen development?
milk and grain
100
What acid base problem do neonatal calves get with GI disease?
metabolic acidosis (also may have hyperkalemia)
101
When should antibiotics be used for calf diarrhea?
sepsis - fever
102
What causes squamous mucosal lesions in EGUS in horses?
increased acid
103
What causes glandular mucosal lesions in EGUS in horses?
impaired mucosal protection and blood flow (NSAIDS)
104
Do ulcers in horses occur more in the squamous or glandular part of the stomach?
squamous (80%)
105
What is the best drug for treating EGUS in adults?
gastrogard - omeprazole
106
What age of horses does duodenal ulcers occur?
more common in foals, similar signs
107
Where is the abomasum located in the cow?
15 cm caudal to xyphoid process and 5 cm to right
108
Which way does an RDA twist with volvulus?
always twists to left
109
What is a good prognostic indicator for RDAs?
lower chloride = worse prognosis
110
What is the term for simultaneous auscultation and ballotment in a cow?
sucussion
111
Because adult cow diarrhea is more chronic, what clin path tests are useful?
fibrinogen, protein
112
What percent of cows have no CS with johnes disease?
95%
113
What age of cows infected as calves shed johnes disease shed the most bacteria?
2-15 years
114
What tests should be used for johnes disease screening?
fecal culture or PCR
115
What are the two main control measures for johnes disease?
removing calves from feces
| culling affected animals
116
What small exotic mammals can tolerate carbs?
small rodents
117
What is best diagnostic tool for gastric stasis and ileus in small mammals?
radiographs! (TQ)
118
What is the treatment for non obstructive ileus in small mammals?
```
control pain - opiods, then NSAIDs
rehydrate - crystalloids
prokinetics
start feeding
control gas
```
119
What is most common site for obstruction in small exotic mammals?
pylorus
120
What are the antibiotics that should NEVER be given to small exotic mammals orally? (TQ)
penicillins, cephalosporins, macrolides (+/- injectable forms)
121
WHat is the treatment for enteritis in small exotic mammals?
cholestyramine
| antidiarrheal
122
What is the go-to antibiotic for small mammal exotics?
chloramphenicol
123
What is the treatment for gastric impaction in horses?
dioctyl sodium succinate (DSS)
124
What is the main CS for gastric neoplasia in horses?
chronic weight loss
125
What is the main ddx for anterior enteritis in horses?
small intestinal obstruction
126
What antibiotic that can be given IV to bind endotoxins in horses?
polymyxin B
127
What is the treatment for IBD in horses?
corticosteroids, dietary alternations
128
What kind of bacteria is lawsonia intracellulars?
obligate intracellular gram negative bacteria (seagulls)
129
When is the most common time for horses to be infected with l. intracellularis?
weanling foals, stress and parsitism
130
What is a useful clin path diagnostic for L. intracellulars?
hypoproteinemia with hypoalbuminemia
131
What is the tx for L. intracellularis in horses?
macrolides in foals
| tetra
132
Which feeds would generate the highest amount of acid in a cow?
ground wheat
133
What is the normal pH of the tumen of an adult cow on 70% forage and 30% grain?
5.8 - 6.2
134
What is primary (frothy) bloat caused by?
diet
135
What is the treatment for pasture frothy bloat?
poloxalene - detergent (ionic surfactant)
136
What technique causes the highest failure rate with a left displaced abomasum?
rolling and blind stitch
137
What are the risk factors for abomasal impaction?
poor quality forage or pyloric problems
138
What are the symptoms of a cow with rumenal acidosis?
staggering (drunken sailor)
139
What are rumen motility disorders most commonly due to?
reticuloperitonitis (craninal abdominal peritonitis with adhesions involving reticulum)
140
What is the treatment for feedlot frothy bloat?
mineral oil better, can use poloxalene
141
What is the ddx for RDA?
cecal dilatation
142
What are the CS and signalment of RDAs?
early lactating cows, acutely off feed, dramatic decrease in milk production
143
What are the complications of post surgical RDA cows?
loss of motility
ulcers
peritonitis
144
What are the poor prognostic factors for RDA post surgical?
large volume of fluid in abomasum
chloride less than 80
discolored serosa
145
What percentage of dairy cows have LDA?
5%
146
WHat are risk factors for LDA?
low DMI post partum
low fiber (low NDF)
other dzs (MF, ketosis, retained placenta)
confinement
147
What age of dairy cattle are most susceptible to LDA?
2nd + lactation cows (older)
148
What are the CS of LDA?
recently calved, sudden decrease in milk, TPR normal, typically ketotic
149
Where is the ping heard on a LDA?
ribs 13-8
150
What type of animals get abomasal impaction?
pregnant beef cattle and sheep
151
What is the cause of abomasal impaction?
poor quality forage (chopped forages)
| sand (in root crops)
152
What are the CS of abomasal impaction?
gradual decreased appetite, weight loss, weakness, bloat
153
What is the serum chemistry pattern for an upper intestinal obstruction?
decreased Cl
decreased K
increased HCO3
154
What is the treatment for abomasal impactions?
oral fluids + mineral oil
prokinetic drugs
surgery if no respose to tx
155
What are the causes of primary ruminal tympany?
diet
156
What are the causes of secondary ruminal tympany?
impaired eructation - choke, mass, impaired motiility
157
What types of plants cause pasture bloat?
legumes, cereal grains (no bloat with hay)
158
What can be fed to feedlot cattle to avoid frothy bloat?
ionophores, increase particle size of grain
159
What is the signalment for abomasal tympany/abomasitis?
ruminants >2 weeks old, bottle fed
160
What are CS of abomasal tympany?
acutely off feed with no diarrhea
161
What is the tx for abomasal tympany?
PPG
| C. perf type C and D antitoxin
162
What are indications for rumenotomy?
acute ruminal acidosis
traumatic reticuloperitonitis
rumen outflow problem
163
What are indications for a temporary rumenostomy?
chronic bloat - TRP, acidosis, tetanus
164
What are the CS for acute colitis-enterocolitis in horses?
profuse watery diarrhea
| mod to severe colic
165
What is the cause of colitis-enterocolitis in foals?
infectious agents, associated with bacteremia, definitive diagnosis more common
166
What is the diarrhea caused by in colitis-enterocolitis?
hypersecretory and malabsorptive (at same time)
167
What is an early indicator of colitis-enterocolitis?
"splitting" pcv increased, normo proteinemic
168
What should always be ruled out in colitis-enterocolitis cases in horses?
salmonella
169
What causes potomac horse fever?
neorickettsia risticii
170
What is the treatment for potomac horse fever?
oxytetracycline
171
What is the diagnostic test for potomac horse fever?
paired serum samples
| def: morula within WBC or PCR of wbcs or feces
172
What is treatment for clostridial colitis in horses?
metronidazole
173
What electrolyte should not be given IV in horse colitis cases?
sodium bicarbonate - worsens acidosis (because of sodium)
174
What is the most effective NSAID for preventing endotoxin induced prostaglandin synthesis in horses?
flunixen meglumine
175
What drug can be helped to reduce laminitis in endotoxin horses?
pentoxiphylline
176
What product has been shown to bind to clostridium enterotoxins?
diatomaeous earth
177
What is the most common large colon intussception in the horse?
cecocolic intussusception
178
What are standardbreds susceptible to in regards to colic?
ileum impaction and cecocolic intussusception
179
What disease of the colon is common in post partum mares?
mesocolon tear and segmental ischemia - 48 hours post
180
What are the four grades of rectal tears?
1 - mucosa and submucosa
2 - muscle layer only
3 - all layers except serosa (3a) or mesorectum (3b)
4 - all layers
181
What grade rectal tears need surgery in horses?
3 or 4
182
What is the difference between 3A and 3B rectal tears?
3A is cranial to peritoneal reflection (in peritoneum)
183
What is the treatment for rectal tears grade 1 -3?
food deprivation, evacuate rectum, antibiotics, flunixin, laxatives
184
How is the stomach closed?
simple continuous in submucosa
| inverting in seromuscular (cushing, lembert, connel)
185
Term for taking stomach and suturing to duedoneum.
gastroduodenostomy (end to end) - billroth 1
186
Term for taking stomach and suturing to jejunum?
gastrojejunostomy (side to side) - billroth 2
187
What abdominal radiograph must be taken for GDV?
RIGHT lateral
188
What is the percent of recurrence from a GDV with incisional gastropexy?
3-6%
189
What is normal intestinal height?
less than 2-3x rib width, or 1-2 times height of L2
190
Where you do you shoot a pig to kill it?
ear to eye
191
What are other names for e.coli in pigs?
ETEC, white scours, wet tail scours
192
What age of pigs get e coli diarrhea?
less than 4 days
193
What are the morbidity and mortality of e coli in baby piglets?
100% morbidity
| 75% mortality
194
What is the tx for colibacillosis in piglets?
gentamicin, vax
195
What age of piglets are susceptible to TGE?
less than 14 days - death
greater than 14 days - probably live
enzootic usually in weaned pigs
196
What is TGE caused by in piglets?
coronavirus
197
What is the season for TGE in pigs?
epizootic - winter
| enzootic - year round
198
What will be seen in TGE during necropsy?
thin walled SI
199
What is PEDV caused by?
corona virus (pretty much same as TGE)
200
What is the source of coccidiosis in piglets?
oocysts in piglet environment (sow NOT source)
201
What age of piglets get coccidiosis?
5 days
202
When will you start seeing oocysts in feces with pigs infected with coccidiosis?
17 days after infection
203
What will be seen on necropsy with pigs infected with coccidiosis?
thickened jejunum and ileum with fibronecrotic covering
204
What is the tx for pigs with coccidiosis?
amprolium, decoquinate, sulfas
205
What age of pigs get clostridial perfringes enteritis?
less than 7 days
| chronic may affect older piglets
206
What antibiotic can be given to sows prior to farrowing to prevent clostridial perfringes enteritis?
BMD
207
What will clostridial perfringes diarrhea piglets look like on necropsy?
bright red intestine
208
How does clostridium perfringes type A differ from type C?
less mortality with type A
209
What age of pigs are affected by rotavirus?
7-14 days
210
What parasite in pigs is also called small intestinal threadworm?
strongyloides ransomi
211
What type of salmonella affects weaned pigs?
s. cholerasuis
212
What are the CS of brachyspira hyodysenteriae?
mucohemorrhagic colitis - must do wet mount
