Final Flashcards
(200 cards)
1
Q
Who is the earliest dentist whose name is known and in what country or region did he reside?
A
Hesi-Re; Egypt
2
Q
Who is the “Grand Old Man of Dentistry”?
A
G.V. Black
3
Q
Who was the first dentist to employ a dental assistant?
A
C. Edmund Kells
4
Q
Which of the following is always considered part of professional attire for a dental assistant?
A
good health, good grooming, and appropriate dress
5
Q
What is the new set of federal privacy laws for healthcare patients?
A
HIPAA
6
Q
Professionalism is what distinguishes people who only “pursue a job” from those who
A
“have a job”.
7
Q
Which dental specialist diagnoses and treats diseases of the pulp?
A
Endodontist
8
Q
Who approves many of the dental professional schools?
A
American Dental Association (ADA)
9
Q
What is the term used when one chairside assistant works primarily with the dentist?
A
four-handed dentistry
10
Q
What is the term used for a voluntary standards of behavior established by a profession?
A
Code of Ethics
11
Q
Which of the following is correct concerning ethics and the law?
A
Ethical standards are always of a higher order than the law.
12
Q
Which of the following best describes the principle of autonomy?
A
the right to privacy, freedom of choice, and the acceptance of responsibility for one’s actions.
13
Q
What does abandonment mean in the dental office?
A
discontinuation of care after treatment has begun, but before it has been completed.
14
Q
What is it called when a dentist is negligent for not meeting the standard of care?
A
malpractice
15
Q
What is malpractice?
A
Professional negligence
16
Q
Which body designation is farther away from the truck of the body?
A
Distal
17
Q
Which of the following body designations means toward the front?
A
Anterior
18
Q
Several types of tissues that group together to perform a single function form
A
organs
19
Q
The urinary system is also known as the
A
excretory system
20
Q
What is the first line of defense against disease?
A
skin
21
Q
The central nervous system consists of the brains and the
A
spinal cord.
22
Q
Which cells form the enamel?
A
ameloblasts
23
Q
In which stage of tooth development do the cells of the tooth grow and increase in number?
A
cap stage
24
Q
How many teeth are in development at birth?
A
20
25
What bony process creates the cheekbone?
zygomatic process
26
Which bone forms the joint with the mandible?
Temproromandibular Joint (TMJ)
27
Which artery is the larger of the two terminal branches of the external carotid?
Maxillary Artery
28
The wing like tip of the outer side of each nostril is called the
ala
29
For the purpose of identifying landmarks, how many regions can the face be divided into?
9 areas
30
The posterior party of the roof of the mouth is called the
soft palate.
31
When is the estimated time for eruption of the permanent mandibular second molar?
11-13 years
32
Which tooth type is present in the permanent dentition but not in the primary dentition?
pre-molars
33
Which dentition period has some teeth of both dentitions present?
mixed
34
Where is the cusp of Carabelli located on the maxillary first molar?
located lingual to the mesiolingual cusp.
35
What are the Universal system numbers for the maxillary centeral incisor teeth?
8&9
36
Which tooth is usually the first permanent tooth to erupt in the oral cavity?
central incisor
37
What term refers to tooth decay?
Dental caries
38
What term indicates an exposed root?
root canal
39
What is the most mineralization tissue in the body?
enamel
40
A soft deposti on teeth that consists of bacteria byproducts is
Plaque
41
Which of the following is associated with necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis?
characterized by necrosis of gingival tissues, periodontal ligament and alveolar bone. Associated with immune disorders such as infection and immunosuppressive therapies; severe and rapid periodontal destruction alveolar bone loss, lack of deep pocket formation.
42
The portion of the tooth that anchors the tooth to the body socket with the attachments of the periodontal ligaments is the
cementum
43
The components in food that are needed by the body to supply energy are called
nutrients
44
Compounds in proteins used by the body to build and repair tissue are
aminoacids
45
Food that have been grown without the use of chemical pesticides, herbicides, or fertilizers are
organic
46
What is the term used for localized area of pus originating from an infection?
Abscess
47
How would you describe the condition of cellulitis?
Inflammation of cellular or connective tissue
48
What diagnostic tool would be useful in diagnosing both periapical pathology and impacted teeth?
Radiograph
49
Who introduced the earliest belief that life was "spontaneously generated" from living matter?
Aristotle
50
Bacteria with a spherical shape are called
cocci
51
What does HIV affect once it enters the body?
Special T cells and slowly kills them.
52
The link in the chain of infection that refers to the strength of the organism is
virulence
53
Using moisturizers to maintain healthy skin helps to prevent which type of disease transmission?
irritant contact dermatitis
54
Areas of the hand that are frequently missed when washing with antimicrobial soap and water are the
thumb, in between fingers, fingernails
55
Why is it important to use surface barriers and to disinfect treatment rooms?
to prevent patient-to-patient transmission of microorganisms / to protect surfaces from dental materials
56
Which of the following surfaces in the dental office are covered with barriers?
headrest, control buttons, light handles, light switch, evacuator hose and control, x-ray control, air-water syringe handles, dental unit control touch pads, patient mirror handles, handle on light-curing device, switch on amalgamators, drawer handles, adj. handles, bracket table
57
When removing contaminated barriers and wiping down contaminated surfaces with an intermediate-level disinfectant after patient treatment is completed, which type of gloves should be worn?
utility glove
58
An autoclave instrument sterilization process uses which sterilization agent?
most heat under pressure
59
What is classified as a critical instrument?
items used to penetrate soft tissue or bone.
60
When should holding solutions be used as part of the instrument processing procedure?
If instruments cannot be cleaned immediately after a procedure.
61
Regulatory agencies issue
rules and regulations with which dental offices must comply.
62
Which agency regulates the manufacturing and labeling of medical devices?
FDA
63
What regulatory agency ensures the safety and health of American's workers?
OSHA
64
Eating lunch in an area in which chemicals are used is a common way of chemical exposure through
Ingestion
65
What type of gloves should be worn when using chemicals?
Utility (chemical resistant)
66
The proper face mask should
be fluid repellent and should provide respiratory protection.
67
In community water, the number of waterborne bacteria is kept below
500 CFUs per ml
68
Dental workers are a greater risk of exposure to what disease?
Legionella
69
Biofilm cannot be removed by
flushing alone.
70
Ergonomics deals with
adaptation of the work environment to the human body.
71
Posture affects the ability of the dental assistant to
reach, hold, and use of equipment.
72
What is one of the most important factors in preventing CTS?
frequently resting the hands.
73
What is the minimum length of time that the signed acknowledgement must be kept in the patient's record?
6 years
74
Who owns the patient record in the dental office?
the dentist
75
What is used to record statements in the progress notes of a patient dental record?
Black Ink
76
Which of the following is one of the two major arteries on each side of the neck that carry blood to the head?
Carotid Artery
77
Which of the following is commonly used to measure blood pressure in the arteries?
sphygmomanometer
78
Which of the following pulse sites are used during CPR?
Carotid Artery
79
Which of the following is used by the dentist to detect imperfections in the enamel surface, which maybe the beginning of decay?
Visual Evaluation
80
Which numbering system begains with the maxillary right third molar and concludes at the mandibular right third molar, running from 1 to 32?
Universal
81
What method of assessment uses the examiner's fingers and hands to feel for texture, size, and consistency of hard and soft tissue?
Palpation
82
Why are muscle relaxants such a diazepam prescribed for patients with multiple sclerosis?
to control muscle spasms
83
Which of the following is caused by a sudden vascular lesion of the brain such as hemorrhage, embolism, thrombosis, or ruptured aneurysm?
stroke
84
What is the cause of secondary dentin gradually reducing the size of the pulp chamber, making teeth more susceptible to fracture?
dark and brittle
85
Which schedule of drugs does heroin belong to?
Schedule I drugs
86
Which of the following stands for taking a dose twice a day as noted on a written prescription?
BID
87
If a patient is allergic to penicillin, which drug is used for antibiotic prophylaxis?
Erythromycin
88
What color coding is used for oxygen supplies in the dental office?
green
89
What is another term used for a cerebrovascular accident?
stroke
90
The recommended flood covering in the operatory or treatment room is
linoleum or tile
91
Which aspect of the dental assist's stool could cause excessive leaning over the patient when the assistant is seated inappropriately?
abdomincal bar
92
The dental assistant should initially position the operating light
on the patient's chest
93
Disposable traps should be changed
weekly
94
What is the most common dental chair position for dental procedures
supine
95
What is the transfer zone for a right-handed dentist?
4 to 7 o'clock
96
What is the suggested positioning for the right-handed operator when treating the maxillary right buccal surfaces of the teeth?
10-12 o'clock / chin up, turned away
97
Hand instruments are designed with three specific parts. The three parts include the handle, shank, and
working end
98
What does the third number of the G.V. Black instrument formula describe?
angle of the blade in degrees in relation to handle.
99
Which instruments are set up for every procedure and are also called the examination setup?
mouth mirror, explorer, and cotton pliers (periodontal probe)
100
This is a small glass bowl with different sized wells on either side used to hold liquid dental materials.
dappen dish
101
When were rotary instruments introduced to dentistry?
1940s
102
Which handpiece is considered the most versatile handpiece used in dentistry?
straight, low-speed handpiece
103
How many rpm can the high-speed handpiece reach?
450,000 rpm
104
What mechanism is used to hold the bur in a high-speed handpiece?
friction-grip device
105
What is the function of saliva ejector?
to remove liquids from the mouth
106
The high-volume evacuator should be held in the pen grasp or
thumb-to-nose grasp
107
Which oral rinsing technique is performed frequently as debris accumulates during the preparation and restoration of a tooth?
Limited-area rinsing
108
Which dental dam frame is recommended when radiographs maybe required throughout the dental procedure?
plastic U-shaped frame
109
How many hours before receiving general anesthesia must a patient refrain from eating or drinking?
8 to 12 hours
110
During intravenous conscious sedation, how often should physiologic measurements such as level of consciousness, respiration function, oximetry, blood pressure, heart rate, and cardiac rhythm be taken and recorded?
every 15 minutes
111
What does the addition of a vasoconstrictor to a local anesthetic help with?
slow down intake of anesthetic and increase duration of action. Blood vessels to site are constricted. Absorption into system is slowed. Local anes. toxicity is minimized. Agent prolonged by decreasing blood flow in immediate area. Bleeding at injected area is decreased.
112
Wetting, viscosity, surface characteristics, and film thickness are all characteristics that affect which of the following application properties?
adhesion
113
Dental amalgam is composed of an alloy powder that is triturated to be mixed in approximately equal parts with
mercury
114
IRM is the restorative material of choice for
short-term restoration / temporary intermediate
115
What makes composite resin a more favorable restoration than an amalgam?
their esthetic qualities, new advances in their make-up, designed to meet the needs.
116
In addition to a shade guide, a curing light, and a composite instrument, what else maybe useful during the preparation of a composite resin restoration?
syringe tip and gauze pads
117
Which type of dental base contains eugenol, which provides a sedative effect on irritated pulp?
IRM/ZOE
118
Which dental material seals dentinal tubules, reduces leakage around restoration, and acts as a barrier against highly acidic cements?
Desensitizer
119
Before dentin bonding, what function does acid etching have?
removes smear layer
120
What ingredient has a soothing effect on the pulp?
Eugenol
121
Zinc oxide-eugenol is mixed on a
treated paper pad
122
How is zince phosphate dispensed?
powder and liquid
123
What is the purpose of a bite registration?
used to show the occlusal relationship of the maxiallary and mandibular teeth.
124
What is the shelf-life of alginate impression material?
approximately 1 year
125
When loading a maxillary alginate impression, where is the bulk of material placed?
toward the anterior palatal area of tray
126
What piece of equipment is used to remove air from the mix of gypsum products?
Vibrator
127
Which type of stone is used as a working model for making dentures?
dental stone
128
During the pouring procedure, where should the gypsum material be placed to flow to all areas of the impression?
posterior teeth
129
To check the occlusion of a Class I restoration one should use
articulating paper
130
A space between two teeth is called
diastema
131
On which tooth surface is a veneer placed
facial surface of prepared tooth
132
What is another term for a universal retainer?
Tofflemire
133
The larger circumference of the matrix band is always placed toward which surface?
occlusal surface
134
What is used to contour the bands?
burnisher, or end of the mirror handle
135
What is another term for a tooth, root, or implant used for the retention of a fixed porothesis?
abutment
136
What is another term to describe the number of teeth involved in a fixed prosthesis?
units
137
Which instrument should be used to pack the retraction cord into the gingival sulcus?
blunt cord packing instrument (gingival retraction cord instrument)
138
What type of lighting is preferred when selecting a shade?
natural sunlight
139
What home-care aid would a patient need to thoroughly clean underneath a three-unit bridge?
bridge threader
140
When is a laboratory provisional coverage not used?
?
141
How long does the initial set take with a self-curing resin?
immediate
142
What type of temporary cement is most commonly used on a provisional temporary?
ZOE (Zinc Oxide Eugenol)
143
Which is an example of the intraoral factors influencing the choice of a removable prothesis?
saliva flow ridge, torri
144
What is the term used to describe abnormal growths of bone in a specific area of the mouth?
torri
145
What is the term used to describe chewing?
Mastication
146
What type of impression tray is used to take the preliminary impression for a full denture?
edentulous
147
Which teeth are not included on a full denture?
third molars / 14 on each arch
148
What is the term used to describe artificial teeth that have been surgically embedded in the bone?
Implants / endesil?
149
A _____ evaluation is used to assess a patient's attitude, ability to cooperate and overall outlook on implants.
psychological
150
Informed consent for implant surgery should include which of the following?
background info, complications, prognosis, time frame, home care, follow-up appointments
151
What is the term used to describe a localized area of pus?
Abscess
152
A subjective examination of a patient would include which of the following?
Chief complaint, character & duration of pain, painful stimuli, sensitivity to biting & pressure.
153
Which type of medicament is most commonly used as a sealer for a pulpotomy of a deciduous tooth?
formocresol
154
What is the main purpose of paper points?
inserted into canal to absorb the irrigating solution & to dry canal.
155
What would a periodontist use to record the depth of periodontal pockets, furcation involvement, and tooth mobility?
periodontal probe
156
What is the depth of a normal sulcus?
3mm or less
157
What instrument is used to locate deposits of calculus?
periodontal explorers
158
Which of the following antibiotic therapies is most effective in treating periodontal disease?
chlorhexidine
159
What instrument is used to remove fragments that have broken off during the extraction procedure?
root tip pick
160
Which instrument is used in a push-and-pull motion to smooth the surface of the bone?
bone file
161
Which type of biopsy involves the removal of the entire lesion?
excisional biopsy
162
What instrument is used to crimp a stainless steel crown prior to seating it?
contouring pliers
163
The most commonly injured teeth due to trauma in children are?
maxillary central incisors
164
Unexplained chipped or injured teeth, bruises or swelling around the face, head, or neck, tears of the labial frenum, and injuries in various stages of healing on a child could indicate.
child abuse
165
Orthodontic appliances can move teeth because
bone resorbs under pressure
166
How many standard extraoral photographs are taken during the diagnostic record collection step?
two (frontal & right profile)
167
What radiograph is used for orthodontic treatment?
Pan and cephalometric
168
The HIPAA act specifies
privacy.
169
The backbone of a well run organization is
good communication.
170
Communication can be defined as
sending of a message by one individual and receiving of the same message by another individual.
171
What approximate percentage of all spoken words is never heard?
90%
172
Which filling system is the easiest and most commonly used?
Alphabetic
173
The recall system is designed to
help patients return in a timely manner for treatment.
174
Payments on any outstanding accounts payable are known as
disbursements.
175
The ledger is
a financial statement that maintains all account transactions.
176
What is vital in the event of theft, fire, or disaster?
bonding insurance?
177
In general what is the first contact with a prospective employer?
telephone
178
Which of the following should not be stated on a resume?
ssn, race, color, religion, gender, national origin, age, marrital status, and childcare arrangements.
179
Which is the newest method of providing a resume?
electronic resume
180
Which of following should be kept to a minimum at an interview?
jewelry and make-up
181
What length should a resume be?
one page
182
How far in advance should you arrive for an interview appointment?
10-15 minutes
183
Which part of the interview is the most critical?
the first 10 minutes
184
Tooth #5 normally replaces primary tooth
true
185
The letter B indicates which tooth surface?
Buccal
186
Large amounts of aspirin are most likely to affect a patient's
blood
187
If an error has been made on a clinical record entry, which of the following should be done?
use black pen, draw straight line through entry. Initial and date correction.
188
When measuring blood pressure the patient should be seated with the arm in which position?
level as the heart
189
Which of the following conditions may occur if excess cement is NOT removed from the cervical margin after cementation of a crown?
inflammation and discomfort
190
In selecting an impression try for a preliminary maxillary impression the tray should extend posteriorly.
True
191
Tooth #1 is the universal tooth numbering system is the
maxillary right third molar
192
Which of the following types of teeth are likely to be found in the primary dentition?
baby teeth ; succendous teeth
193
Using the Universal tooth numbering system a lower left molar is noted as tooth number?
17-19
194
Using the Universal tooth numbering system the maxillary right second primary molar is tooth number?
2
195
Alginate impressions should be poured immediately to
avoid hardening
196
Acid etching agents are required when
to remove smear layer/ to bond sealant material
197
While handling a contaminated explorer an assistant accidentally receives a percutaneous injury to the fingers. The assistant should FIRST
wash hands and clean wounded area
198
Which of the following steam autoclave times and settings is not effective in inactivating the hepatitis B virus?
250 - 30 min; 250 - 30 min; 273 - 10 min; 273 - 3 min
199
When using the autoclave timing the sterilization cycle should begin when the
?
200
The OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard requires employers to offer HBV vaccinations to employees with what period of time after assisgnment to a job where exposure to blood and other potentially infectious material can be reasonably anticipated?
10 days
