Final Flashcards

(207 cards)

1
Q

What are the steps in collecting blood from school animals?

A
Check animals chart
Check animals cage for notes
Weigh animal
Calculate safe amount
Collect blood
Mark chart
Store in fridge
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When is a good time to collect blood?

A

After animal has been fasted for 12 hours and when the animal is calm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are some sites for blood collection?

A

Jugular or cephalic on dog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Why should you not over fill the tube?

A

the stopper will pop or it may be the incorrect ratio of blood to anticoagulant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is EDTA?

A

Ethylenediaminetetracetic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does EDTA prevent?

A

blood clotting by combining with calcium ions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When should you not use EDTA?

A

if need to check animal’s calcium levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the ratio for EDTA and blood?

A

1-2mg/ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is Heparin?

A

a natural product of the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How does Heparin work?

A

by interfering with the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When is Heparin good?

A

if a plasma sample is needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Why is Heparin a poor choice for blood cell studies?

A

because it can cause clumping of leukocytes and may interfere with morphological analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is ACD?

A

Acid Citrate Dextrose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What can Sodium Citrate be used for?

A

blood transfusion or for platelet morphology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does Sodium Citrate interfere with?

A

some blood chemistry tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does Sodium Citrate prevent?

A

coagulation for only a few hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the overall best choice for ordinary blood work?

A

EDTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are some common errors in blood collection?

A

Hemolysis, Lipema, Fibrin Clot, Animal Attitude, Time of blood work, Freezing, Serum, Clotting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How does Hemolysis happen?

A

use of a wet syringe or failure to remove the needle before filling blood collection tubes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is hemolysis?

A

breakdown of RBC’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How you tell a Lipema has happened?

A

liquid portion of blood may appear cloudy if animal is not fasted before collection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When may a fibrin clot form?

A

when blood is centrifuged too soon after collection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The longer blood is held before examination, the greater the what?

A

deterioration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

when should blood smear be made?

A

within 15 minutes of collection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
can blood smears be stored in the fridge?
no
26
can you freeze whole blood?
no
27
How long should blood without anticoagulant stand at room temperature prior to centrifugation?
30 to 60 minutes
28
How does clotting happen?
too long collecting samples, failure to mix blood with anticoagulant, outdated anticoagulant, incorrect blood,anticoagulant ratio
29
What is a leukocyte?
white blood cell
30
A mature leukocyte has a what?
nucleus
31
A mature leukocyte may contain what?
granules
32
A mature leukocyte is larger than what?
mature RBC
33
How many groups of leukocytes are there?
2
34
How many types of leukocytes are there?
5
35
What are the 2 types of leukocytes?
Agranulocytes and Granulocytes
36
What is the function of the WBC?
to provide defense against disease
37
Each type of WBC has a specific what?
job
38
Quantitative changes of specific WBC provide info on what?
status of animal
39
What are the 3 types of Granulocytes?
Neutrophils, Eosinophils, and Basophils
40
What are the 2 types of Agranulocytes?
Monocytes and Lymphocytes
41
Leukocytes may vary in what slightly from species to species?
morphology
42
Where are WBC's formed?
bone marrow
43
What are the 2 types of Neutrophils?
Banded and segmented
44
The more segmented the neutrophil the _____ the cell
older
45
Neutrophils are what?
first line of defense
46
What do neutrophils do?
kill bacteria and clean up dead tissue
47
What happens when a neutrophil is full?
self destructs and is carried away in the lymph
48
In many mammals ______ cells are the most numerous found on differential
neutrophils
49
What is the transient time circulation for neutrophils?
10 hours
50
What may increase the numbers of neutrophils?
stress, steroids, or epinephrine
51
What is neutrophilia?
inflammation
52
Once stained, neutrophils commonly show what kind of nucleus?
a dark purple/black segmented nucleus
53
The granules of a neutrophils take on no specific what?
stain
54
Eosinophils have what kind of granules?
red-staining
55
Eosinophils have what kind of nucleus?
segmented
56
What is the life span of an Eosinophil?
may be less than 20 minutes
57
Eosinophils increase with what?
parasites and allergies
58
Basophils have what kind of granules?
dark staining
59
Which cell is rare in most species?
Basophils
60
Which cells contain and produce heparin?
Basophils
61
Basophils are released in areas of inflammation to do what?
reduce clotting of blood and lymph
62
Which cell may accompany Eosinophil increases?
Basophils
63
Quantitative changes of the WBC's may mean what?
increases or decreases in overall numbers or individual cell types
64
What is leukocytosis?
increases above normal counts
65
What are 4 main causes for increased of WBC's?
inflamation, stress/steroids, exercise/epinephrine, leukemia
66
inflammation does not equal what?
infection
67
What are some non-septic causes of inflammation?
necrosis, chemical, immune-medicated or toxic
68
We use CBC to do what?
document the presence of inflammatory disease, to suggest current prognosis, or monitor recovery
69
A CBC will not document what?
sepsis or specific agents or indicate location of inflammation
70
A leukogram is not always abnormal when?
an animal has an inflammatory disease, especially if it is mild, chronic, or not invading tissues
71
A left-shift severity is indicated by what?
absolute numbers of neutrophils and how immature the neutrophil population has become
72
What do toxic neutrophils suggest?
the presence of inflammation
73
Stress/Steroids are a common cause of what?
neutrophilia with a right-shift hypersegmented
74
Steroid treatment may see great increases in what cell type?
neutrophils
75
Don't expect a left-shift with steroids why?
since steroids decrease emigration of neutrophils from the vascular system
76
Transient leukocytosis during exercise or epinephrine do what?
release due to fear
77
Exercise/Epinephrine cause no real increase in total pool, only in what?
circulation, cats especially!
78
What is leukemia?
white blood
79
You may suspect leukemia when what happens?
leukocyte numbers are high or leukocytes appear abnormal on a differential count
80
Leukemia is most readily discovered by what?
an abundance of blast cells
81
What are monocytes?
the immature blood form of macrophages in the tissues
82
What do monocytes do?
remove large substances
83
What are some examples of the large substances that monocytes remove?
necrotic, fungi, foreign bodies, abnormal RBC's and neoplastic cells
84
Monocytosis is expected when?
during diseases likely to have a high need for macrophages
85
What are some diseases that have a high need for macrophages?
malignant tumors, hemorrhagic or immune-medicated diseases or chronic diseases like tuberculosis
86
Lymphocytosis usually indicates what?
a strong immune stimulation
87
What are some examples of strong immune stimulations?
chronic infection, viremia, immune- medicated
88
What may be observed during leukocytosis but are not a diagnostic of a specific problem?
reactive lymphocytes with dark basophilic cytoplasm larger size or irregular shaped nucleus
89
Eosinophils indicate what?
inflammatory process somewhere in the body
90
What do Eosinophils do?
kill parasites and regulate the intensity of hypersensitivity reactions
91
How do Eosinophils kill parasites?
by attaching to them and forming a digestive vacuole between the eos and the parasite where parasitical substances in the eos granules damage the wall of the parasite or ova
92
Basophils are triggered by what?
the same process as Eosinophils
93
Lymphocytopenia may indicate what?
an acute and severe disease
94
What are some examples of the diseases that Leukocytopenia might indicate?
K9 distemper, hepatitis, parvo, corona, panleukopenia, FeLV
95
During Leukocytopenia, when numbers return to normal that is a sign of what?
good sign of decreasing stress
96
A RBC is shaped like a what?
biconcave disk
97
Which cell is the most numerous type in the body?
red blood cell
98
Where are RBC's produced?
bone marrow
99
What is the lifespan of an RBC?
varies with species
100
How long is the lifespan of an RBC in a dog?
110 days
101
How long is the lifespan of an RBC in a cat?
68 days
102
How long is the lifespan of an RBC in a horse?
140 days
103
The red blood cell membrane is flexible why?
to alter shape when passing through small capillaries
104
What is the function of a RBC?
pass respiratory pigment hemoglobin between lungs and body tissues
105
Hemoglobin readily attracts and releases what?
oxygen
106
What element is essential to RBC production?
Iron
107
What is a Howell-Jolly body?
a remnant of nuclear material
108
A Howell-Jolly body may be considered normal in what species?
dogs, cats and young pigs
109
What does a Heinz body indicate?
an oxidative injury to the red cells hemoglobin
110
Heinz bodies are usually associated with what?
anemia
111
When can you see Heinz bodies better?
when counter stain with new methylene blue
112
What is Anisocytosis?
variation in size of RBC's
113
Anisocytosis is common in what species?
cattle and young animals
114
Anisocytosis is common with what?
most anemias
115
normal size RBC's are called what?
normocytes
116
tiny RBC's are called what?
microcytes
117
large RBC's are called what?
macrocytes
118
What is crenation?
an artifact due to dehydration of the RBC's due to slow drying of blood film
119
Crenation can be confused with what?
acanthocytes
120
What are acanthocytes?
cells that have sharp irregular points due to liver disease
121
What is polychromicity?
variation in the chromicity of the RBC's
122
What is hypochromic?
paler than normal
123
What causes a hypochromic cell?
decreased Hb associated with iron deficiency anema and lead poisoning
124
What is hyperchromic?
darker than normal
125
What is a reticulocyte?
immature red blood cell
126
What is hemagglutination?
clumping of RBC's due to disease
127
What does hemagglutination look similar too?
cold agglutination in equine blood sample
128
What are the formed elements of blood?
leukocytes, erythrocytes, thrombocytes
129
What is the fluid portion of whole blood?
plasma
130
A platelet is a fragment of what?
megakaryocyte
131
What is the fluid portion of clotted blood?
serum
132
Blood collected from an animal that has not been fasted may result in a sample that is what?
lipemic
133
A common type of blood film uses a technique that does what to blood across the base slide?
pushes
134
Blood film staining technique follows what procedure?
fix, eosin stain, basic stain, rinse
135
Once the blood film has completed the staining process it cannot be altered or adjusted, true or false?
false
136
EDTA is a common anticoagulant used for blood analysis because why?
it creates few artifacts and maintains cell quality for up to 6 hours
137
The site of choice for blood collection from the cat is what?
jugular vein
138
Anisocytosis is a term used to describe erythrocytes that are what?
of variable sizes
139
The erythrocyte of the domestic dog is described as what?
biconcave
140
What is the best anticoagulant for transfusion?
ACD
141
All blood cells originate from what?
stem cells
142
Which cell type is considered to be the bloods first line of defense?
neutrophil
143
Prior to making a blood film, it is important to do what?
gently rock the tube to mix and check the color of the plasma before mixing
144
Thrombocytes initiate what?
clotting cascade
145
Thrombocytes activate what?
vasoconstriction
146
This white blood cell contains granules in the cytoplasm that take up neither the eosin stain nor the basic stain
neutrophil
147
This blood cell contains granules in the cytoplasm that take up the basic stain
basophil
148
This white blood cell works against parasites and may also be found in increased numbers with allergic reactions
eosinophil
149
The results of a relative count on a differential examination, should be labeled as what?
percentage
150
This white blood cell produces heparin
basophil
151
The largest normal white cell type found in peripheral blood is the what?
monocyte
152
A "tiger top" tube is designed for collection of blood to obtain a what?
serum sample
153
This white blood cell has a large solid nucleus, cytoplasm that is easily moved and may be described as amoeboid
lymphocyte
154
The approximate lifespan of a lymphocyte is what?
years
155
This large white blood cell may be found in increased numbers with chronic conditions or necrotic tissue
monocyte
156
Whole blood samples may be stored frozen for long periods of time and still give useful results, true or false?
false
157
A platelet evaluation can be done by the HM5, true or false?
false (it does a complete count)
158
The HM5 requires what kind of sample?
whole blood, EDTA
159
Thrombocytes have a large dark nucleus and pale blue cytoplasm, true or false?
false
160
The validity of usefulness of laboratory results can be influenced by many factors that should be understood by the technician so that they may be eliminated or minimized as much as possible, true or false?
true
161
Blood is a type of connective tissue, true or false?
true
162
The "buffy" coat layer of the PCV is composed of what?
white blood cells and platelets
163
A canine patient has a recorded PCV of 11%, is that within normal ranges?
no (very low)
164
The size and length of needle used to collect blood may vary, but should not be small than what?
25g
165
Suggested techniques for performing a differential leukocyte count on a blood smear are what?
hop-scotch and battlement
166
From your lab experiences counting a differential "relative" value, an eosinophil result of 15% would be considered what?
above the normal value in the dog
167
Hemoglobin evaluations give information about the status of this cell
erythrocyte
168
A PCV test is useful in determining the % of what in a volume of blood?
erythrocytes
169
Vet scan instrument requires what sample?
whole blood heparin and serum
170
A blood sample that has been collected to harvest serum should be what?
allowed to stand at room temp for 30 min, centrifuged prior to separation, can be frozen once separated
171
Increases in the number of monocytes are expected during the course of a disease that are likely to have a high need for what?
macrophages
172
Non-regenerative anemia is sometimes due to what?
iron deficiency
173
Red blood cells that are microcytic may be due to the presence of what?
reticulocytes
174
Equine blood is noted for what?
rouleaux and eosinophil
175
Goat blood is noted for what?
rbc size
176
Cat blood is noted for what?
emotional leukocytosis and eos with rod-shaped granules
177
An abundance of hyper-segmented neutrophils on a differential count indicates what?
right shift/old segs
178
In which domestic animal, is a low platelet count considered normal?
horse
179
What can be used to determine total protein from an EDTA tube?
plasma
180
What setting on the centrifuge is used to run a PCV?
MCHT
181
The formation of blood is called what?
hemopoiesis
182
Neutrophils are able to enter tissues quickly by a process called what?
diapedesis
183
Platelets contribute to hemostasis in what way?
aggregation
184
A heparin tube can be used for blood transfusion, true or false?
false
185
Long term or chronic diseases such as malaria, endocarditis, tuberculosis, typhoid fever or Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever may call for increased numbers of what?
monocytes
186
Alaskan Malamutes with hereditary hemolytic anemia may show what?
stomacyte
187
The avian leukocyte most often encountered on a blood film is the ______, which is very similar in function to the mammalian?
heterophil
188
Avian blood is very what?
fragile
189
What 2 leukocytes that are easily confused with one another?
eosinophil and heterophil
190
The erythrocytes of both avian and reptilian species are what?
nucleated
191
Any agent that elicits an animal's immune response is called what?
an antigen
192
What are two fluid systems that are included in the discussion of the immune system of the body?
blood and lymph
193
This cell functions to attract, adhere to, engulf and ingest a foreign body?
phagocyte
194
Wandering macrophages make their way from place to place by this method?
diapedesis
195
Azurophils are leukocytes that fight against bacteria in the what?
reptile
196
A reticulocyte count will help the vet to determine what?
regenerative anemia
197
A substance that elicits an immune response is called a what?
antigen
198
What cell engulfs and ingests foreign bodies?
macrophage
199
T cell production is a function of the way?
thymus
200
The major function of the lymphocyte B cells is to produce antibodies, true or false?
true
201
Select the two fundamental adaptive mechanisms within the immune system?
vaccination and immunoglobulin administration
202
The HM5 does not provide a result for Hb, therefore we use the hemoglobinometer, true or false?
true
203
The value for a total leukocyte count is indicated in _____per mm3, while a value for a total erythrocyte count is indicated in _____ per mm3?
thousands/millions
204
Basophils are often common in some lab animal species, true or false?
true
205
A karloff body may be found in what species?
guinea pig
206
Blood collected by cardiocentesis vs tail vein in the mouse may differ in value, true or false?
true
207
Inclusion body disease is a deadly problem in what group of animals?
pythons