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A&P II > FINAL > Flashcards

FINAL Flashcards

1
Q

An advantage to adaptive immunity is ________.

A

its memory cells that provide quicker, larger and more efficient immune response upon second exposure to an antigen

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2
Q

An advantage of innate immunity is ________.

A

its barriers that prevent pathogens from entering into the body

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3
Q

Choose the best description of an antigen.

A

a particle that triggers the adaptive immunity

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4
Q

Which of the following is not a type of T cell?

A

antigenic

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5
Q

Which of the following best describes the qualities of most antigens?

A

macromolecules that are foreign to the host

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6
Q

B lymphocytes develop immunocompetence in the ________.

A

bone marrow

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7
Q

Inflammation ________.

A

brings more leukocytes to the sight of infection

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8
Q

All but one of the following occur during the inflammatory response. Select the example below that does not describe the process of inflammation.

A

Vasoconstriction will prevent excessive blood loss due to injury.

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9
Q

A flu vaccine is needed seasonally to be effective but a polio vaccine is only needed once. The best explanation of this is ________

A

the flu has several strains that change seasonally

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10
Q

A vaccine is effective because ________.

A

the secondary response of the adaptive immunity is faster and more efficient the primary response

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11
Q

The main site of gas exchange is the ________.

A

alveoli

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12
Q

The loudness of a person’s voice depends on the ________.

A

force with which air rushes across the vocal folds

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13
Q

Which of the following is the leading cause of cancer death for both men and women in North America?

A

lung

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14
Q

Surfactant helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing by ________.

A

interfering with the cohesiveness of water molecules, thereby reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid

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15
Q

Tidal volume is air ________.

A

exchanged during normal breathing

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16
Q

Which of the following is NOT a form of lung cancer?

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

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17
Q

The most powerful respiratory stimulus for breathing in a healthy person is ________.

A

increase of carbon dioxide

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18
Q

Which of the following refers to the movement of air into and out of the lungs?

A

pulmonary ventilation

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19
Q

The relationship between gas pressure and gas volume is described by ________.

A

Boyle’s law

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20
Q

Which of the following maintains the patency (openness) of the trachea?

A

C-shaped cartilage rings

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21
Q

Which of the organs listed below is involved in all of the following processes: secretion, mechanical breakdown of food, digestion and absorption?

A

the stomach

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22
Q

A ruptured appendix is life threatening because ________.

A

it is likely to cause massive infection of the abdominopelvic cavity

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23
Q

Which of the following is not true of saliva?

A

contains acids which aid in chemical digestion

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24
Q

All of the following are true of swallowing (deglutition) except one. Select the statement that is not true of swallowing.

A

The epiglottis assists in propelling food into the trachea.

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25
Q

Which of the following is true concerning the number and type of permanent teeth?

A

There are 32 permanent teeth, and the wisdom teeth are the last to emerge.

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26
Q

What part of the tooth bears the force and resists the friction of chewing?

A

enamel

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27
Q

The chemical and mechanical processes of food breakdown are called ________.

A

digestion

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28
Q

The mechanical and chemical receptors that control digestive activity are located ________.

A

in the walls of the tract organs

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29
Q

Select the description below that illustrates a difference between a sphincter and circular muscle

A

A sphincter is a thickening of circular muscle that can prevent the movement of digesting materials while circular muscle is involved in propulsion digesting material.

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30
Q

A doctor consulting a patient that recently has had their gall bladder removed would likely advise ________.

A

eating foods that are low in fat

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31
Q

The bolus is liquefied in the ________ and it is now called chyme.

A

stomach

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32
Q

Which vitamin requires intrinsic factor in order to be absorbed?

A

b12

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33
Q

The sheets of peritoneal membrane that hold the digestive tract in place are called ________.

A

mesenteries

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34
Q

The dental formula for an adult is 2-1-2-3. What does the 1 stand for?

A

canine tooth

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35
Q

Peristaltic waves are ________.

A

waves of muscular contractions that propel contents from one point to another

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36
Q

Chemical digestion reduces large complex molecules to simpler compounds by the process of ________.

A

catabolism

37
Q

You have just eaten a meal high in complex carbohydrates. Which of the following enzymes will help to digest the meal?

A

amylase

38
Q

Which of the following is least involved in the mechanical breakdown of food, digestion, or absorption?

A

esophagus

39
Q

From the esophagus to the anal canal, the walls of every organ of the alimentary canal are made up of the same four basic layers. Arrange them in order from the lumen.

A

mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa

40
Q

Most inspired particles such as dust fail to reach the lungs because of the ________.

A

ciliated mucous lining in the nose

41
Q

Bile salts break up the fat globule into smaller fat droplets. This role of bile salts is best described as ________.

A

lipid emulsification

42
Q

Which respiratory-associated muscles would contract or relax during forced expiration, for example blowing up a balloon?

A

internal intercostals and abdominal muscles would contract

43
Q

Respiratory control centers are located in the ________.

A

medulla and pons

44
Q

The left lung differs from the right in that the left lung has ________.

A

a cardiac notch

45
Q

Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is ________.

A

greater than the pressure in the atmosphere

46
Q

Inspiration occurs when the ________ is less than the ________.

A

intrapulmonary pressure; atmospheric pressure

47
Q

Which of the following maintains the patency (openness) of the trachea?

A

C-shaped cartilage rings

48
Q

Possible causes of hypoxia include ________.

A

too little oxygen in the atmosphere

49
Q

The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia caused by ________.

A

vasodilation

50
Q

Production is regulated by chemicals that reset the body’s thermostat to a higher setting resulting in:

A

Fever

51
Q

A fact of antigens

A

Antigens are substances that activate the adaptive immune response.

52
Q

The walls of the alveoli are composed of two types of cells, type I and type II alveolar cells. The function of type II alveolar cells is to ________.

A

secrete surfactant

53
Q

Which of the following is associated with passive immunity?

A

passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus

54
Q

Cancer cells and virus-infected body cells can be killed before activation of adaptive immunity by ________.

A

natural killer cells

55
Q

B cells respond to the initial antigen challenge by ________

A

producing progeny cells that include plasma cells and memory cells

56
Q

Interferons ________.

A

interfere with viral replication within cells

57
Q

Allergens differ from antigens because ________.

A

allergens produce an abnormally large immune response to what is an otherwise harmless particle

58
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of the inflammatory response?

A

replaces injured tissues with connective tissue

59
Q

Vaccines work by ________.

A

priming the adaptive immunity with a relatively harmless primary exposure

60
Q

The molecule that serves as the major source of readily available fuel for neurons and blood cells is ________.

A

glucose

61
Q

Catabolism would be best described as a process that ________.

A

breaks down complex structures to simpler ones

62
Q

Gluconeogenesis is the process in which ________.

A

glucose is formed from noncarbohydrate molecules

63
Q

Which of the following is the major role of leptin in the body?

A

increase appetite and food intake

64
Q

The amount of ________ produced is probably the most important hormonal factor in determining basal metabolic rate (BMR).

A

thyroxine

65
Q

The term basal metabolic rate reflects the ________.

A

energy the body needs to perform only its most essential activities

66
Q

The process of breaking triglycerides down into glycerol and fatty acids is known as ________.
gluconeogenesis

A

lipolysis

67
Q

The primary function of cellular respiration is to _______

A

break down food molecules and generate ATP

68
Q

Anabolism includes reactions in which ________.

A

larger molecules or structures are built from smaller ones

69
Q

The term metabolism is best defined as ________.

A

the sum of all biochemical reactions in the body

70
Q

Which of the following is not associated with the renal corpuscle?

A

a vasa recta

71
Q

The kidneys are stimulated to produce renin ________.

A

by a decrease in the blood pressure

72
Q

Which of the following acts as the trigger for the initiation of micturition (voiding)?

A

the stretching of the bladder wall

73
Q

Which of the following is not reabsorbed by the proximal convoluted tubule?

A

creatinine

74
Q

The functional and structural unit of the kidneys is the ________.

A

nephron

75
Q

Which of the choices below is not a function of the urinary system?

A

eliminates solid, undigested wastes and excretes carbon dioxide, water, salts, and heat

76
Q

The mechanism of water reabsorption by the renal tubules is ________.

A

osmosis

77
Q

The renal corpuscle is made up of ________.

A

Bowman’s capsule and glomerulus

78
Q

An increase in the permeability of the cells of the collecting tubule to water is due to a(n) ________.

A

increase in the production of ADH

79
Q

The urinary bladder is composed of ________ epithelium.

A

transitional

80
Q

The dartos and cremaster muscles are important to the integrity of the male reproductive system. Which of the following is true about the role they play?

A

They regulate the temperature of the testes.

81
Q

Which of the following female structures is homologous to the male scrotum?

A

labia majora

82
Q

The most important risk for testicular cancer in young males is ________.

A

undescended testes

83
Q

Which of the following glands are responsible for 70% of the synthesis of semen?

A

the seminal vesicles

84
Q

The primary function of the uterus is to ________.

A

receive, retain, and nourish a fertilized ovum

85
Q

The structures that receive the ovulated oocyte, providing a site for fertilization, are called the ________.

A

fallopian tubes

86
Q

How do the testes respond to exposure to excessive body warmth?

A

They move away from the pelvic cavity.

87
Q

Select the correct statement about male sexual response.

A

Erection is the result of vascular spaces in the erectile tissues filling with blood.

88
Q

Prostate cancer is ________.

A

sometimes a slow-growing cancer that may never represent a threat to the patient

89
Q

Erection of the penis results from ________.

A

a parasympathetic reflex

A&P II (2 decks)

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