Final Assessment Q&A's Flashcards
use this deck to study and pass your state exam (218 cards)
1
Q
Blood banking is performed in what laboratory department?
Immunohematology
Serology
Chemistry
Hematology
A
Immunohematology
2
Q
Which RBC antigen determines a patient’s Rh blood type?
B
C
A
D
A
D
3
Q
Which of the following are traits exhibited daily by a professional?
A Integrity, apprehensive, compassionate, dependable
B Integrity, confident, compassionate, disloyal, ethical
C Integrity, confident, compassionate, dependable
D Integrity, apprehensive, indifferent, disloyal, immoral
A
C Integrity, confident, compassionate, dependable
4
Q
In what form is most of the carbon dioxide transported in the blood?
Carbon monoxide
Carbon dioxide
Bicarbonate anions
Carbonic acid
A
Bicarbonate anions
5
Q
How is a microbe that is sensitive to an antibiotic show this on an agar plate?
Hemolysis under the disk
Microbe grows up to the disk
Ring of no growth around the disk
The agar changes color
A
Ring of no growth around the disk
6
Q
A __________ is a set of procedures and guidelines that uses values, actions, and choices to help determine right from wrong.
TORT Actions
Standard Operating Procedure
Code of Ethics
Patient’s Bill of Rights
A
Code of Ethics
7
Q
If a stat test is ordered and a patient is not in his/her room, what should you do?
Postpone the collection
Locate the patient
Wait in the patient’s room until he or she returns
Leave the request at the nurse’s station
A
Locate the patient
8
Q
The lower the CV, the more __________ the test procedure.
Unreliable
Precise
Accurate
Reliable
A
Precise
9
Q
What is the most abundant electrolyte in the body?
Calcium
Sodium
Chloride
Potassium
A
Calcium
10
Q
When explaining a blood culture procedure to the patient, which statement is appropriate information to provide to the patient?
A. “I will swab the area twice to ensure that is sterile for the procedure”
B. “I will clean the area, but I do not need to let it dry before the procedure”
C. “I’m going to leave the tourniquet on for 2 minutes before performing the blood draw”
D. “I will be drawing the blood from your fingertip”
A
“I will swab the area twice to ensure that is sterile for the procedure”
11
Q
Which is the best course of action if a control value falls outside of the acceptable range when using a glucometer?
Report to a supervisor then run a patient sample
Notify the patient that they cannot be tested today
Take correct action and repeat the control
Run a patient sample
A
Take correct action and repeat the control
12
Q
When completing a butterfly draw on a pregnant patient, the phlebotomist accidentally scratches the top of her hand through the glove as the needle is withdrawn. What should be done next?
A. Wash it off but do not report it because it is a superficial wound
B. Complete an accidental exposure report after performing first aid
C. Do not worry about it because the patient is pregnant and not a risk
D. Get a complete history on the patient to give to the laboratory supervisor
A
Complete an accidental exposure report after performing first aid
13
Q
Which of these is an example of an analyte?
Calcium
Colorimetric
Serum
Glucometer
A
Calcium
14
Q
Which ions are used when calculating the anion gap?
Cl, HCO3, NaCl, H2CO3
Na, K, Cl, HCO3
Cl, HCO3, Ca, Mg
Na, K, Ca, Mg
A
Na, K, Cl, HCO3
15
Q
The primary source of energy in the body are __________.
Electrolytes
Carbohydrates
Proteins
Lipids
A
Carbohydrates
16
Q
How does HIPAA define PHI?
Protected Health Information
Public Health Information
Prohibited Health Information
Pertinent Health Information
A
Protected Health Information
17
Q
Which is the best method for collecting a 24-hour urine specimen?
A. Discard the first morning specimen and collect all specimens, including the second morning first void
B. Collect the first morning void, collect all specimens, and discard the second morning void
C. Collect the first and second morning voids and discard all specimens in between
D. Discard the first and second morning voids and collect all specimens in between
A
A. Discard the first morning specimen and collect all specimens, including the second morning first void
18
Q
What laboratory department monitors therapeutic drugs?
Toxicology
Immunology
Endocrinology
Hematology
A
Toxicology
19
Q
Producing the same test result over and over again is an example of __________.
Precision
Accuracy
Reliability
Luck
A
Precision
20
Q
Non-consensual touching may be considered __________.
Malpractice
Slander
Assault
Battery
A
Battery
21
Q
Which of the following is too small to be seen under a standard laboratory microscope?
Yeast
Fungus
Bacteria
Virus
A
Virus
22
Q
Which of the following is the smallest needle?
19 Gauge
21 Gauge
20 Gauge
18 Gauge
A
21 Gauge
23
Q
A __________ could be caused by deterioration of reagents used in testing.
Trend downward
Sudden shift
Gradual shift
Trend upward
A
Trend downward
24
Q
Violations of patient privacy or security are managed by what Federal entity?
OSHA
CLIA
CMS
HHS
A
HHS - Health and Human Services
25
Which urine specimen is the most concentrated with the highest specific gravity?
Random
24-Hour
Midstream clean catch
First morning void
First morning void
26
A polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test amplifies and measures __________.
ATP
DNA
Antibodies
Antigens
DNA
27
What is the best way to draw blood from a sleeping patient?
Refuse to draw and return after they awaken
Ask the nurse for permission to draw them while asleep
Draw as quickly as possible so as to not wake them
Gently wake them first
Gently wake them first
28
What is the best way to draw blood from a sleeping patient?
A. Refuse to draw and return after they awaken
B. Ask the nurse for permission to draw them while asleep
C. Draw as quickly as possible so as to not wake them
D. Gently wake them first
Gently wake them first
29
The federal law that requires employers to provide a safe and healthy working environment is __________.
OSHA
CLSI
TORT
CLIA
OSHA
30
Which of the following is true about confirmation testing?
They are moderate or high complex tests
31
Which of the following would most likely contaminate a reagent?
Using tap water to reconstitute
32
The physician has ordered coagulation studies and chemistry tests. Which of the following should the phlebotomist recognize as the correct order of draw?
Red followed by a Light-Blue-Topped Tube
Light Blue followed by a Red-Topped Tube
Green followed by a Yellow-Topped Tube
Yellow followed by a Green-Topped Tube
Light Blue followed by a Red-Topped Tube
33
Iatrogenic anemia is caused by __________.
Dietary iron deficiency
Sickle cells
Drawing too much blood
Cancer
Drawing too much blood
34
When using a CoaguCheck coagulation point-of-care analyzer, how soon after pricking the patient's finger must the blood be applied to the test strip?
Within 15 seconds
35
For a laboratory to pass an external proficiency test, it must fall within __________.
2 SD
3 SD
4 SD
1 SD
2 SD
36
What is the difference between an oral glucose challenge test and a postprandial glucose test?
Oral glucose challenge drinks a glucose solution, and a post-prandial eats a meal
37
The patient’s requisition indicates blood cultures, CBC, and blood sugar. Which of the following should the phlebotomist recognize as the correct order of draw?
Yellow, Lavender, Gray
38
Which of these is an advantage to point-of-care testing?
Smaller blood samples required
39
An absorbance spectrophotometer relies on __________.
Color change
40
Which of the following PPE must a phlebotomist use when performing a skin puncture or venipuncture in the physician office laboratory?
Gloves
41
What would render a blood specimen collected for a CBC unusable?
Hemolysis
42
Which quality calculation shows the variability of a test procedure?
Coefficient of variation (CV)
43
Platelets are also called __________.
Thrombocytes
44
Which of the following is the best technique when a physician calls for PHI on a patient?
Place the caller on hold while looking up the information
45
Which is true about critical values?
They cannot be reported until resolved
They are normal
They are life threatening
They must always be repeated
They are life threatening
46
What is the greatest source of error in the laboratory?
Transcribing the wrong result
47
If a waived test is modified, it is classified as __________.
High complex
48
Information such as the patient's address, phone number, and diagnosis is considered __________.
PHI - protected health information
49
PPM laboratory tests may be performed only by __________.
Pathologist's assistants
Physicians
Medical laboratory assistants
Medical laboratory technologists
Physicians
50
Autoverification checks for __________.
Critical values
51
Which of the following is the breakdown and removal of a clot?
Acidosis
Fibrinolysis
Glycolysis
Hemolysis
Fibrinolysis
52
How should specimens for proficiency testing be handled by the medical laboratory assistant?
In the laboratory’s regular workload
Separately by supervisors only
Separately from all other specimens
In the regular workload but separate from patient samples
In the laboratory’s regular workload
53
Tourniquets should be placed __________ inches above the venipuncture site.
3-4
54
What is the normal pH of blood?
7.35-7.45
55
Which is a correct term to use when entering ICD codes?
Diagnosed
56
Aseptic refers to __________.
Being free of disease-causing microbes
57
In order to be reimbursed by a federal agency, the laboratory must do what?
Have a current CLIA certificate
58
What is the primary difference between serum and plasma?
Plasma contains fibrinogen
59
Which is the most reliable form of communication?
Direct verbal
Facial expressions
Facial expressions
60
A WBC Differential is performed on a(n) __________.
Microscope
61
While in the middle of a difficult draw, the patient states that she feels like she is going to faint. Which action should be taken?
Stop the procedure and have the patient put their head down; apply a cold compress
62
Which is being accessed in the antecubital space with venipuncture?
Vein
63
The phlebotomist should use which angle of insertion when performing venipuncture?
15-30 degrees
64
Which of the following procedures is appropriate for preparing blood and other potential infectious materials for transport?
Place the materials in a leakproof container
65
Light-blue-topped tubes contain which of the following anticoagulant additive?
Sodium citrate
66
When should new supplies be ordered?
When the shelf is empty
When taking the last item
When minimum stocking levels are met
When stocking levels fall below maximum levels
When minimum stocking levels are met
67
Normal values always fall within the laboratory's __________.
Reference range
67
When is the best time to gather and assemble phlebotomy supplies for use?
In front of the patient
68
The study of blood is __________.
Hematology
69
__________ have known values and are used to check that the testing system is working properly.
Controls
70
Immediately upon opening a new test kit the medical laboratory assistant should __________.
Initial and date the kit
71
Which of these is most important when using a centrifuge?
Balance the tubes
72
If a tourniquet is left in place too long, which of the following might the phlebotomist cause?
Hemoconcentration
73
The bloodborne pathogen standard imposes requirements on employers of workers who may be exposed to __________.
Blood
74
Which of the following should the phlebotomist use to clean up a blood or cerebrospinal fluid spill?
Chlorine bleach
75
Keeping expired reagents in the laboratory violates what law?
CLIA
76
A control value plotted just below the +3SD line on a Levey-Jennings chart is said to be __________.
Out of control
77
Adjusting the workspace to reduce stress on the musculoskeletal system is known as __________.
Ergonomics
78
Which of the following is an examination error?
Drawing a gold top instead of a blue top tube
Reporting a glucose value as 58 instead of 85
Storing reagents at the wrong temperature
A patient failed to fast for a fasting test
Storing reagents at the wrong temperature
79
If a blood pressure cuff is used as a tourniquet, to what pressure is it inflated?
Just below the patient's diastolic pressure
80
When preparing to draw blood on an adult patient while the spouse is present in the room, which of the following is the proper procedure?
Obtain verbal consent from the patient
81
Which of the following should the phlebotomist provide to the patient for a random urine specimen?
Clean container
81
Which leukocyte is the most common in a healthy individual?
Neutrophils
82
Something that produces an immune response in the body is called a(n) __________.
Antigen
83
Which of the following would be considered a normal INR result?
2
84
What federal law protects workers against health hazards related to bloodborne pathogens?
Needlestick Safety and Prevention Act
85
Which level of biosafety laboratory is involved in pathogen identification in a routine microbiology laboratory and poses a moderate threat to a healthy adult?
2
86
What test determines the percentage of RBCs in whole blood?
Hematocrit
87
What is the most abundant protein in plasma?
Albumin
88
Endocrinology studies __________.
Enzymes
Antigen-antibodies
Hormones
Therapeutic drugs
Hormones
89
Which is the most commonly performed waived test in Hematology?
Hemoglobin
90
What does Streptococcus pyogenes from a throat culture with beta hemolysis look like on a sheep's blood agar plate?
Clear ring
91
Which might a patient complain of with venipuncture?
Pain
92
In 1988, which law was passed that determined minimum personnel testing requirements for each class of testing?
CLIA
93
In reference to a laboratory delta check, what does "delta" mean?
Change
93
What is the greatest cause of error in the medical laboratory?
Transcribing results incorrectly
94
Which of these is a disadvantage of point-of-care testing?
Slower turnaround time
Small handheld analyzers
Increased length of hospital stays
Decreased proficiency of testing personnel
Decreased proficiency of testing personnel
95
An extremely small blood vessel located within the tissue of the body is known as which of the following?
Capillary
96
When laboratory test results from the same patient are compared, this is called a(n) __________ check.
Delta
97
What is required to allow a chair to be used for a phlebotomy procedure?
It must have arms
98
Which protein is increased when there is non-specific inflammation in the body?
C-reactive
99
Whose requirements must be foremost when coding a procedure?
Payer
Patient
WHO
CMS
Payer
100
What is the best method to identify an incoherent inpatient before drawing their blood?
Check the patient's ID band
101
What is the liquid portion of blood called?
Water
Plasma
Formed elements
Serum
Plasma
102
Which of the following is a GHS signal word?
Danger
103
It is important to properly collect a specimen for Microbiology because some microbes are fastidious, which means they __________.
Require special growth conditions
104
The purpose of a Chemical Hygiene Plan is to __________.
Train employees on chemical risks
105
106
What is the common name for the drug Warfarin?
Coumadin
107
Which electrolyte is essential to the coagulation process?
Sodium
Calcium
Calcium
108
In what form do the kidneys excrete ammonia?
Blood urea nitrogen
108
Light projected in a spectrophotometer is measured in __________.
Nanometers
109
Seven consecutively decreasing values that cross the mean form a __________.
Trend
110
When using reagents, what is the top priority?
Personal safety
111
What consent does the patient give when she sticks out her arm for a venipuncture?
Implied
112
If the phlebotomist is preparing to complete a blood draw and the last red topped tube is expired, what should be done to complete the blood draw with a red-topped tube?
Dispose of the expired tube and obtain another
113
Rheumatoid factor is detected using __________.
Latex agglutination
113
When measuring water in a volumetric cylinder, what part of the meniscus is used to read the volume?
Bottom of the meniscus
113
What is the most common parasite seen in urine sediment?
Spermatozoa
Yeast
Trichomonas
Cast
Trichomonas
114
After the phlebotomist completes the patient’s blood draw, syncope is observed and addressed. What has happened to the patient?
The patient fainted
115
If the patient indicates that he or she has experienced syncope in the past with blood draws, which action should be taken by the phlebotomist?
Place the patient in the supine position
116
Which of the following is true when operating a handheld glucose monitoring device?
A drop of whole blood is added to a test strip
117
What part of a computer links a point-of-care analyzer to an LIS?
Middleware
118
The most common organism that causes HAI through contact transmission is __________.
Staphylococcus aureus
Helicobacter pylori
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Clostridium difficile
Clostridium difficile
119
Hemoglobin A1C is a test to detect __________.
Diabetes
120
Why must phlebotomy trays be disinfected on a scheduled basis?
They carry HAI
120
The PT/INR test is used to monitor __________.
Warfarin
121
What test is necessary to calculate the glomerular filtration rate?
Creatinine
122
A factor that contributes to the phlebotomist's professional image is __________.
Attitude
123
What is the best resource for determining how best to store reagents?
CDC website
Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute
Standard operating procedure
Manufacturer's instructions
Manufacturer's instructions
124
What is the most common test performed in the Hematology Department?
CBC
125
Laboratory proficiency testing is an example of __________ controls.
External
126
A laboratory test that is simple to perform so that an inaccurate result is not likely is deemed __________.
Moderate complex
Waived
High complex
PPM
Waived
127
Where is the best place to find information on how long a test kit can be used after it is opened?
Manufacturer's insert
128
All of the following except __________ may result in prolonged bleeding at the puncture site.
Vitamin K
129
Where is the best place to find information on how to store and handle a chemical in the laboratory?
Safety Data Sheets
130
Which of the following blood types is identified as a universal recipient?
A
AB
B
O
AB
131
When is the needle safety device activated following venipuncture procedure?
Right after the needle is removed from the patient
132
What do aerobic bacteria require for growth?
Oxygen
133
Which Gram stain solution stains bacteria purple?
Gram's Iodine
Crystal violet
Gram's violet
Safranin
Crystal violet
133
What would most likely be seen in urine sediment with a positive test for nitrite on the dipstick?
Protein
Bacteria
WBCs
RBCs
Bacteria
134
Failing to maintain confidentiality of a patient's laboratory results is what type of error?
Examination
Nonexamination
Post examination
Preexamination
Post examination
135
When providing instructions to a patient to collect a sputum sample, which of the following is the most appropriate direction?
"You should provide the specimen in the morning before eating or drinking"
136
A GHS pictogram with an exclamation mark in it warns of what hazard?
Carcinogen
Irritant
Explosives
Corrosion
Irritant
137
When examining a slide using a microscope, what power is used first?
10X
138
Which of these is the best method of protecting electronic PHI?
Never place a phone caller on hold
Limit how many coworkers share your passwords
Be sure to provide complete patient information
Change your passwords often
Change your passwords often
139
The most sensitive, specific marker for a heart attack is __________.
Troponin I
140
After completing a blood draw using the evacuated tube system, the phlebotomist will complete which of the following?
Invert each tube the required number of times to mix the additive with the specimen
141
The phlebotomist will recognize the need to label tubes properly and at which appropriate time?
In view of the patient after the blood is drawn
142
For which of the following conditions are dermal punctures appropriate?
Obesity
Venous thrombosis
Burns
Dehydration
Obesity
143
Which of these is a form of nonverbal communication?
Touching
144
Which of the following additional precautions are taken when collecting a specimen from a patient known to be infected with respiratory microorganisms less than 5 um in diameter?
AIrborne
145
In which of the following positions should the phlebotomist place the patient’s arm for venipuncture?
The arm should be straight in an outward direction
The elbow should be bent at a 90-degree angle
Fully extend arm in a downward direction
Slanted upward with the hand above the heart
Fully extend arm in a downward direction
146
A patient that is type B positive would have __________.
B and D antigen, A antibody
147
The laboratory uses __________ codes to detail what procedure was performed.
ICD
WHO
ABO
CPT
CPT
147
What federal law requires all laboratories to participate in an external quality control program?
CLIA
148
If the refrigerator temperature is within normal limits, you should __________.
Record the temperature, initial, and date
149
Ion selective electrodes are used to detect and measure electrolytes in what methodology?
Potentiometry
150
A comprehensive set of policies, procedures, and practices necessary to make sure a laboratory’s results are reliable is/are __________.
Quality Assurance
151
A phlebotomist who is choosing supplies for a geriatric patient with fragile veins should choose which of the following methods for blood culture collection?
Venipuncture using the butterfly method
Capillary puncture from the finger
Capillary puncture from the thumb
Venipuncture using the evacuated tube method
Venipuncture using the butterfly method
152
What is the primary function of an eosinophil?
Kill parasites
153
Which of the following is an acceptable way of protecting a patient's confidentiality?
Close the door or pull the curtains shut when discussing a patient's condition
154
Which of the following is considered PPE?
Nonlatex gloves
155
The principles of right or wrong conduct as they apply to professional problems are called __________.
Ethics
156
A phlebotomy technician has received a urine drug screen specimen with a temperature of 26.8⁰ C (80.2⁰F). Which of the following actions should be taken?
Accept the specimen for processing
Have the patient provide another sample under observation
Draw a blood sample
Ask the patient if the specimen was altered
Have the patient provide another sample under observation
157
What component of a spectrophotometer contains the patient sample?
Photodetector
Radiant energy source
Cuvette
Sample selector
Cuvette
158
A solution of known concentration used in Beer's-Lambert Law calculation is a(n) __________.
Standard
158
What test is generally used to monitor a patient receiving heparin therapy?
PTT
159
CDC guidelines for health care facilities and professionals include the use of Standard Precautions, which serve to __________.
Reduce the risk of transmissions of bloodborne and other pathogens
159
What is exhibited when a laboratory assistant identifies with the patient's thoughts or feelings?
Kinesics
Ethics
Empathy
Proxemics
Empathy
159
Which of the following is an example of a nonexamination error?
Computer interface errors
159
Facial expressions are a form of __________.
Kinesics
Proxemics
Kinesics
159
Which is the best specimen to use when performing waived testing in chemistry?
Whole blood
159
The Needlestick Safety and Prevention Act of 2000 requires employers to provide what vaccine free of charge?
Hepatitis B
159
Which calculation tells how a set of values are distributed around the mean?
Standard deviation (SD)
160
What reagent is commonly used when performing PT and PTT tests?
Thromboplastin
161
The Needlestick Safety and Prevention Act of 2000 is part of what plan?
Infection Control
162
__________ measures light that is scattered by the amount of turbidity in a sample-reagent reaction.
Nephelometry
163
Reagents are used to __________.
Check the testing system
Calibrate an analyzer
Produce a chemical reaction
Rehydrate lyophilized samples
Produce a chemical reaction
164
The law that established national standards for the electronic exchange of PHI is __________.
HIPPA
165
The CLIA federal regulations are administered by __________.
CMS
166
What kind of blood do arteries carry?
Deoxygenated
Oxygenated
Oxygenated
167
Which microscope objective requires oil be applied to the slide before engaging the objective?
100X
168
The average of a set of numbers is the __________.
Mean
169
Which of the following will likely result in a hematoma with venipuncture?
Needle completely through the vein
170
Where are blood typing antigens found?
On RBCs
171
What is the proper procedure for cleaning a venipuncture site?
Back and forth friction
Circular motion from the outside in
Circular motion from the inside out
One, single swipe
Back and forth friction
172
An Advance Beneficiary Notice is given to a patient to complete and sign when __________.
Medicare payment is expected to be denied
173
Results that fall considerably outside the laboratory's normal range are __________ values.
Panic
174
Codes that describe the patient's signs and symptoms are __________ codes.
ICD
175
Which of the following is true when restocking supplies?
Rotate to use the oldest first
176
Which of the following is an abnormal color of urine?
Red
177
Which of the following analytes would be found increased in liver disease?
Creatinine
Creatine kinase
Bilirubin
Glucose
Biliruben
178
The most common confirmation test for a rapid strep (Streptococcus Group A) screen test is __________.
Culture
Latex agglutination
Gas Chromatograph
Mass Spectrophotomer
Culture
179
If a phlebotomy technician discovers a cracked glass tube in the supply tray, which is the proper procedure to follow?
Dispose of the cracked tube in the Sharps container
179
If the patient has had a right mastectomy, which is the most appropriate action the phlebotomist should take to complete venipuncture?
Draw from the other arm
180
Which of the following is true for ordering laboratory tests?
Only the attending physician may order laboratory tests
181
A patient with hematuria has what in their urine?
Blood
182
When is the best time to collect a trough specimen for a therapeutic drug?
A. When the patient is feeling ill or pain
B. Right after the next dose is taken
C. At a set time after the dose is taken
D. Right before the next dose is taken
D. Right before the next dose is taken
183
A glucose metabolism screening test performed two hours after a meal is called __________.
Postprandial
183
For a test result to be reliable, it must be __________.
Neither accurate nor precise
Both accurate and precise
Precise
Accurate
Both accurate and precise
184
Which of the following helps make up total proteins?
Antibodies
185
Which of the following is an example of an anion?
Calcium
Chloride
Sodium
Potassium
Chloride
186
The Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) test is a test for __________.
HIV
Respiratory virus
Strep A
Syphilis
Syphilis
187
Proteins that are catalysts for biochemical reactions and are released when an organ is damaged are __________.
Lipoproteins
Albumin
Enzymes
Immunoglobulins
Enzymes
188
What are RBCs that contain RNA fragments called?
Leukocytes
Erythrocytes
NRBCs
Reticulocytes
Reticulocytes
189
After processing a tube of whole blood in a centrifuge, what is the supernatant?
Separator gel
Blood cells
Whole blood
Serum/plasma
190
What must be included on a patient specimen for microbiological identification that would not normally be found on a blood tube label?
Patient Name
Specimen source
Date of birth
Accession number
191
What confirmation test must be performed when a sugar other than glucose is suspected in a urine sample?
Clinitest
SSA
C&S
Acetest
Clinitest
192
What tests are generally included in a Basic Metabolic Panel test?
Bilirubin, total protein, albumin, and bilirubin
Hepatic and renal function tests
Electrolytes, bilirubin, total protein, and albumin
Electrolytes, BUN, creatinine, and glucos
193
Digoxin, Vancomycin, and Theophylline concentrations would be tested in what laboratory department?
Microbiology
Hematology
Toxicology
Endocrinology
194
What is the specimen of choice for the reticulocyte and ESR tests?
EDTA plasma
ETDA whole blood
Citrated whole blood
Citrated plasma
ETDA whole blood
195
A higher than normal concentration of sodium is called __________.
Hypokalemia
Hypernatremia
Hyperkalemia
Hyponatremia
Hypernatremia
196
Which of the following is the primary culture media in a routine Microbiology laboratory?
Blood
Swab
Gram stain
Agar
Agar
197
Which of the following are hepatic function tests?
Troponin I, CK, BNP
Electrolytes, protein, BUN, creatinine
TSH, T3, T4
ALT, AST, ALP
198
Media that only allows one type of bacteria to grow is __________ media.
Selective
Differential
Enrichment
Supportive
Enrichment
199
Heterophile antibodies agglutinate with __________.
Antibodies from human serum
Antigens from horse RBCs
Antigens from human RBCs
Antibodies from guinea pig serum
200
How are acid fast bacteria AFB identified under a microscope?.
A. Stain pink
B. Fluorescent in black light
Fluorescent in black light.
