Final Assessment Quiz Flashcards by Jessica Hayward

Match the following drugs with their drug classes. (3 marks)

Isosorbide dinitrate
Nadolol
Verapamil

Calcium channel blocker
β Adrenergic blocker
Nitrate

Isosorbide dinitrate - Nitrate

Nadolol - β Adrenergic blocker

Verapamil - Calcium channel blocker

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Which of the following is one way that antianginal drugs can help decrease the workload of the heart and reduce angina?

a. Increase heart rate
b. Dilate peripheral arteries
c. Increase contractile force of the heart
d. Reduce heart rate

d. Reduce heart rate

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How do beta blockers help treat stable angina?

a. They reduce vasospasms that restrict blood flow

b. They increase contractile force to help the heart pump

c. They reduce myocardial oxygen demand by reducing heart rate

d. They increase myocardial oxygen demand by reducing heart rate

c. They reduce myocardial oxygen demand by reducing heart rate

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How does nitrate therapy treat acute angina?

a.Increases heart rate

b.Dilates peripheral arteries more than coronary arteries

c.Dilates coronary arteries more than peripheral arteries

d.Dilates peripheral veins

c.Dilates coronary arteries more than peripheral arteries

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Which of the following can be used to decrease the frequency and severity of exertional angina?

a. Metoprolol
b. Ramipril
c. Sacubitril/valsartan
d. Losartan

a. Metoprolol

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Nitroglycerin dilates blood vessels in which priority?

a. Coronary artery dilation greatest; veinous dilation moderate; peripheral artery dilation mild

b. Peripheral artery dilation greatest; veinous dilation moderate; coronary artery dilation mild

c. Veinous dilation greatest; coronary artery dilation moderate; peripheral artery dilation mild

d. Coronary artery dilation greatest; peripheral artery dilation moderate; veinous dilation mild

c. Veinous dilation greatest; coronary artery dilation moderate; peripheral artery dilation mild

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Hypertension refers to which of the following?

a. High cholesterol levels in the blood

b. Low blood pressure

c. Low cholesterol levels in the blood

d. High blood pressure

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Which of the following antihypertensives has hyperkalemia as a potential side effect?

a. Bisoprolol
b. Spironolactone
c. Furosemide
d. Hydrochlorothiazide

b. Spironolactone

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Which of the following diuretics is used first line for treating hypertension?

a. Spironolactone
b. Hydrochlorothiazide
c. Bumetanide
d. Furosemide

b. Hydrochlorothiazide

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Which of the following is an action of digoxin?

a. Increases intracellular potassium

b. Decreases contractile force

c. Reduces intracellular calcium

d. Slows the heart rate

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PCSK9 inhibitors work by which of the following mechanisms?

a. Affects cholesterol synthesis

b. Blocks the enzyme responsible for LDL-receptor breakdown

c. Eliminates bile acids

d. Decreases cholesterol absorption

b. Blocks the enzyme responsible for LDL-receptor breakdown

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Which of the following will stop a crucial step in the pathway of cholesterol synthesis?

a. Rosuvastatin
b. Niacin
c. Fenofibrate
d. Ezetimibe

a. Rosuvastatin

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Which of the following is a class IA medication?

a. Amiodarone
b. Verapamil
c. Digoxin
d. Quinidine

d. Quinidine

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Which of the following is true about how sodium channel blockers work?

a. They decrease the slope of phase 4 in myocytes

b. They decrease the slope of phase 0, depolarization, in pacemaker cells

c. They lower the threshold potential in pacemaker cell

d. They decrease the slope of phase 0, depolarization, in myocytes

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How do non-DHP calcium channel blockers treat arrhythmias?

a. They increase the slope of phase 0 depolarization in myocytes

b. They decrease the slope of phase 0 depolarization in myocytes

c. By inhibiting nodal cell calcium channels, they reduce heart rate

d. By inhibiting peripheral cell calcium channels, they reduce heart rate

c. By inhibiting nodal cell calcium channels, they reduce heart rate

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Which of the following is typically not used to treat atrial fibrillation?

a.Nifedipine
b.Ibutilide
c.Digoxin
d.Sotalol

a.Nifedipine

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Match the following drugs with their properties.

CCBs
Beta blockers
Act on potassium channels
Act on sodium channels
Other or unknown mechanisms

Class I agents
Class II agents
Class III agents
Digoxin
Class IV agents

CCBs → Class IV agents
Beta blockers → Class II agents
Act on potassium channels → Class III agents
Act on sodium channels → Class I agents
Other or unknown mechanisms → Digoxin

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Match each of the following drugs with the appropriate antiarrhythmic class.

Propafenone
Disopyramide
Lidocaine
Propranolol
Amiodarone
Verapamil

Class III agent
Class II agent
Class IB agent
Class IC agent
Class IA agent
Class IV agent

Propafenone → Class IC agent
Disopyramide → Class IA agent
Amiodarone → Class III agent
Verapamil → Class IV agent
Propranolol → Class II agent
Lidocaine → Class IB agent

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Match the following drugs with their drug classes. (5 marks)

ACE inhibitor
Cardiac glycoside
Diuretic
CCB
Beta blocker

Nifedipine
Furosemide
Enalapril
Digoxin
Metoprolol

ACE inhibitor → Enalapril
Cardiac glycoside → Digoxin
Beta blocker → Metoprolol
CCB → Nifedipine
Diuretic → Furosemide

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Match each of the following drugs with its drug class. (5 marks)

Thiazide diuretics
Loop diuretics
Angiotensin II receptor antagonist
Aldosterone receptor blocker
ACE inhibitors

Irbesartan
Lisinopril
Spironolactone
Furosemide
Chlorthalidone

Thiazide diuretics → Chlorthalidone
Aldosterone receptor blocker → Spironolactone
ACE inhibitors → Lisinopril
Angiotensin II receptor antagonist → Irbesartan
Loop diuretics → Furosemide

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Match the following drugs with their mechanism of action.

Blocks intestinal absorption of LDL
Promote intestinal clearance of cholesterol
Reduces hepatic synthesis of LDL
Increase clearance of very-low-density lipoprotein (VLDL)

HMG CoA reductase inhibitors
Fibric acid derivatives
Bile acid sequestrants
Ezetimibe

Blocks intestinal absorption of LDL → Ezetimibe
Promote intestinal clearance of cholesterol → Bile acid sequestrants
Reduces hepatic synthesis of LDL → HMG CoA reductase inhibitors
Increase clearance of very-low-density lipoprotein (VLDL) → Fibric acid derivatives

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Angina is a symptom of _____ disease.

a. atrium heart
b. ischemic heart
c. valvular
d. peripheral artery

b. ischemic heart

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Which of the following can be used to treat variant angina?

a.Nifedipine
b.Valsartan
c.Atorvastatin
d.Aspirin

a.Nifedipine

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Which of the following warning labels should be placed on a prescription for diltiazem?

a.Protect from light
b.Avoid grapefruit juice
c.Keep in original container
d.Refrigeration required

Study These Flashcards

b.Avoid grapefruit juice

Which of the following drugs works, in part, by blocking the breakdown of natriuretic peptides, resulting in vasodilation and natriuresis? a.ARNIs b.Diuretics c.ARBs d.ACE Inhibitors

a.ARNIs

Which of the following can reduce the risk of angina or CAD? a.Overeating b.Excessive alcohol c.Smoking d.Exercise

d.Exercise

Which of the following can be used to treat acute symptoms of angina? a.Propranolol b.Isosorbide dinitrate c.Nifedipine d.Lisinopril

b.Isosorbide dinitrate

Patients should be instructed to remove a transdermal nitroglycerin patch after ___ hours? a.5 to 6 b.10 to 12 c.12 to 15 d.15 to 20

b.10 to 12

Why should a patient have a nitrate-free period each day? a.To minimize the risk of becoming dependent on the drug effects b.To minimize the risk of becoming tolerant to the drug effects c.To minimize the risk of drug interactions with other medications d.To allow the body to improve its chances of preventing angina without medication

b.To minimize the risk of becoming tolerant to the drug effects

Which drug can be used to treat supraventricular arrhythmias? a.Lisinopril b.Valsartan c.Diltiazem d.Diazepam

c.Diltiazem

This arrhythmia occurs in areas of the heart that lie above the ventricles. a. Myocardial infarction b. Ventricular fibrillation c. Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) d. Ventricular tachycardia

c. Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)

This arrhythmia typically occurs because of scar tissue from a myocardial infarction. a.Atrial fibrillation b.SVT c.Ventricular tachycardia d.Atrial Flutter

c.Ventricular tachycardia

Which of the following is used for primary management of ventricular arrhythmias? a.Dobutamine b.Propranolol c.Verapamil d.Amiodarone

d.Amiodarone

Which of the following is a class III antiarrhythmic? a.Esmolol b.Propranolol c.Acebutolol d.Sotalol

d.Sotalol

What part(s) of the heart can heart failure affect? a.Both sides of the heart b.Left side of the heart only c.Right side of the heart only d.Atria only

a.Both sides of the heart

If hydrochlorothiazide is prescribed with furosemide for heart failure, which of the following may occur? a.Hypokalemia b.Hyperkalemia c.Hypernatremia d.Hypocalcemia

a.Hypokalemia

The mechanism of action for beta blockers used in the treatment of heart failure is to _____. a.Block excess parasympathetic stimulation induced by hypertension b.Increase left ventricular hypertrophy c.Elevate peripheral arterial resistance d.Block excess sympathetic stimulation induced by heart failure

d.Block excess sympathetic stimulation induced by heart failure

All of the following medications are indicated for the treatment of systolic heart failure with reduced ejection fraction except: a.Spironolactone b.Verapamil c.Ramipril d.Candesartan

b.Verapamil

Digoxin should be administered along with what other types of drugs when used for treating heart failure? a.ACE inhibitors b.Cardiac glycosides c.Alpha blockers d.NSAIDs

a.ACE inhibitors

What is the effect on the heart when cardiac glycosides are administered? a.Positive chronotropic effect on the heart, increasing the force of contraction b.Negative dromotropic effect on the heart, decreasing the force of contraction c.Negative inotropic effect on the heart, decreasing the force of contraction d.Positive inotropic effect on the heart, increasing the force of contraction

d.Positive inotropic effect on the heart, increasing the force of contraction

Which of the following would be prescribed to treat volume overload in heart failure? a.β-agonists b.Diuretics c.Cardiac glycosides d.α-agonists

b.Diuretics

How is spironolactone able to lower BP? a.It binds to aldosterone receptors, which triggers angiotensin to be released, decreasing cardiac output b.It increases sodium and water elimination through the kidneys, which decreases blood volume c.It allows sodium and potassium to be reabsorbed through the kidneys, which helps regulate the force of contraction of the heart d.It acts as an antagonist on alpha receptors, decreasing peripheral resistance

b.It increases sodium and water elimination through the kidneys, which decreases blood volume

Which of the following is the first line therapy for the treatment of hypertension when coronary artery disease is present and ACE inhibitors are not tolerated? a.Olmesartan b.Quinapril c.Reserpine d.Verapamil

a.Olmesartan

Which of the following can be used as a first line agent for the treatment of hypertension in patients who have angina? a.Atenolol b.Reserpine c.Minoxidil d.Hydralazine

a.Atenolol

Most of the drugs used to treat hypertension have which of the following common characteristics to help lower blood pressure? a.They increase vasoconstriction, which increases blood supply and reduces the workload of the heart b.They produce vascular relaxation, which reduces peripheral resistance and lowers blood pressure c.They increase vasoconstriction and peripheral vascular resistance, decreasing blood pressure d.They release some of the pressure on the blood vessels by decreasing blood vessel elasticity to reduce blood pressure

b.They produce vascular relaxation, which reduces peripheral resistance and lowers blood pressure

BP greater than ___ mm HG is an emergency and should be treated immediately. a.170/100 b.175/105 c.180/120 d.All of the above

c.180/120

How do diuretics help lower BP? a.Decrease HR by increasing CO b.Increase peripheral resistance (PR), reducing CO c.Decrease blood volume, reducing CO d.Block sodium channels in the heart to reduce cardiac output (CO)

c.Decrease blood volume, reducing CO

Which of the following drugs can cause dehydration and hypokalemia? a.Furosemide b.Triamterene c.Lisinopril d.Spironolactone

a.Furosemide

Which of the following drugs is associated with a characteristic cough side effect? a.Verapamil b.Olmesartan c.Reserpine d.Quinapril

d.Quinapril

Why would increasing high-density lipoproteins (HDL) levels be beneficial when treating atherosclerosis? a.HDL increases levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) b.HDL helps digest trans fats and carries them to the liver to be eliminated c.HDL helps remove LDL cholesterol from the bloodstream d.HDL carries unsaturated fats in the blood

c.HDL helps remove LDL cholesterol from the bloodstream

Drugs that control the rate of clot formation and clot dissolution are classified as _____ and can prevent stroke and myocardial infarction. a.Cardiolytics b.Antilipidemics c.Antianginals d.Antithrombotics

d.Antithrombotics

Antiplatelet drugs produce their effect by _____. a.Increasing the formation of clots b.Interfering with steps in the clot formation process c.Dissolving blood clots d.Decreasing the number of red blood cells

b.Interfering with steps in the clot formation process

Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors work by blocking the final pathway of platelet aggregation and are the only _____ antiplatelet drugs. a.Transdermal b.Enteral c.Parenteral d.Intrathecal

c.Parenteral

_____ is an orally administered anticoagulant that is used to prevent pulmonary embolism, thrombotic and embolic stroke. a.Fragmin b.Heparin c.Aspirin d.Warfarin

d.Warfarin

Warfarin works by interfering with the formation of vitamin __-dependent clotting factors. a.B3 b.K c.A d.D

b.K

Which of the following may decrease the effectiveness of warfarin if consumed? a.Orange juice b.Pasta c.Salmon d.Spinach

d.Spinach

Which routes of administration can be used to administer heparin and low-molecular-weight heparin? a.IV and subcutaneous (SC) b.SV and IM c.Intravenous (IV) and intramuscular (IM) d.IV and SL

a.IV and subcutaneous (SC)

How do thrombolytic drugs help dissolve clots? a.Inhibit the production of clotting factors in the blood b.Help increase the digestion of fibrin c.Reduce the effects of natural vitamins d.Inhibit the production of thrombin

b.Help increase the digestion of fibrin

Calcium channel blockers are used in the treatment of stable and unstable angina. True or False

False

Final Assessment Quiz Flashcards

(59 cards)