Final Assignments, Quizzes, and Medications (The Big One)

Question 1

Which of the following is true on skin transplantation for persons with burns?

Answer 1

Autografts are the person’s own skin

Question 2

The two primary causative factors for the development of pressure injuries are _____.

Answer 2

Interference pressure (externally) and pressure with shearing forces

Question 3

Which of the following is true about clinical manifestations for pressure injuries?

Answer 3

All of the above
-Proteolytic enzymes from bacteria and macrophages dissolve necrotic tissues, which can result in a foul-smelling discharge
-Pressure injuries usually occur over bony prominences
-Pressure injuries often manifest with a circular pattern shaped like an inverted volcano, with the greatest tissue ischemia at the apex next to the bone

Question 4

Which of the following are intrinsic factors most associated with pressure injury development?

Answer 4

Impaired mobility, incontinence, diaphoresis, impaired nutritional status

Question 5

Which of the following is true about treatment for pressure injuries?

Answer 5

All of the above
-Therapeutic modalities such as ultrasound and electrical stimulation can be used.
-eliminating or limiting associating risk factors as much as possible is the first step in preventing the occurrence of pressure injuries
-In stage 3 pressure injuries, undamaged tissue near the wound can be rotated to cover the ulcer

Question 6

What is the primary function of mast cells in the dermis?

Answer 6

Provide histamine for vasodilation and chemotactic factors for inflammatory responses

Question 7

Which of the following lab values are the most relevant to skin lesions and wound healing?

Answer 7

Hemoglobin and total protein

Question 8

Which of the following is true about the integumentary system?

Answer 8

All of the above
-hormonal abnormalities may result in excessive facial and body hair in women (androgen-related) and male-pattern baldness (alopecia) in men
-wrinkling signifies the loss of elastin fibers, weakened collagen, and decreased subcutaneous fat
-The epidermis is one of the body’s principle suppliers of vitamin D

Question 9

Which of the following is true about skin infection?

Answer 9

Impetigo is a bacterial infection

Question 10

Which of the following is true for a partial-thickness burn?

Answer 10

It is painful

Question 11

A 42-year old male with a history of schizophrenia has full-thickness burns on his bilateral lower extremities. Using the Wallace Rule of Nines, the total body surface area (TBSA) is?

Answer 11

Over 30%

Question 12

Why do children have a higher risk of burns?

Answer 12

Inadequate supervision and abuse with scald injuries

Question 13

Obscured full-thickness skin and tissue loss is considered ______.

Answer 13

Unstageable

Question 14

For bedbound and chairbound patients and patients with impaired ability to reposition themselves, which of the following tools can be used for risk assessment evaluating both sensation and physiologic risk of pressure injuries?

Answer 14

Braden scale

Question 15

Which of the following are the most common medical complications in a burn-injured adult?

Answer 15

Stress-induced gastric ulcers

Question 16

Skin is the largest body organ, constituting ________ of the body weight.

Answer 16

15-20%

Question 17

What is the primary function of fibroblasts in the dermis?

Answer 17

Collagen synthesis for skin strength and wound healing

Question 18

Which of the following is true about skin lesions?

Answer 18

Skin lesions can result from the reaction to radiotherapy or medication.

Question 19

Which of the following lab values are the most relevant to skin lesions and wound healing?

Answer 19

Prealbumin and hematocrit

Question 20

Which of the following is true about aging and the integumentary system?

Answer 20

All of the above
-For women, excessive facial hair may occur along the upper lip and around the chin.
-Gray hair and balding are visible indications of skin changes associated with aging.
-With aging, blood vessels within the dermis are reduced in number, and the walls are thinned.

Question 21

Which of the following is true about skin infection?

Answer 21

Athlete’s foot (Tinea Pedis) is fungal infection.

Question 22

Which of the following is true for first-degree burn?

Answer 22

Ultraviolet exposure can be the cause.

Question 23

You are working in an ICU and treating a 34-year-old female patient who has sustained second- and third-degree burns over her front chest, abdomen, and front left upper extremity. Using the Wallace rule of nines, total body surface area (TBSA) is

Answer 23

22.5%

Question 24

________ account for approximately 75% (43% flame or fire; 34% scalding) of all burn center admissions

Answer 24

Thermal burns

Question 25

Extensive burns result in generalized body ______ in both burned and nonburned tissues and a ______ in circulating intravascular blood volume

Answer 25

Edema; decrease

Question 26

________ is the most common and life-threatening complication of burn injuries.

Answer 26

Infection

Question 27

Which of the following is true on skin transplantation for person with burn?

Answer 27

Biosynthetic grafts are a combination of collagen and synthetics

Question 28

What are the three classic determinants of burn mortality?

Answer 28

TBSA, age, and inhalation injury

Question 29

Which of the following are the common medical complications of gastrointestinal system on a person with burn?

Answer 29

Paralytic ileus

Question 30

Which of the following body parts would get pressure injuries the most easily?

Answer 30

Scapula and elbow

Question 31

Partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis is considered ______ pressure injury.

Answer 31

Stage 2

Question 32

Which of the following patient populations may have higher risk of infection if they develop pressure injuries on the skin, because they are unable to mount a sufficient inflammatory response to start the healing?

Answer 32

Type 2 diabetes

Question 33

Which of the following is appropriate medical management for a patient with pressure injuries?

Answer 33

All of the above -Negative pressure wound therapy -Adequately redistribute the pressure -Electrical stimulation

Question 34

Which of the following clinical manifestations is commonly seen in a person with diabetes?

Answer 34

All of the above -Impaired cognitive function -Infection -Balance and gait abnormalities

Question 35

When a person has hypoglycemia episode, what clinical manifestation he/she may have?

Answer 35

Tachycardia and shallow respirations

Question 36

What is TRUE about insulin resistance?

Answer 36

The endogenous insulin levels can be high during the diagnosis, and it may become low as the diabetes progress

Question 37

Which of the following is TRUE in a person with hyperglycemia?

Answer 37

High Ketones

Question 38

What will be an ideal A1C target for a person with type 2 diabetes?

Answer 38

< 7.0%

Question 39

Which of the following is TRUE on diabetes?

Answer 39

Type 2 diabetes can develop at any age.

Question 40

Which of the following decreases blood glucose levels?

Answer 40

Insulin released by beta cells in the islet of Langerhans.

Question 41

If an individual has a fasting plasma glucose of 80 mg/dL, what can physical therapist infer from this information?

Answer 41

Normal fasting plasma glucose level

Question 42

The National Institutes of Health clinical guidelines and the WHO define overweight in adults as a BMI equal to or greater than _______.

Answer 42

25 kg/m^2

Question 43

Prediabetes is diagnosed in people with an A1C greater than or equal to but less than or equal to ______.

Answer 43

5.7% ; 6.4%

Question 44

In children, BMI greater than or equal to the ______ percentile signifies risk for being obese.

Answer 44

95th

Question 45

What is metabolic syndrome?

Answer 45

All of the above -Abdominal obesity and atherogenic dyslipidemia -Elevated blood pressure and insulin resistance -Prothrombotic and proinflammatory state of the blood

Question 46

Which of the following is precipitating causes of diabetic ketoacidosis?

Answer 46

All of the above -Trauma -Medications i.e., Beta blockers -Pregnancy -Inadequate insulin under stressful conditions

Question 47

In the United States, about _______ have been diagnosed with diabetes.

Answer 47

1 in every 10 people

Question 48

In diabetes, ________ causes dehydration, which causes thirst. Excessive thirst is called _______.

Answer 48

polyuria; polydipsia

Question 49

According to the natural history of type 2 diabetes, which of the following complications may already exist when people are diagnosed with diabetes?

Answer 49

Macrovascular

Question 50

Hulk checked his blood glucose levels two hours after eating a Chinese buffet last night. The glucometer showed 299 mg/dL. What would be the clinical indication from this information?

Answer 50

Hulk may have developed hyperglycemia

Question 51

Releasing a series of multiple-function mediators, ___________ is involved in a wide spectrum of diseases, including not only cardiovascular and metabolic complications, such as atherosclerosis and type 2 diabetes, but also inflammatory- and immune-related disorders, such as rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis.

Answer 51

white fat

Question 52

Which type of diabetes is an autoimmune type of diabetes that begins in middle to late adulthood, also referred to as latent autoimmune diabetes in adults (LADA)?

Answer 52

Type 1.5

Question 53

Which of the following diseases is considered a microvascular complication for diabetes?

Answer 53

Retinopathy

Question 54

Which region of the brain is the main integrative center for the endocrine and autonomic nervous systems, controls the function of endocrine organs by neural and hormonal pathways?

Answer 54

Hypothalamus

Question 55

Which of the following tissues can be classified as an endocrine gland?

Answer 55

Adipose tissue

Question 56

In response to the hypothalamus, the posterior pituitary secretes _____.

Answer 56

Oxytocin and ADH

Question 57

What is the basic action of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)?

Answer 57

Stimulates secretory activity and synthesis of corticosteroids in adrenal cortex

Question 58

The primary hormones produced by the thyroid are _______________.

Answer 58

thyroxine, triiodothyronine, and calcitonin

Question 59

Which of the following hormone’s basic action is calcium and phosphorus metabolism, construct bone, and reduce serum calcium?

Answer 59

Calcitonin

Question 60

Which of the following disorders creates a generalized elevation of body metabolism, the effects of which are manifested in almost every system?

Answer 60

Hyperthyroidism

Question 61

Myxedema is the clinical manifestation of ____________.

Answer 61

Hypothyroidism

Question 62

Hyperparathyroidism is a disorder caused by overactivity of one or more of the four parathyroid glands that _____________.

Answer 62

disrupts calcium, phosphate, and bone metabolism

Question 63

Which of the following medical diagnosis occurs because of a disorder within the adrenal gland itself, with insufficient cortisol release from the adrenal glands causing a wide range of problems?

Answer 63

Addison disease

Question 64

Hypercortisolism resulting from adrenal gland oversecretion or from hyperphysiologic doses of corticosteroid medications is called _________.

Answer 64

Cushing syndrome

Question 65

Which of the following medical diagnosis occurs when an adrenal lesion results in hypersecretion of aldosterone, the most powerful of the mineralocorticoids?

Answer 65

Conn syndrome

Question 66

Which of the following is the characteristic of hypoparathyroidism?

Answer 66

Decreased bone resorption

Question 67

Which of the following hormones is essential to norepinephrine-induced vasoconstriction and other physiologic phenomena necessary for survival under stress?

Answer 67

Cortisol

Question 68

What is the hallmark of Addison disease?

Answer 68

Decreased serum cortisol levels

Question 69

-prazole

Answer 69

Proton pump inhibitor Used for gastric ulcers

Question 70

-idine

Answer 70

Histamine H2-receptor blockers Used for gastric ulcers

Question 71

-amide

Answer 71

Oral antidiabetics (sulfonylurea group) Antidiabetic (Type 2 Diabetes)

Question 72

-dronate

Answer 72

Bisphosphonates Used for Osteoporosis

Question 73

Omeprazole, lansoprazole

Answer 73

Proton pump inhibitor Used for gastric ulcer

Question 74

Cimetidine, ranitidine

Answer 74

Histamine H2-receptor blockers Used for gastric ulcers

Question 75

Chlorpropamide, tolbutamide

Answer 75

Oral antidiabetics (sulfonylurea group) Antidiabetic (Type 2 Diabetes)

Question 76

Alendronate, pamidronate

Answer 76

Bisphosphonates Used for Osteoporosis

Question 77

Which of the following is a characteristic of hyperthyroidism?

Answer 77

Increased bone resorption

Question 78

What can be the medical diagnosis and symptoms of a patient with an enlarged neck?

Answer 78

Goiter; enlargement of the thyroid gland

Question 79

This patient presents the signs and symptoms of Myxedema (nonpitting, boggy edema, especially around the eyes, hands, feet, and in the supraclavicular fossae). What can be her medical diagnosis?

Answer 79

Hypothyroidism

Question 80

Which of the following can be a cause for Cushing disease?

Answer 80

An excess of corticosteroid medication

Question 81

What is true for cortisol?

Answer 81

It is essential to norepinephrine-induced vasoconstriction and other physiologic phenomena necessary for survival under stress

Question 82

Which of the following lab (blood) tests is relevant to diagnose hyperthyroidism?

Answer 82

Thyroid-stimulating hormone

Question 83

Flexor tenosynovitis with stiffness can accompany carpal tunnel syndrome in persons with _______

Answer 83

Hypothyroidism

Question 84

Hyperparathyroidism is a disorder caused by overactivity of one or more of the four parathyroid glands that ______

Answer 84

disrupts calcium, phosphate, and bone metabolism

Question 85

Which of the following is true?

Answer 85

All of the above -Hyposecretion of human growth hormone results in dwarfism -Hypersecretion of human growth hormone causes gigantism in children -Hypersecretion of human growth hormone causes acromegaly in adults

Question 86

Decreased levels of thyroid hormone lead to an overall slowing of the basal metabolic rate. This slowing of the body processes leads to ______

Answer 86

All of the above -Bradycardia -Decreased GI tract motility -Slowed neurologic functioning

Question 87

What is true about insulin resistance?

Answer 87

commonly being seen in people w/ Type 2 Diabetes

Question 88

Which of the following clinical manifestations is commonly seen in a person with diabetes?

Answer 88

Numbness of the limbs

Question 89

What clinical manifestation may a patient have if their blood glucose is 62 mg/dL?

Answer 89

Convulsion / coma

Question 90

What is the A1C recommendation for non-pregnant adults with diabetes?

Answer 90

Less than 7.0%

Question 91

Fat accumulated in the lower body (subcutaneous fat) results in a _____ figure, whereas fat in the abdominal area (visceral fat) produces more of an ______.

Answer 91

Pear-shaped, apple shape

Question 92

_______ is the branch of medicine concerned with the management of obesity.

Answer 92

Bariatrics

Question 93

Which of the following Islet cells produce insulin in the Pancreas?

Answer 93

Beta cells

Question 94

Prediabetes is diagnosed in people with a fasting plasma glucose greater than or equal to ____ but less than or equal to _____.

Answer 94

100 mg/dL ; 125 mg/dL

Question 95

In diabetes, _____ causes dehydration, which causes thirst. Excessive thirst is called _____.

Answer 95

Polyuria, polydipsia.

Question 96

How to manage diabetes?

Answer 96

All of the above -work with a health professional -Eat healthy -Stay active

Question 97

The term _______ was often applied to opioid compounds because when taken, they tend to have sedative or sleep-inducing side effects, and high doses can produce a state of unresponsiveness and stupor.

Answer 97

Narcotic

Question 98

The source of the naturally occurring opioid (narcotic) analgesics is from

Answer 98

the opium poppy

Question 99

Opioid drugs exert their analgesics effects by binding to the same receptors as

Answer 99

endogenous opioids (endorphins, enkephalins)

Question 100

Morphine and many other powerful opioids exert their primary analgesic effects by binding to the ________

Answer 100

mu opioid receptor

Question 101

Drugs such as butorphanol, nalbuphine, and pentazocine may stimulate certain opioid receptors while blocking or only partially activating other receptors. These drugs _____

Answer 101

all the above are true -may have fewer addictive qualities than strong opioids such as morphine -may produce adequate analgesia with less risk of side effects such as respiratory depression -may produce more psychotropic effects (hallucinations, vivid dreams) than other opioids -are known as mixed agonist-antagonists

Question 102

By blocking all opioid receptors, opioid antagonists such as nalmefene and naloxone are used primarily to

Answer 102

treat opioid overdose

Question 103

Opioid drugs exert their effects on afferent pain pathways by binding to neuronal receptors that in turn

Answer 103

decrease transmitter release from presynaptic terminals

Question 104

Preliminary studies on animals suggest that opioids can exert analgesic effects when administered directly into peripheral tissues (e.g., injected into an inflamed joint) because

Answer 104

opioids may bind to receptors located on the distal (peripheral) ends of primary afferent (sensory) neurons.

Question 105

When used to treat pain, opioids can be administered by all the following routes EXCEPT

Answer 105

inhalation

Question 106

In addition to their use as analgesics, opioid drugs can also be administered

Answer 106

all the above are true -to treat severe diarrhea -as a preoperative medication -as a general anesthetic -as a cough suppressant

Question 107

Which of the following side effects is NOT associated with opioid drugs?

Answer 107

increased respiration

Question 108

Certain patients can develop “tolerance” to opioid analgesics, which is indicated by

Answer 108

the need to progressively increase the dosage of the drug to achieve a therapeutic effect when the drug is used for prolonged periods

Question 109

Methadone is often used to treat opioid addiction because methadone

Answer 109

has mild withdrawal symptoms

Question 110

The onset of withdrawal symptoms (body aches, shivering, sweating, and so forth) after sudden discontinuation of opioid analgesics is an example of

Answer 110

physical dependence

Question 111

Certain patients may fail to respond to opioids or may report increased pain (hyperalgesia) when given opioid drugs. This opioid-induced hyperalgesia is likely due to _____ in nociceptive pathways in susceptible patients.

Answer 111

increased activity of glutamate

Question 112

NSAIDs such as aspirin exhibit all of the following effects EXCEPT

Answer 112

the ability to increase bronchodilation in conditions such as asthma

Question 113

Aspirin and other NSAIDs exert their primary therapeutic effects by interfering with the biosynthesis of

Answer 113

prostaglandins

Question 114

Prostaglandins are

Answer 114

a group of lipidlike compounds that exhibit a wide range of physiological activities

Question 115

NSAIDs exert their therapeutic effects by _____ the ______ enzyme.

Answer 115

inhibiting; cyclooxygenase

Question 116

The _____ form of the cyclooxygenase enzyme seems to be responsible for producing beneficial prostaglandins that help maintain or protect function in specific tissues such as the stomach and kidneys.

Answer 116

COX-1

Question 117

In addition to its analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects, it appears that regular use of low-dose aspirin may also help prevent

Answer 117

All the above are true -colorectal cancer -heart attacks -ischemic strokes

Question 118

In theory, a COX-2 selective drug such as celecoxib will be less likely to cause gastric irritation because

Answer 118

COX-2 drugs do not inhibit the production of beneficial prostaglandins in the stomach.

Question 119

Aspirin ______ be used to treat fever in children because this drug may cause _____.

Answer 119

should not; Reye syndrome

Question 120

It has been suggested that aspirin and other NSAIDs _______ be used to treat pain following surgeries such as spinal fusion because these drugs may ______.

Answer 120

should not; inhibit bone healing

Question 121

Several COX-2 selective inhibitors such as rofecoxib (Vioxx) and valdecoxib (Bextra) have been taken off the market because these drugs can cause serious side effects such as

Answer 121

heart attack and stroke

Question 122

Gastric irritation caused by aspirin and other NSAIDs can be treated with

Answer 122

All the above -Gastric proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) such as omeprazole (Prilosec) and esomeprazole (Nexium) -Drugs that mimic prostaglandins (PGs) such as PGE1 (e.g., misoprostol [Cytotec]) -Histamine type 2 (H2) blockers such as cimetidine (Tagamet) and ranitidine (Zantac)

Question 123

Which of the following is a commonly encountered problem with the use of corticosteroids?

Answer 123

Hyperglycemia

Question 124

The lower GI tract includes the ________.

Answer 124

small and large intestines

Question 125

_______ occurs when nerve endings in the stomach and other parts of the body are irritated and usually precedes vomiting.

Answer 125

Nausea

Question 126

Which of the following is a gastrointestinal sign or symptom associated with strenuous exercise?

Answer 126

Abdominal cramping

Question 127

Which of the following is the most common neurogenic cause of diarrhea?

Answer 127

Hyperthyroidism

Question 128

Which of the following medications is a common cause of constipation?

Answer 128

-Diuretics and opioids -Hydrocodone (semi-synethetic opioid)

Question 129

What drugs are the most common causes of reactive gastritis?

Answer 129

Aspirin and NSAID’s

Question 130

Which of the following is a failure to relax the smooth muscle fibers of the gastrointestinal tract?

Answer 130

Achalasia

Question 131

Which of the following is least likely to refer pain to the left shoulder?

Answer 131

Liver cancer

Question 132

What type of hiatal hernia is the most common?

Answer 132

Sliding

Question 133

What types of exercise would increase intraabdominal pressure?

Answer 133

All of the above -lifting -straining -bending over

Question 134

One of the most common symptoms of a hiatal hernia is ________.

Answer 134

heartburn or reflux

Question 135

Which of the following exercises is contraindicated for an individual with a known hiatal hernia?

Answer 135

Any exercise that causes Valsalva in the supine position

Question 136

What is the common cause of gastroesophageal reflux disease?

Answer 136

All of the above -Nicotine or cigarette smoke -Peppermint, fatty foods, citrus products (including tomatoes), spicy foods, garlic, onions -Carbonated drinks, alcohol and coffee -Caffeine -Pregnancy (last trimester) -Calcium channel blockers -Central nervous system depressants -Sclerodema -Estrogen Therapy

Question 137

What type of medication is used to treat gastroesophageal reflux disease, blocks acid pumps and prevent stomach acid production?

Answer 137

Proton pump inhibitor (PPI)

Question 138

Which of the following is not considered an extraesophageal manifestation of gastroesophageal reflux disease?

Answer 138

Heartburn

Question 139

_______ occurs when the peptic ulcer erodes into adjacent organs such as the small bowel, pancreas, or liver.

Answer 139

Penetration

Question 140

_________ is a chronic inflammatory disorder of the mucosa of the colon, typically involving the rectum, which can then advance proximally in a continuous manner to involve the entire colon.

Answer 140

Ulcerative colitis

Question 141

In ulcerative colitis, intestinal lesions are usually found in which locations?

Answer 141

Rectum and left colon

Question 142

What is the most common extraintestinal finding in inflammatory bowel disease?

Answer 142

Arthritis

Question 143

What is the primary indication or desired effect of Omeprazole?

Answer 143

To treat gastric ulcers

Question 144

Which of the following is Bisphosphonates that can treat osteoporosis?

Answer 144

Alendronate

Question 145

What is the primary indication of proton pump inhibitors?

Answer 145

Gastric Ulcers

Question 146

Which of the following medications is a common cause of diarrhea?

Answer 146

Antibiotics

Question 147

The most common presenting symptoms of acute appendicitis occur in a classic sequence of abdominal pain over ________.

Answer 147

right lower quadrant

Question 148

Why is the stool normally brown?

Answer 148

Bile converted from bilirubin causes brown coloration of the stool

Question 149

What do light-colored stools and urine the color of tea or cola most likely indicate?

Answer 149

Liver dysfunction

Question 150

Which of the following is one of the most common signs and symptoms of hepatic disease?

Answer 150

Hepatic osteodystrophy

Question 151

What is the cause of jaundice?

Answer 151

Defects in bilirubin metabolism (in uptake by the liver or conjugation)

Question 152

Progressive loss of normal tissue that is replaced with fibrosis and nodular regeneration is a characteristic of ______.

Answer 152

Cirrhosis

Question 153

Bile helps in alkalinizing the intestinal contents and plays a role in the emulsification, absorption, and digestion of _____.

Answer 153

Fat

Question 154

What is the treatment of choice for tense ascites?

Answer 154

Paracentesis and diuretics

Question 155

What is the 5-year survival rate for compensated cirrhosis?

Answer 155

Greater than 90%

Question 156

Which of the following occur in association with jaundice?

Answer 156

Dark urine and light stools

Question 157

The liver is the major site of production proteins that are associated with _____.

Answer 157

acute inflammatory reactions

Question 158

Which of the following is associated with overproduction of bilirubin?

Answer 158

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

Question 159

What type of hepatitis virus currently has no vaccine available?

Answer 159

Hepatitis C virus (HCV)

Question 160

What is the most common cause of fulminant hepatitis?

Answer 160

Acetaminophen toxicity

Question 161

Which of the following laboratory tests are both for liver function?

Answer 161

Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)

Question 162

In what stage of cancer is the cancer usually localized to the primary organ?

Answer 162

Stage 1

Question 163

A history of obesity or type 2 diabetes is a risk factor for which of the following cancers?

Answer 163

Colorectal, pancreatic, breast

Question 164

_____ can be generated by translocations in which part of one gene moves to a different chromosome and recombines with another gene.

Answer 164

Fusion proteins

Question 165

Approximately what percent of clients with newly diagnosed cancers have clinically detectable metastasis?

Answer 165

30%

Question 166

What is the first level of dysplasia?

Answer 166

Metaplasia

Question 167

What type of malignant tumor originates from adipose tissue?

Answer 167

Liposarcoma

Question 168

Using the TNM staging system, what would be the grade if the cancer has no distant metastasis?

Answer 168

M 0

Question 169

What gene appears to be the trigger of programmed cell death as a way of regulating uncontrolled cellular proliferation?

Answer 169

p53

Question 170

Which of the following organs is the most likely location of primary metastasis of bone cancer?

Answer 170

Lungs

Question 171

What are the most common of all metastatic tumors?

Answer 171

Lung

Question 172

What is the primary indication of theophylline?

Answer 172

Bronchodilation

Question 173

What is the drug class for albuterol?

Answer 173

Bronchodilators (adrenergic)

Question 174

If a patient has a tumor in the pancreas, what would be the most common site of pain referral for this tumor?

Answer 174

Shoulder, midthoracic, or low back

Question 175

Cells are most sensitive to radiation therapy in the _____ phase

Answer 175

G2

Question 176

What is the last step in the mitotic cycle before cell division?

Answer 176

G2

Question 177

Which chemotherapy agents bind to DNA and prevent DNA replication?

Answer 177

Alkylating agents

Question 178

Tamoxifen in an antiestrogen hormonal agent is used in _____ to block estrogen receptors in tumor cells that require estrogen to thrive.

Answer 178

Breast cancer

Question 179

Monoclonal antibodies may be especially effective in treating certain cancers because these drugs

Answer 179

bind to antigens on the surface of a particular type of cancer cells.

Question 180

A relatively new strategy for treating certain tumors is to prevent the formation of new blood vessels, thus impairing tumor growth by starving the tumor of oxygen and nutrients. Drugs that use this strategy are known as ________.

Answer 180

angiogenesis inhibitors

Question 181

Most cancer chemotherapy agents exert severe and potentially toxic side effects because

Answer 181

most of these drugs do not discriminate between healthy tissues and cancerous cells.

Question 182

Some of the newer cancer chemotherapy agents (e.g., cytokines) are called biological therapies or biological response modifiers because they

Answer 182

encourage the body’s immune system to fight cancerous cells.

Question 183

The drug subclass of cytarabine is antimetabolites. What is the mechanism of action of cytarabine?

Answer 183

Inhibit DNA and RNA synthesis

Question 184

Which of the following healthcare professionals determines the delivery method and dosage of radiation therapy to be provided to a patient?

Answer 184

Radiation oncologist

Question 185

Which of the following therapy options is considered as nonpharmacologic modality for cancer pain?

Answer 185

Relaxation training

Question 186

Which of the following concepts describe the theory that each round of chemotherapy will affect a certain percentage of cancerous cells and the chemotherapeutic regimen can never completely eliminate the tumor?

Answer 186

Cell kill hypothesis

Question 187

Tumor lysis syndrome (TLS) is a serious complication of chemotherapy that has significant adverse effects on the _______.

Answer 187

Kidney

Question 188

A 37-year-old female has breast cancer. She is receiving FAC chemotherapy: Fluorouracil, doxorubicin (Adriamycin), Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan). (Please answer the following questions from 15-18) 15. What is the drug class of Fluorouracil?

Answer 188

Antimetabolites

Question 189

What is the trade name of doxorubicin?

Answer 189

Adriamycin

Question 190

What is the drug class of Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)?

Answer 190

Alkylating agents

Question 191

What are the common adverse effects of Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)?

Answer 191

All of the above -Blood disorders (anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia) -GI distress (nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite) -Bladder irritation; hair loss; cardiotoxicity; pulmonary toxicity

Question 192

A 68-year-old man presents with a history of chronic cough, weight loss, and hemoptysis. Chest X-ray reveals a mass in the right lung. A biopsy confirms the diagnosis of non-small cell lung cancer. Question: Given the patient’s diagnosis, which of the following imaging studies would be most appropriate to stage the tumor and assess for metastasis?

Answer 192

Positron emission tomography (PET) scan

Question 193

A patient receives chemotherapy, which includes a combination of agents such as doxorubicin, bleomycin, vinblastine, and dacarbazine (ABVD). Question: To help the patient recover from chemotherapy-induced neutropenia, which of the following medications might the physician consider?

Answer 193

Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)

Question 194

Which of the following is a risk factor of cancer?

Answer 194

Advancing age, gender, occupation (all of the above)

Question 195

What type of malignant tumor originates from cartilage?

Answer 195

Chondrosarcoma

Question 196

Which of the following organs is the most likely location of primary metastasis of colorectal cancer via blood?

Answer 196

Liver

Question 197

_______ also called cancer-causing genes, have the ability to transform normal cells into malignant cells, independently or incorporated with a virus and there are more than 100 of them that have been identified

Answer 197

Oncogenes

Question 198

Using the TNM staging system, what would be the grade if the cancer has increasing degrees of involvement of regional lymph nodes?

Answer 198

N1

Question 199

Which of the following medications is a bronchodilator?

Answer 199

Pirbuterol

Question 200

Which of the following cells can recognize different types of tumor antigens?

Answer 200

T cells

Question 201

Which of the following is a common tumor evasion strategy?

Answer 201

-Antigenic modulation -Induction of immune suppression -Loss of immunogenicity (all of the above)

Question 202

In what stage of cancer is it described that there is an increased risk of spread because of tumor size?

Answer 202

Stage II

Question 203

Which of the following is a secondary prevention of cancer?

Answer 203

Pap test of cervix

Question 204

Which of the following tests are useful for early detection and staging of tumors?

Answer 204

-CT scan and MRI -Tissue biopsy -Laboratory values (all of the above)

Question 205

In the mitotic phase, when are cells most susceptible to chemotherapy?

Answer 205

Synthesis and mitosis

Question 206

Which of the following is true for irradiation therapy (radiotherapy)?

Answer 206

It can be used preoperatively to shrink a tumor, making it operable, while preventing further spread of the disease

Question 207

Which class of chemotherapy agents disrupts cellular mitosis by inhibiting microtubule assembly or disassembly?

Answer 207

Microtubule targeting agents

Question 208

Bevacizumab (Avastin) is approved by the FDA to treat cancer. It binds and inhibits vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) to prevent the formation of new blood vessels, thus impairing cancer growth by starving the tissue of oxygen and nutrients. What drug class is Bevacizumab (Avastin)?

Answer 208

Angiogenesis inhibitor

Question 209

Which of the following is true for myelosuppression after chemotherapy?

Answer 209

Patient may easily get infected due to fewer white blood cells

Question 210

Which of the following is an adverse effect of chemotherapy?

Answer 210

-fatigue -pulmonary toxicity -renal toxicity (nephrotoxicity) (all of the above)

Question 211

What can be the cause of cancer related fatigue?

Answer 211

Emotional distress

Question 212

When tumors produce signs + symptoms at a site distant from the tumor or its metastasized sites, these remote effects of malignancy are collectively referred to as _______.

Answer 212

Paraneoplastic syndromes

Question 213

Which of the following are large granular lymphocyte cells that do not express antigen-specific receptors?

Answer 213

Natural Killer cells

Question 214

Which of the following membrane proteins function to present antigenetic peptides for recognition by T cells?

Answer 214

Major histocompatibility complex molecules

Question 215

What type of immunity used by the body adapts to recognize, eliminate, and establish long-term memory against a threat?

Answer 215

Acquired immunity

Question 216

Which of the following is an example of active artificial acquired immunity?

Answer 216

Vaccination

Question 217

Which of the following cells live the longest?

Answer 217

Monocytes

Question 218

Which immunoglobulin is the predominant immunoglobulin on mucus membrane surfaces and is found in secretions such as saliva, breast milk, urine, and tears?

Answer 218

IgA

Question 219

What type of major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecule combines fragments of proteins that have been phagocytized, pinocytosed, or endocytosed from the extracellular environment?

Answer 219

MHC class II

Question 220

Which of the following is not involved in the humoral immune response?

Answer 220

Urine

Question 221

Which of the following is TRUE for antibodies?

Answer 221

The fragment antigen-binding (Fab fragment) is the portion of an antibody that binds to antigens.

Question 222

Which of the following is called CD8+ T cells?

Answer 222

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes

Question 223

Which phase of the immune response is characterized by the removal of antigens by many different mechanisms?

Answer 223

Effector phase

Question 224

After intense exercise of long duration, the concentration of natural killer cells and natural cytolytic activity decline below preexercise values. Maximal reduction in natural killer cell concentrations and lower natural killer cell activity occur _____ hours after exercise.

Answer 224

2 to 4 hours

Question 225

When HIV enters the body, what cells serve as receptors for the HIV retrovirus, allowing direct passage of the infection into other target cells?

Answer 225

CD4 cells and macrophages

Question 226

At what stage will an individual with HIV disease develop Kaposi sarcoma?

Answer 226

Advanced HIV disease

Question 227

Which of the following is true when describing the factors affecting the immunocompromised person?

Answer 227

Reusable equipment can be one of the common reservoirs

Question 228

What type of hypersensitivity is characterized by a delayed response to the allergen?

Answer 228

Type IV (Cell-Mediated Immunity) Hypersensitivity

Question 229

What type of immunologic hypersensitivity would cause the symptoms of seasonal allergic rhinitis?

Answer 229

Type I (IgE-mediated or Immediate Type) Hypersensitivity

Question 230

Which of following is true for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?

Answer 230

Mild symptoms can be managed with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs to relieve muscle and joint pain while reducing tissue inflammation

Question 231

Which of the following is the avenue for HIV transmission?

Answer 231

-Sexual activity (anal, vaginal, very rarely oral) -Maternal to child (either through pregnancy, during delivery, or breastfeeding) -Contaminated blood All the above

Question 232

CD4+ T cells produce different cytokines that modulate the immune system and help it to mount effective responses against foreign invaders. Which of the following is NOT the primary functions of CD4+ T cells?

Answer 232

Producing antibodies

Question 233

In human defense mechanisms, which of the following acts as the body’s first line of defense?

Answer 233

Neutrophils

Question 234

What type of cell development begins with a progenitor cell from the bone marrow and migrates to the thymus gland, which is a primary lymphoid organ?

Answer 234

T Cell

Question 235

Which phase of the immune response is characterized by generation of long-lived T and B lymphocytes?

Answer 235

Memory phase

Question 236

Which immunoglobulin is the first secreted antibody and is predominant in a primary or initial immune response?

Answer 236

IgM

Question 237

What type of immunologic hypersensitivity is characterized by releasing histamine?

Answer 237

Type I (IgE-mediated or Immediate Type) Hypersensitive

Question 238

What type of immunologic hypersensitivity would cause systemic lupus erythematosus?

Answer 238

Type III (Immune complex mediated) Hypersensitivity

Question 239

Which of the following is true when describing the factors affecting the immunocompromised person?

Answer 239

Invasive devices are reservoirs

Question 240

In immunology, the term _____ refers to a lack of recognition and responsiveness to one’s own tissue antigens

Answer 240

Self-tolerance

Question 241

Which of the following is called CD4+ T cells?

Answer 241

Helper T Lymphocytes

Question 242

Which of the following symptoms will be affected by HIV?

Answer 242

-Integumentary -Cardiopulmonary -Neuromuscular (all of the above)

Question 243

Which of the following belongs to the second line of defense?

Answer 243

inflammatory response

Question 244

________ refers to the emergence of HIV antibodies in the bloodstream (i.e. the person becomes positive for HIV antibodies) and usually takes place 3 to 6 weeks after infection.

Answer 244

seroconversion

Question 245

-azole

Answer 245

Azole antifungals Used for fungal infections

Question 246

-avir

Answer 246

HIV Protease inhibitors Used for HIV infections

Question 247

-cillin

Answer 247

Penicillin antibiotics Used for bacterial infections

Question 248

-cycline

Answer 248

Tetracycline antibiotics Used for bacterial infection

Question 249

-micin or -mycin

Answer 249

Various other antibacterials

Question 250

What is the term for the period of time between when the pathogen enters the host and the appearance of clinical symptoms?

Answer 250

Incubation period

Question 251

____ are primarily animal pathogens that generally produce disease in humans through the bite of an insect vector

Answer 251

Rickettsiae

Question 252

Which of the following is an example of an airborne disease?

Answer 252

Measles

Question 253

______ are unusual self-replicating bacteria that have no cell wall components and very small genomes.

Answer 253

Mycoplasmas

Question 254

What size of disease-causing organism would be most likely to be transmitted through the air?

Answer 254

4 um (micrometers)

Question 255

Which of the following precautions do not require a patient to have a private room?

Answer 255

Standard precautions

Question 256

What vaccine is recommended for all adults with a booster every 10 years?

Answer 256

Tetanus and diphtheria

Question 257

What is the recommendation for work restrictions in an individual who has active measles?

Answer 257

Exclude from duty

Question 258

What is the duration of an uncomplicated case of influenza type A or B?

Answer 258

3 to 7 days

Question 259

Antibacterial drugs work by all of the following mechanisms except inhibition of _____

Answer 259

bacterial intracellular calcium release

Question 260

Penicillin, cephalosporins, and several other commonly used antibacterial drugs exert their antibacterial effects by inhibiting the function of ______, which results in impaired production of ______ that are essential for normal membrane structure and function.

Answer 260

penicillin-binding proteins; peptidoglycans

Question 261

Aminoglycosides, erythromycin, the tetracyclines, and several other antibacterial drugs affect the function of the bacterial _______, thereby impairing______ in the bacterial cell.

Answer 261

ribosome; messenger RNA translation

Question 262

Certain antibacterial drugs such as trimethoprim and the sulfonamide drugs (e.g., sulfadiazine, sulfamethoxazole) selectively inhibit the synthesis and function of nucleic acids and certain essential amino acids by impairing the production of ______ in bacterial cells.

Answer 262

folic acid

Question 263

Bacteria can become resistant to antibacterial drugs by ____

Answer 263

-developing enzymes that destroy the drug -modifying or masking the site where the antibacterial drug typically binds on or within the bacterial cell -modifying the bacterial enzymes normally targeted by the drug -developing drug efflux pumps that expel the drug from the bacterial cell (all the above are true)

Question 264

Viral infections are often more difficult to treat than other types of infections because ____

Answer 264

viruses penetrate into human cells, and cannot be easily killed without harming the human cell

Question 265

Certain anti-HIV drugs (e.g., zidovudine, didanosine, and zalcitabine) are known as reverse transcriptase inhibitors because they ______

Answer 265

inhibit transcription of viral RNA to viral DNA

Question 266

Reverse transcriptase inhibitors such as zidovudine, didanosine, and lamivudine are especially important for physical therapists because they may cause side effects such as ____

Answer 266

-peripheral neuropathy -myopathy -joint pain (all the above are true)

Question 267

Interferons are small proteins that

Answer 267

-exert nonspecific antiviral activity -control cell differentiation -limit excessive cell proliferation -modify certain immune processes (all the above are true)

Question 268

Which of the following medications is an antibiotic?

Answer 268

Ampicillin

Question 269

What is the drug class of Doxycycline?

Answer 269

Tetracycline antibiotics

Question 270

Based on the case study 45 Parkinson Disease, which of the following facts belong to the component of body structures/functions on the ICF framework?

Answer 270

His tremors have become less pronounced during the last three weeks.

Question 271

Based on the case study 45 Parkinson Disease, which of the following facts belong to the personal factor on the ICF framework?

Answer 271

Relocated after his wife’s death and now living with family of four in Wyoming; mother/ wife of family is LPN and caregiver in the home.

Question 272

What is defined as the development of unhealthy conditions or disease?

Answer 272

Pathogenesis

Question 273

The World Health Organization (WHO) defines which of the following as "a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being, and not merely as the absence of disease or infirmity"?

Answer 273

Health

Question 274

Which of the following is the correct term used to describe a medical condition that is substantiated by objective data such as elevated temperature or presence of infection?

Answer 274

Disease

Question 275

If an individual has experienced brain damage that leads to decreased executive function, what area of the brain is most likely injured?

Answer 275

Right hemisphere

Question 276

Who created the germ theory?

Answer 276

Louis Pasteur

Question 277

Who made a ground-breaking study of mitochondrial DNA in the beginning of the 21st century?

Answer 277

Douglas Wallace

Question 278

Which is not a primary prevention strategy?

Answer 278

Antibiotics

Question 279

When was the Human Genome Project started?

Answer 279

1990

Question 280

The number one cause of death in the U.S. adult population, heart disease, has been reduced by how much due to changes in diet and lifestyle.

Answer 280

52%

Question 281

Gender and sex differences are topics with constantly updating information. Recent research has indicated that steroid-induced epigenetic changes impact a single life span. Which of the following may exert a multigenerational effect?

Answer 281

Endocrine-disrupting compounds

Question 282

Which of the following is NOT an example of a damage-based explanation of aging?

Answer 282

Telomerase theory

Question 283

Adverse childhood experiences are linked to problems in adulthood including all except

Answer 283

Travel related disease

Question 284

Who are examples of successful aging?

Answer 284

Those in their 100s

Question 285

Past schools of thought indicated that race was the cause of health disparities, while current thinking indicates that epigenetics is more likely the cause and include interactions between all except the following:

Answer 285

The amount of melanin in skin

Question 286

Life expectancy in the 20th century has increased by 35 yrs. Healthcare improvements have created an additional how many years of that 35?

Answer 286

7 years

Question 287

What group has seen the most rapid population increase in the past decade?

Answer 287

Over age 85

Question 288

Supercenturians live to be over how many years past 100?

Answer 288

10 years

Question 289

Adverse childhood experiences are linked to problems in adulthood including all except

Answer 289

Travel related disease

Question 290

The use of specific drugs to prevent, treat, or diagnose disease is known as

Answer 290

pharmacotherapeutics

Question 291

Toxicology is

Answer 291

the study of the harmful effects of chemicals

Question 292

The generic name of a drug

Answer 292

All of the above are true -is also known as the “official” or “nonproprietary” name -is often derived from the chemical name -tends to be somewhat shorter than the drug's chemical name

Question 293

The generic form of a drug is considered to be as safe and effective as the original, brand-name product if the generic form _________ as the brand-name drug.

Answer 293

All of the above are true -has the same type and amount of the active ingredient(s) -uses the same administration route -has the same pharmacokinetic profile (drug absorption, plasma levels, and so forth) -produces the same therapeutic effects

Question 294

Regarding drug development and approval, an “orphan drug” is a drug that is

Answer 294

given special funding for development because it is used in a small patient population with a relatively rare disease

Question 295

Prescription use of a drug to treat conditions other than those that the drug was originally approved to treat (off label prescribing)

Answer 295

is legal and quite common in the United States

Question 296

When two drugs are compared, the drug that requires a lower dosage to produce the same effect as a higher dose of the second drug is said to

Answer 296

be more potent

Question 297

The ______ effect occurs when drugs are transported initially to the liver where a significant amount of the drug may be metabolized and destroyed before the drug reaches its primary site of action.

Answer 297

first-pass

Question 298

The extent to which a drug reaches the systemic circulation is referred to as

Answer 298

bioavailability

Question 299

Osmosis refers to the special case of diffusion where the diffusing substance is

Answer 299

water

Question 300

A drug that has a volume of distribution of approximately 42 L in a healthy 70-kg man will typically be

Answer 300

distributed uniformly throughout all of the body fluids

Question 301

Drug developers are exploring nanotechnology (i.e., the use of very small particles with specific physical properties) as a way to

Answer 301

All of the above -target and deliver drugs to specific tissues within the body -facilitate drug absorption from the GI tract -enable drugs to cross the blood brain barrier more easily

Question 302

Drug metabolism that occurs when a drug is changed chemically following administration is also known as

Answer 302

biotransformation

Question 303

Most drugs are metabolized by _____ to the drug molecule, and the enzymes that catalyze these reactions are typically located at the ____ of specific cells.

Answer 303

adding an oxygen or removing a hydrogen; smooth (agranular) endoplasmic reticulum

Question 304

Prolonged administration of therapeutic drugs and other substances (alcohol, nicotine) may enhance the liver's ability to metabolize certain drugs, thus decreasing their therapeutic effect. This process is known as _______ .

Answer 304

enzyme induction

Question 305

Drugs and their metabolites are excreted from the body primarily by

Answer 305

kidneys

Question 306

To calculate drug elimination rates, blood flow to an organ and the fraction of drug removed from the plasma as it passes through the organ are measured to determine drug

Answer 306

clearence

Question 307

Drug metabolism by the liver and other organs typically creates a more ____ compound, thus enabling the compound to be ____ when it reaches the nephrons in the kidney.

Answer 307

polar; excreted

Question 308

The acetylcholine receptor located on the postsynaptic membrane of the skeletal neuromuscular junction is an example of a membrane receptor that

Answer 308

functions as an ion channel or pore

Question 309

Some drugs affect the function of the adenylate cyclase, an enzyme located on the inner surface of the cell membrane. This enzyme is responsible for hydrolyzing adenosine triphosphate (ATP) into _____, which acts as a second messenger that activates other enzymes (i.e., protein kinases) throughout the cell.

Answer 309

cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)

Question 310

A drug that binds readily to available receptors even if the concentration of drug is relatively low is said to have _______ for that receptor.

Answer 310

high affinity

Question 311

The ability of a drug to bind to its receptor can be influenced by local chemicals such as guanine nucleotides, ammonium ions, and divalent cations. These local regulators are commonly known as _____.

Answer 311

allosteric modulators

Question 312

In contrast to an agonist, a pharmacologic antagonist

Answer 312

All the above are true -has affinity for the receptor, but lacks efficacy -is also known as a "blocker" -can be used prevent endogenous chemicals from overstimulating the receptor

Question 313

A drug that fails to evoke a maximal response even though it occupies all available receptors is known as

Answer 313

a partial agonist

Question 314

Overstimulation of postsynaptic receptors may lead to a decrease in responsiveness of the receptors. A fairly brief and transient decrease in receptor responsiveness is known as _____, whereas a more prolonged process in which the actual number of available receptors is diminished is known as _________.

Answer 314

desensitization; down-regulation

Question 315

What is the mechanism of action for Ozempic?

Answer 315

Activates glucagon-like-peptide-1 (GLP-1) receptor.

Question 316

One of the common adverse reactions to Oxycodone is ______.

Answer 316

Constipation

Question 317

What is the drug subclass of Tresiba?

Answer 317

Diabetes: Insulins

Question 318

Clostridium tetani releases an exotoxin that is preferentially absorbed by the alpha motor neurons and delivered into the central nervous system. What is the cause of injury to the neuron cell?

Answer 318

Infectious agent

Question 319

What happens when the immune system is compromised or if the number of invading microorganisms overwhelms the immune system?

Answer 319

Disease occurs

Question 320

Which of the following conditions is generally not thought to be caused by free radicals?

Answer 320

Rheumatoid arthritis

Question 321

What is the correct term for protein malnutrition?

Answer 321

Kwashiorkor

Question 322

During acute reversible cell injury, the concentrations of which two elements are increased?

Answer 322

Sodium and calcium

Question 323

Which of the following is a change in cell morphology and function resulting from the conversion of one adult cell type into another?

Answer 323

Metaplasia

Question 324

Pure hypertrophy occurs only where in the body?

Answer 324

Heart and striated muscles

Question 325

Hypertrophy of what chamber of the heart is a typical complication of hypertension?

Answer 325

Left ventricle

Question 326

Which of the following statements regarding necrosis of cells is true?

Answer 326

Cell size increases.

Question 327

The hallmark of chronic inflammation in a tissue is the accumulation of

Answer 327

All of the above -Lymphocytes -Macrophages -Plasma cells

Question 328

What type of inflammatory exudate is bright red or bloody and signals the presence of red blood cells?

Answer 328

Sanguineous

Question 329

What is the first step in the migration of leukocytes from the vasculature to the interstitial tissues?

Answer 329

Binding of leukocytes to receptors on endothelial cells of venules

Question 330

What is the approximate life cycle of a neutrophil after extrusion from the circulation?

Answer 330

24 hours

Question 331

Which of the following cells store and release histamine?

Answer 331

Mast cells

Question 332

What is secreted by fibroblasts early during the tissue repair reaction?

Answer 332

Proteoglycans

Question 333

What type of collagen is the predominant component of growth plates in bones?

Answer 333

Type II

Question 334

What is true in phases of healing?

Answer 334

Hemostasis and degeneration --> Inflammation --> Proliferation and migration --> Remodeling and maturation

Question 335

Which of the followings about cell injury is true?

Answer 335

Apoptosis is a programmed cell death.

Question 336

Which of the following is the LEAST appropriate for a physical therapist to do during a patient’s healing process?

Answer 336

Suppress inflammatory process as soon as possible.

Question 337

What is the primary indication of prednisone?

Answer 337

Anti-inflammatory

Question 338

What is the drug class for celecoxib?

Answer 338

Cyclooxygenase type 2 (COX-2) inhibitors

Question 339

Which of the following factors would affect tissue healing?

Answer 339

All of the above -Vascular sufficiency -Caffeine -Immobility

Question 340

The time for overall bone healing varies depending on

Answer 340

All of the above -The bone involved and degree of soft tissue injury -Treatment required (e.g., immobilization versus surgical repair, the need for bone grafting or use of bone graft substitutes) -The fracture site and type

Question 341

Which of the following is true for tendon injury and healing?

Answer 341

Hemostasis begins immediately, followed by the inflammatory process, which begins during the first 72 hours (3 to 5 days) after injury or surgical intervention

Question 342

A 45-year-old patient presents with redness, swelling, and pain in her right knee following an injury. Laboratory tests reveal elevated levels of prostaglandins in the affected area. Based on these findings, which of the following is the most likely effect of prostaglandins in the context of this patient's acute inflammation?

Answer 342

Pain and fever, along with modulation of vascular permeability.

Question 343

Which of the following sequences correctly describes the steps in leukocyte accumulation during an inflammatory response?

Answer 343

Margination → Adhesion → Diapedesis → Chemotaxis

Question 344

Which of the following best describes the role of diapedesis in the inflammatory response?

Answer 344

Diapedesis is the active migration of leukocytes out of the blood vessels and into the interstitial tissues, enabling them to reach the site of injury.

Question 345

Which of the following chemical mediators is primarily responsible for increasing vascular permeability and causing vasodilation during an acute inflammatory response?

Answer 345

Histamine

Question 346

Which statement best describes the role of fibronectin in tissue healing?

Answer 346

It provides a scaffold, tensile strength, and helps to “glue” other substances and cells together.

Question 347

Which collagen type is first deposited during wound healing, contributes to the elasticity of skin and blood vessels, and is eventually replaced by type I collagen as healing progresses?

Answer 347

Type III

Question 348

A 65-year-old patient with diabetes mellitus and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents to the physical therapy clinic with a non-healing pressure ulcer on their sacrum. How should these comorbid conditions be managed to optimize the healing process of the pressure ulcer?

Answer 348

Address glycemic control through consultation with the patient’s endocrinologist and improve oxygenation by managing COPD symptoms, alongside regular wound care.

Question 349

Which of the following conditions is likely to experience delayed healing due to its decreased blood supply?

Answer 349

Achilles tendon tear

Question 350

What roles do myofibroblasts play during the remodeling and maturation phase of tissue healing?

Answer 350

They contribute to tissue contraction by containing contractile proteins that help shrink the healing tissue.

Question 351

Which of the following is an example of labile cells in the human body, known for their continuous division and high turnover rate?

Answer 351

Epithelial cells of the skin

Question 352

Which of the following statements about lung tissue repair after injury is TRUE?

Answer 352

After lethal injury to alveolar cells, regeneration can occur only when the basement membrane remains intact.

Question 353

Which of the following statements about peripheral nerve injury and repair is TRUE?

Answer 353

Within 24 hours of nerve section, new axonal sprouts from the central stump are observed.

Question 354

A 60-year-old patient presents with a fractured femur after a fall. X-rays show a soft callus formation around the fracture site. Based on the typical phases of bone healing, what is the most accurate description of the phase the patient is currently in?

Answer 354

The patient is in the reparative phase, as evidenced by the formation of a soft callus, which will eventually be replaced by a hard callus.

Question 355

A 23-year-old female athlete presents with a diagnosis of tendinopathy in the Achilles tendon. The condition is characterized by pain and pathologic changes in the tendon for more than one year. Which of the following statements accurately describes the type of tendinopathy and its underlying mechanism?

Answer 355

The condition is tendinosis, characterized by a degenerative process with little or no inflammation but histopathologic changes in the collagen matrix.

Question 356

A 45-year-old patient presents with a recent knee injury after a sports activity. The patient reports pain, swelling, and episodes of the knee locking. MRI results indicate a meniscal tear. Based on the location of the tear, which statement is most accurate regarding the potential for healing and management?

Answer 356

Tears in the outer one-third of the meniscus, which is vascular, are likely to heal more effectively due to better blood supply, and the management might include conservative measures such as physical therapy.

Question 357

A 55-year-old patient presents with chronic low back pain and MRI findings that reveal disc degeneration with significant dehydration and fissures in the annulus fibrosus. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the pathological changes occurring in the disc and their potential contribution to the patient's symptoms?

Answer 357

The loss of water-binding capacity and formation of fissures in the annulus fibrosus lead to reduced shock absorption and increased compressive forces, contributing to the patient’s chronic low back pain.

Question 358

-erol (adrenergic)

Answer 358

Bronchodilators Albuterol, pirbuterol

Question 359

-phylline

Answer 359

Bronchodilators (xanthine derivatives) Theophylline, aminophylline

Question 360

-sone

Answer 360

Glucocorticoids Anti-inflammatory, Immunosuppressants

Question 361

-olone

Answer 361

Glucocorticoids Anti-inflammatory, Immunosuppressants

Question 362

-coxib

Answer 362

Cyclooxygenase type 2 (COX-2) inhibitors Pain, inflammation

Question 363

-pril

Answer 363

Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor Antihypertensive, congestive heart failure

Question 364

-sartan

Answer 364

Angiotensin II - receptor blockers Antihypertensive, congestive heart failure

Question 365

-olol

Answer 365

Beta blockers Antihypertensive, antianginal, antiarrythmic, congestive heart failure

Question 366

-ipine

Answer 366

Calcium channel blocker Antihypertensive, antianginal

Question 367

-statin

Answer 367

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors (statins) Hyperlipidemia

Question 368

The number one cause of death in the US adult population heart disease has been reduced by how much due to changes in diet and lifestyle

Answer 368

52%

Question 369

Past school of thought indicated that race was the cause of health disparities while current thinking indicated that epigenetics is more likely the cause and include interactions between all except the following

Answer 369

The amount of melanin in skin

Question 370

Life expectancy in the 20th century has increased by 35 yrs. Healthcare improvements have created an additional how many years of that 35?

Answer 370

7 years

Question 371

A pt is doing an initial evaluation on a knee patient. Which of the following facts told by a patient belongs to the component of body structures/functions on the ICF framework?

Answer 371

My knee feels really weak and sometimes it just gives way without warning

Question 372

Which of the following statements made by patients best represents a personal factor according to the ICF framework?

Answer 372

I have a strong support system from My family and close friends, which helps my manage my health better

Question 373

Which of the following actions taken by PT is an example of tertiary preventions in preventative medicine

Answer 373

Designing a fall prevention program for an elderly patient to reduce the risk of future falls, to prevent complications and further deterioration

Question 374

Which of the following is the set time frame to define a subacute condition

Answer 374

There is no set time frame

Question 375

Which of the following psychological defense mechanisms is illustrated by a patient who insists that their illness is not serious and continues to engage in activities that might worsen their condition?

Answer 375

Denial

Question 376

What is the process or condition of growing old that may be the result of continuous cellular metabolism, cellular damage, and inefficient repair systems throughout the entire lifespan

Answer 376

Senescence

Question 377

Based on behavioral trends in health care which of the following age groups is most likely to assume a passive role in their own healthcare?

Answer 377

Age 80 and older

Question 378

Recent epigentic studies have shown benefits to people with increased blood pressure high blood sugar excess body fat around the waist and abnormal cholesterol or triglycerides levels with interventions involving which interventions that physical therapist provide

Answer 378

Therapeutic activities and exercise

Question 379

Which if the following has been shown to control DNA accessibility and gene activation or inactivation

Answer 379

DNA methylation and histone acetylation

Question 380

Which of the following is the product of gene expression ?

Answer 380

Protein

Question 381

The______ effect occurs when drugs are transported initially to the liver where a significant amount of the drug may be metabolized and destroyed before the drug reaches its primary site of action

Answer 381

First pass

Question 382

Which of the following is the common cardiovascular sign or symptom in integumentary system?

Answer 382

Cyanosis

Question 383

Which of the following is true about aging and the cardiovascular system?

Answer 383

Age-related decline in steroid hormones triggers a feedback loop to elevate cholesterol concentrations.

Question 384

Which of the following lab results can be mostly identified on a person with metabolic syndrome?

Answer 384

Triglyceride 200 mg/dL

Question 385

When athero mas (plaques of fatty deposits) form in the inner layer (intima) of the arteries, it is called _____.

Answer 385

Atherosclerosis

Question 386

Which of the following surgical management is primarily for atherosclerosis of the coronary arteries?

Answer 386

Coronary Artery Bypass Graft (CABG)

Question 387

Which of the following medications can treat hypertension?

Answer 387

All of the above -α-Adrenergic Receptor Antagonists and Direct Renin Inhibitors -Calcium Channel Blockers and Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE) Inhibitors -Diuretics and β-Adrenergic Receptor Antagonists (β Blockers)​

Question 388

What is true for angina pectoris?

Answer 388

All of the above -Any condition that decrease the blood (oxygen) supply or increase blood (oxygen) demand of the myocardium can cause myocardial ischemia. -Pain that spreads to the throat, neck, back, jaw, shoulder or arms is one of the most common warning signs of heart attack. -Anemia can cause myocardial ischemia.

Question 389

Which of the following is modifiable risk factors of primary hypertension?

Answer 389

Personality traits (hostility, sense of hopelessness)​

Question 390

_________ is a disturbance of heart rate or rhythm caused by an abnormal rate of electrical impulse generation by the sinoatrial (SA) node or the abnormal conduction of impulses​.

Answer 390

Arrhythmia (dysrhythmia)

Question 391

Which of the following is the risk factor for deep venous thrombosis?

Answer 391

All of the above -Neurologic disorder (e.g., spinal cord injury, stroke) -Prolonged air travel -Childbirth and delivery

Question 392

Which of the following is true about lymphatic system?

Answer 392

It is designed to absorb macromolecules (protein and fatty acids); help maintain fluid balance in the tissues; fight infection; and assist in the removal of cellular debris and waste products from the extracellular spaces.

Question 393

Which of the following body region contain more lymph nodes?

Answer 393

Axillary

Question 394

What is true about lymph nodes?

Answer 394

All of the above -As lymph flows from the periphery to the root of the limbs and on to the central circulation, it passes through many lymph nodes, which act as filters to cleanse the lymph of waste products and cellular debris. -Lymph nodes produce lymphocytes and macrophages. -Lymph nodes offer 100 times the normal resistance to flow of lymph within the lymphatic vessels themselves, which explains why they are often the sites of obstruction in lymphatic dysfunction.

Question 395

What is lymphadenopathy?

Answer 395

Enlargement of the lymph nodes

Question 396

What is true for lymphedema?

Answer 396

In advanced cases of lymphedema, loss of skin integrity allows portals of entry for bacteria to invade the skin and cause recurrent infection​

Question 397

In what type of anemia would one see red blood cells of various sizes?

Answer 397

Anisocytosis

Question 398

Pernicious anemia is caused by autoantibodies that block the formation of the _____.

Answer 398

B12-intrinsic factor complex

Question 399

Lack of clotting factor _____ causes hemophilia A.

Answer 399

VIII

Question 400

Which of the following could be the cause of hemolytic (destruction of erythrocytes) anemia?

Answer 400

Hemoglobinopathies (e.g., sickle cell diseases)

Question 401

Which of the following is true for complete blood count (CBC)?

Answer 401

Decreased hematocrit (Hct) may indicate there is an anemia caused by blood loss.

Question 402

-barbital

Answer 402

barbiturates Sedative-hypnotic, antiseizure, anesthetic

Question 403

-epam or -olam

Answer 403

Benzodiazepines Sedative-hypnotic, antiseizure, anesthetic, antianxiety

Question 404

-caine

Answer 404

Local anesthetics, antiarrythmics

Question 405

-parin

Answer 405

Low-molecular-weight heparins anticoagulants

Question 406

What is the most common renal cell carcinoma?

Answer 406

Clear cell cancer

Question 407

Pain in the _____ during the early days of dialysis is referred to as "first use syndrome."

Answer 407

Chest and back

Question 408

A urinary tract infection (UTI) that has spread to the kidneys is referred to as _____.

Answer 408

pyelonephritis

Question 409

What bacterium is most often responsible for urinary tract infection (UTI)?

Answer 409

Escherichia coli

Question 410

Pyuria is evidenced by what type of cell in the urine?

Answer 410

Leukocytes

Question 411

What type of kidney stones are common in people with gout?

Answer 411

Uric acid stones

Question 412

Which of the following is the least common cause of chronic kidney disease?

Answer 412

Cystic kidney disease

Question 413

In what stage of chronic kidney disease does uremia develop?

Answer 413

Stage 5

Question 414

With impairment of the glomerular filtration rate, the body is unable to excrete _____ or synthesize _____.

Answer 414

phosphate; calcitriol

Question 415

Which of the following is not a common site for extraskeletal calcification associated with chronic kidney disease?

Answer 415

Bladder

Question 416

What type of prostatitis is diagnosed when a man does not complain of pain or discomfort but has white blood cells in his semen?

Answer 416

Asymptomatic inflammatory prostatitis

Question 417

Which of the following pathogens is associated with acute prostatitis?

Answer 417

Escherichia coli

Question 418

Why does the prostate increase in weight as a man ages?

Answer 418

Cells die at a slower rate

Question 419

What does a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test measure?

Answer 419

Protein in the bloodstream secreted by cells in the prostate gland

Question 420

_______ urinary incontinence is often related to detrusor instability, a condition in which the bladder contracts at small volumes, often in response to triggers such as running water or arriving home.

Answer 420

Urgency

Question 421

What is the primary indication for dalteparin?

Answer 421

Anticoagulants

Question 422

_________ nerves originate in the spinal cord at the level of S2, S3, and S4, and innervate the bladder wall via the _______ nerve.

Answer 422

Parasympathetic; pelvic

Question 423

Urination is initiated with voluntary relaxation of the _______ followed by relaxation of the _____ and contraction of the __________ to squeeze the urine out of the bladder.

Answer 423

pelvic floor muscle; internal urethral sphincter; detrusor muscle`

Question 424

There are three layers of the pelvic floor muscles from superficial to deep. The levator ani muscle (the deepest layer) is made up of

Answer 424

puborectalis, pubococcygeus, coccygeus, and ischiococcygeus muscles

Question 425

Which of the following is the symptom when the pelvic floor muscles are over activity?

Answer 425

Obstructive voiding

Question 426

Deficient oxygenation of arterial blood is called ____________.

Answer 426

Hypoxemia

Question 427

A productive cough with purulent sputum (________) may indicate infection, whereas a productive cough with nonpurulent sputum (________) is nonspecific and indicates airway irritation.

Answer 427

yellow or green; clear or white

Question 428

Which of the following is true for aging and the pulmonary system?

Answer 428

Reduced ciliary action combined with the other changes noted predisposes the older client to increased respiratory infections.

Question 429

___________ pneumonia refers to pneumonia that occurs due to fluids or other material from the oral cavity or GI tract is aspirated into the lower respiratory tract

Answer 429

Aspiration

Question 430

_________ is almost always caused by exposure to environmental irritants, especially smoking.

Answer 430

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

Question 431

_________ is defined as an enlargement of the air spaces beyond the terminal bronchiole, and is associated with a loss of elasticity in the distal airways, airway collapse, and gas trapping.

Answer 431

Emphysema

Question 432

In terms of types of asthma and its classifications, which of the following is extrinsic causative factor for asthma?

Answer 432

Indoor and outdoor pollutants, including ozone, smoke, exhaust

Question 433

Which of the following is true for chronic bronchitis and emphysema?

Answer 433

Cough is uncommon, with little sputum production in emphysema.

Question 434

Which of the following lab results can be seen on a patient with multiple organ dysfunction syndrome?

Answer 434

Leukocytosis

Question 435

Which of the following is TRUE for respiratory alkalosis?

Answer 435

It occurs as a result of a loss of acid without compensation and most commonly when the lungs excrete excessive amounts of CO2

Question 436

What is the major cause of death after septic, traumatic, and burn injuries?

Answer 436

Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome

Question 437

Which of the following is the sign of septic shock?

Answer 437

Increased BUN/creatinine

Question 438

In cases of lung cancer, hypercalcemia can be caused by the secretion of peptide with ________.

Answer 438

parathyroid hormone

Question 439

What is defined as injury, physical and/or mental, caused from the use of medication?

Answer 439

Adverse drug events

Question 440

Which of the following is not a sign of severe sepsis?

Answer 440

Increased urine output

Question 441

Advanced cancers produce ______ as a result of tissue destruction and the body’s nutrients being used by the malignant cells for further growth.

Answer 441

cachexia

Question 442

A (an) ________ occurs when medications interact unfavorably, possibly adding to the pharmacologic effects

Answer 442

drug–drug interaction

Question 443

Which of the following can be a limitation of lab testing?

Answer 443

All of the above -Different individual’s tolerances for the alterations in homeostasis implied by abnormal lab test results. -Lab samples are mislabeled. -People’s sex and age.

Question 444

What is true about urinary tract infection?

Answer 444

The symptoms can include pain at the shoulder

Question 445

What is true about bladder function?

Answer 445

Normal voiding interval is a minimum of 2 hours (often in the elderly) and usually 3-5 hours between voids for others

Question 446

What type of kidney stones is the most common?

Answer 446

Calcium stones

Question 447

Which of the following is considered part of the lower urinary tract?

Answer 447

Bladder

Question 448

Which of the following types of urinary incontinence occurs during during activities that increase intraabdominal pressure?

Answer 448

Stress

Question 449

Which of the following is a risk for urinary incontinence?

Answer 449

All of the above -taking diuretics or narcotic analgesics -diabetics mellitus and depression -cystocele or uterine prolapse

Question 450

What is the primary indication for lidocaine?

Answer 450

local anesthetic

Question 451

The most superficial layer of the PFMs includes....

Answer 451

External anal sphincter, the sexual muscles (bulbocavernosus and ischiocavernosus) and the superficial transverse perineal muscles

Question 452

In chronic kidney disease, proteinuria is the hallmark of _______.

Answer 452

Stage 4

Question 453

What type of prostatitis is the most commonly seen in the PT clinic?

Answer 453

Chronic prostatitis/Chronic pelvic pain syndrome

Question 454

Where are metastases of prostate tumors most located?

Answer 454

Spine