Unit 2 Assignments, Quizzes, and Drug Suffixes Flashcards
(108 cards)
1
Q
In what stage of cancer is the cancer usually localized to the primary organ?
A
Stage 1
2
Q
A history of obesity or type 2 diabetes is a risk factor for which of the following cancers?
A
Colorectal, pancreatic, breast
3
Q
_____ can be generated by translocations in which part of one gene moves to a different chromosome and recombines with another gene.
A
Fusion proteins
4
Q
Approximately what percent of clients with newly diagnosed cancers have clinically detectable metastasis?
A
30%
5
Q
What is the first level of dysplasia?
A
Metaplasia
6
Q
What type of malignant tumor originates from adipose tissue?
A
Liposarcoma
7
Q
Using the TNM staging system, what would be the grade if the cancer has no distant metastasis?
A
M 0
8
Q
What gene appears to be the trigger of programmed cell death as a way of regulating uncontrolled cellular proliferation?
A
p53
9
Q
Which of the following organs is the most likely location of primary metastasis of bone cancer?
A
Lungs
10
Q
What are the most common of all metastatic tumors?
A
Lung
11
Q
What is the primary indication of theophylline?
A
Bronchodilation
12
Q
What is the drug class for albuterol?
A
Bronchodilators (adrenergic)
13
Q
If a patient has a tumor in the pancreas, what would be the most common site of pain referral for this tumor?
A
Shoulder, midthoracic, or low back
14
Q
Cells are most sensitive to radiation therapy in the _____ phase
A
G2
15
Q
What is the last step in the mitotic cycle before cell division?
A
G2
16
Q
Which chemotherapy agents bind to DNA and prevent DNA replication?
A
Alkylating agents
17
Q
Tamoxifen in an antiestrogen hormonal agent is used in _____ to block estrogen receptors in tumor cells that require estrogen to thrive.
A
Breast cancer
18
Q
Monoclonal antibodies may be especially effective in treating certain cancers because these drugs
A
bind to antigens on the surface of a particular type of cancer cells.
19
Q
A relatively new strategy for treating certain tumors is to prevent the formation of new blood vessels, thus impairing tumor growth by starving the tumor of oxygen and nutrients. Drugs that use this strategy are known as ________.
A
angiogenesis inhibitors
20
Q
Most cancer chemotherapy agents exert severe and potentially toxic side effects because
A
most of these drugs do not discriminate between healthy tissues and cancerous cells.
21
Q
Some of the newer cancer chemotherapy agents (e.g., cytokines) are called biological therapies or biological response modifiers because they
A
encourage the body’s immune system to fight cancerous cells.
22
Q
The drug subclass of cytarabine is antimetabolites. What is the mechanism of action of cytarabine?
A
Inhibit DNA and RNA synthesis
23
Q
Which of the following healthcare professionals determines the delivery method and dosage of radiation therapy to be provided to a patient?
A
Radiation oncologist
24
Q
Which of the following therapy options is considered as nonpharmacologic modality for cancer pain?
A
Relaxation training
25
Which of the following concepts describe the theory that each round of chemotherapy will affect a certain percentage of cancerous cells and the chemotherapeutic regimen can never completely eliminate the tumor?
Cell kill hypothesis
26
Tumor lysis syndrome (TLS) is a serious complication of chemotherapy that has significant adverse effects on the _______.
Kidney
27
A 37-year-old female has breast cancer. She is receiving FAC chemotherapy: Fluorouracil, doxorubicin (Adriamycin), Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan). (Please answer the following questions from 15-18) 15. What is the drug class of Fluorouracil?
Antimetabolites
28
What is the trade name of doxorubicin?
Adriamycin
29
What is the drug class of Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)?
Alkylating agents
30
What are the common adverse effects of Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)?
All of the above
-Blood disorders (anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia)
-GI distress (nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite)
-Bladder irritation; hair loss; cardiotoxicity; pulmonary toxicity
31
A 68-year-old man presents with a history of chronic cough, weight loss, and hemoptysis. Chest X-ray reveals a mass in the right lung. A biopsy confirms the diagnosis of non-small cell lung cancer.
Question:
Given the patient's diagnosis, which of the following imaging studies would be most appropriate to stage the tumor and assess for metastasis?
Positron emission tomography (PET) scan
32
Follow-up Case:
The patient in the previous case receives chemotherapy, which includes a combination of agents such as doxorubicin, bleomycin, vinblastine, and dacarbazine (ABVD).
Question:
To help the patient recover from chemotherapy-induced neutropenia, which of the following medications might the physician consider?
Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)
33
Which of the following is a risk factor of cancer?
Advancing age, gender, occupation
(all of the above)
34
What type of malignant tumor originates from cartilage?
Chondrosarcoma
35
Which of the following organs is the most likely location of primary metastasis of colorectal cancer via blood?
Liver
36
_______ also called cancer-causing genes, have the ability to transform normal cells into malignant cells, independently or incorporated with a virus and there are more than 100 of them that have been identified
Oncogenes
37
Using the TNM staging system, what would be the grade if the cancer has increasing degrees of involvement of regional lymph nodes?
N1
38
Which of the following medications is a bronchodilator?
Pirbuterol
39
Which of the following cells can recognize different types of tumor antigens?
T cells
40
Which of the following is a common tumor evasion strategy?
-Antigenic modulation
-Induction of immune suppression
-Loss of immunogenicity
(all of the above)
41
In what stage of cancer is it described that there is an increased risk of spread because of tumor size?
Stage II
42
Which of the following is a secondary prevention of cancer?
Pap test of cervix
43
Which of the following tests are useful for early detection and staging of tumors?
-CT scan and MRI
-Tissue biopsy
-Laboratory values
(all of the above)
44
In the mitotic phase, when are cells most susceptible to chemotherapy?
Synthesis and mitosis
45
Which of the following is true for irradiation therapy (radiotherapy)?
It can be used preoperatively to shrink a tumor, making it operable, while preventing further spread of the disease
46
Which class of chemotherapy agents disrupts cellular mitosis by inhibiting microtubule assembly or disassembly?
Microtubule targeting agents
47
Bevacizumab (Avastin) is approved by the FDA to treat cancer. It binds and inhibits vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) to prevent the formation of new blood vessels, thus impairing cancer growth by starving the tissue of oxygen and nutrients. What drug class is Bevacizumab (Avastin)?
Angiogenesis inhibitor
48
Which of the following is true for myelosuppression after chemotherapy?
Patient may easily get infected due to fewer white blood cells
49
Which of the following is an adverse effect of chemotherapy?
-fatigue
-pulmonary toxicity
-renal toxicity (nephrotoxicity)
(all of the above)
50
What can be the cause of cancer related fatigue?
Emotional distress
51
When tumors produce signs + symptoms at a site distant from the tumor or its metastasized sites, these remote effects of malignancy are collectively referred to as _______.
Paraneoplastic syndromes
52
Which of the following are large granular lymphocyte cells that do not express antigen-specific receptors?
Natural Killer cells
53
Which of the following membrane proteins function to present antigenetic peptides for recognition by T cells?
Major histocompatibility complex molecules
54
What type of immunity used by the body adapts to recognize, eliminate, and establish long-term memory against a threat?
Acquired immunity
55
Which of the following is an example of active artificial acquired immunity?
Vaccination
56
Which of the following cells live the longest?
Monocytes
57
Which immunoglobulin is the predominant immunoglobulin on mucus membrane surfaces and is found in secretions such as saliva, breast milk, urine, and tears?
IgA
58
What type of major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecule combines fragments of proteins that have been phagocytized, pinocytosed, or endocytosed from the extracellular environment?
MHC class II
59
Which of the following is not involved in the humoral immune response?
Urine
60
Which of the following is TRUE for antibodies?
The fragment antigen-binding (Fab fragment) is the portion of an antibody that binds to antigens.
61
Which of the following is called CD8+ T cells?
Cytotoxic T lymphocytes
62
Which phase of the immune response is characterized by the removal of antigens by many different mechanisms?
Effector phase
63
After intense exercise of long duration, the concentration of natural killer cells and natural cytolytic activity decline below preexercise values. Maximal reduction in natural killer cell concentrations and lower natural killer cell activity occur _____ hours after exercise.
2 to 4 hours
64
When HIV enters the body, what cells serve as receptors for the HIV retrovirus, allowing direct passage of the infection into other target cells?
CD4 cells and macrophages
65
At what stage will an individual with HIV disease develop Kaposi sarcoma?
Advanced HIV disease
66
Which of the following is true when describing the factors affecting the immunocompromised person?
Reusable equipment can be one of the common reservoirs
67
What type of hypersensitivity is characterized by a delayed response to the allergen?
Type IV (Cell-Mediated Immunity) Hypersensitivity
68
What type of immunologic hypersensitivity would cause the symptoms of seasonal allergic rhinitis?
Type I (IgE-mediated or Immediate Type) Hypersensitivity
69
Which of following is true for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
Mild symptoms can be managed with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs to relieve muscle and joint pain while reducing tissue inflammation
70
Which of the following is the avenue for HIV transmission?
-Sexual activity (anal, vaginal, very rarely oral)
-Maternal to child (either through pregnancy, during delivery, or breastfeeding)
-Contaminated blood
All the above
71
CD4+ T cells produce different cytokines that modulate the immune system and help it to mount effective responses against foreign invaders. Which of the following is NOT the primary functions of CD4+ T cells?
Producing antibodies
72
In human defense mechanisms, which of the following acts as the body's first line of defense?
Neutrophils
73
What type of cell development begins with a progenitor cell from the bone marrow and migrates to the thymus gland, which is a primary lymphoid organ?
T Cell
74
Which phase of the immune response is characterized by generation of long-lived T and B lymphocytes?
Memory phase
75
Which immunoglobulin is the first secreted antibody and is predominant in a primary or initial immune response?
IgM
76
What type of immunologic hypersensitivity is characterized by releasing histamine?
Type I (IgE-mediated or Immediate Type) Hypersensitive
77
What type of immunologic hypersensitivity would cause systemic lupus erythematosus?
Type III (Immune complex mediated) Hypersensitivity
78
Which of the following is true when describing the factors affecting the immunocompromised person?
Invasive devices are reservoirs
79
In immunology, the term _____ refers to a lack of recognition and responsiveness to one's own tissue antigens
Self-tolerance
80
Which of the following is called CD4+ T cells?
Helper T Lymphocytes
81
Which of the following symptoms will be affected by HIV?
-Integumentary
-Cardiopulmonary
-Neuromuscular
(all of the above)
82
Which of the following belongs to the second line of defense?
inflammatory response
83
________ refers to the emergence of HIV antibodies in the bloodstream (i.e. the person becomes positive for HIV antibodies) and usually takes place 3 to 6 weeks after infection.
seroconversion
84
-azole
Azole antifungals
Used for fungal infections
85
-avir
HIV Protease inhibitors
Used for HIV infections
86
-cillin
Penicillin antibiotics
Used for bacterial infections
87
-cycline
Tetracycline antibiotics
Used for bacterial infection
88
-micin or -mycin
Various other antibacterials
89
What is the term for the period of time between when the pathogen enters the host and the appearance of clinical symptoms?
Incubation period
90
____ are primarily animal pathogens that generally produce disease in humans through the bite of an insect vector
Rickettsiae
91
Which of the following is an example of an airborne disease?
Measles
92
______ are unusual self-replicating bacteria that have no cell wall components and very small genomes.
Mycoplasmas
93
What size of disease-causing organism would be most likely to be transmitted through the air?
4 um (micrometers)
94
Which of the following precautions do not require a patient to have a private room?
Standard precautions
95
What vaccine is recommended for all adults with a booster every 10 years?
Tetanus and diphtheria
96
What is the recommendation for work restrictions in an individual who has active measles?
Exclude from duty
97
What is the duration of an uncomplicated case of influenza type A or B?
3 to 7 days
98
Antibacterial drugs work by all of the following mechanisms except inhibition of _____
bacterial intracellular calcium release
99
Penicillin, cephalosporins, and several other commonly used antibacterial drugs exert their antibacterial effects by inhibiting the function of ______, which results in impaired production of ______ that are essential for normal membrane structure and function.
penicillin-binding proteins; peptidoglycans
100
Aminoglycosides, erythromycin, the tetracyclines, and several other antibacterial drugs affect the function of the bacterial _______, thereby impairing______ in the bacterial cell.
ribosome; messenger RNA translation
101
Certain antibacterial drugs such as trimethoprim and the sulfonamide drugs (e.g., sulfadiazine, sulfamethoxazole) selectively inhibit the synthesis and function of nucleic acids and certain essential amino acids by impairing the production of ______ in bacterial cells.
folic acid
102
Bacteria can become resistant to antibacterial drugs by ____
-developing enzymes that destroy the drug
-modifying or masking the site where the antibacterial drug typically binds on or within the bacterial cell
-modifying the bacterial enzymes normally targeted by the drug
-developing drug efflux pumps that expel the drug from the bacterial cell
(all the above are true)
103
Viral infections are often more difficult to treat than other types of infections because ____
viruses penetrate into human cells, and cannot be easily killed without harming the human cell
104
Certain anti-HIV drugs (e.g., zidovudine, didanosine, and zalcitabine) are known as reverse transcriptase inhibitors because they ______
inhibit transcription of viral RNA to viral DNA
105
Reverse transcriptase inhibitors such as zidovudine, didanosine, and lamivudine are especially important for physical therapists because they may cause side effects such as ____
-peripheral neuropathy
-myopathy
-joint pain
(all the above are true)
106
Interferons are small proteins that
-exert nonspecific antiviral activity
-control cell differentiation
-limit excessive cell proliferation
-modify certain immune processes
(all the above are true)
107
Which of the following medications is an antibiotic?
Ampicillin
108
What is the drug class of Doxycycline?
Tetracycline antibiotics
