FINAL EXAM Flashcards

1
Q

electrical modality used for pain control muscle spasm edema and strengthening

A

high volt modalities

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2
Q

low volt is ____ and high volt is ____

A

150v

150-500v

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3
Q

high volt modality machine are: (3 characteristics)

A

unidirectional
monophasic
interrupted

Direct current

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4
Q

high volt machine generates electromotive force up to

A

500 volts

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5
Q

physiological effects of high voltage

A

endogenous opioids
improved lymph drainage
decrease muscle spasm
local circulatory increase

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6
Q

Ardnt-Schultz Law

A

physiologic effects of energy absorption are concentration dependent

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7
Q

law of grothus and draper

A

energy is either absorbed superficial or transmitted to deeper layers

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8
Q

therapeutic effects of high volt

A

similar to IFC, russian, biphasic
same uses as medium frequency modalities

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9
Q

recommended frequencies of high voltage

A

pain reduction 70-110 pps
muscle spasm: 70-110 pps
muscle reeduction: 15 pps
edema <10pps

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10
Q

Contraindications for high voltage

A

neoplasia
sensory issue
Not over head
pacemakers
pregnancy
circulatory problems
metal in the area

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11
Q

polarity and effects

positive–>

negative –>

A

Positive: analgesia, vasoconstriction, germicidal

Negative: trigger pts, vasodilation, adhesions, muscle re-ed

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12
Q

what is Iontophoresis?

A

utilizing polarity of direct current to introduce chemicals into superficial tissues

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13
Q

Iontophoresis is done by:

A

using gauze soaked in a chemical covered by an electrode

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14
Q

what is the depth of iontophoresis?

A

1-2mm
.5ma/cm2

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15
Q

what is Phonophoresis?

A

ultrasound waves are used to drive substances through skin

substance is mixed into the coupling medium

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16
Q

what are some charactersitics of phonophoresis treatment?

A

1mhz
5-10min
1 w/cm2

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17
Q

contraindications to phonophoresis

A

broken skin
allergy
decreased sensation
malignancy
pregnancy

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18
Q

what is the acronym for Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation?

A

TENS

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19
Q

what is the purpose of TENS?

A

sensory stimulation for pain control but muscle contraction can occur

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20
Q

TENS parameters consist of:

A

alternating current
variation of faradic/square waveforms

70-150pps
width; 40-500 microseconds

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21
Q

low frequency tens typically have

A

longer widths

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22
Q

placement of TENS pads

A

dermatomes, nerve pathways, acupuncture points for pain control

muscle belly for contraction

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23
Q

indications for TENS

A

acute pain
chronic-if used daily
neuropathy-overplexus if used daily
obstetrical- depends on position of fetus in labor

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24
Q

contraindications of TENS

A

metal
poor sensation
local skin lesion
rash in the area

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25
treatment protocol of TENS
high and low frequency in one session 30-45min Mild SLS to Strong SLS
26
main goal of treatment of biofeedback is to train a patient to
perceive physical or biomechanical changes without the use of measuring instruments
27
intrinsic feedback is defined as:
cutaneous, vestibular, proprioceptive input sent to CNS
28
extrinsic feedback is defined as:
verbal, mechanical cues that a movement or function can be changed (outside of the patient)
29
electrical biofeedback is defined as:
therapeutic procedure that uses electronic or electromechanical instruments to accurately measure, process, and feedback reinforcing via auditory or visual
30
effects of biofeedback are achieved via:
achieved by active work on patients part or by influencing physiological mechanisms
31
what are the 6 effects of biofeedback?
decrease spasm decrease HR/RR decrease BP increase strength decrease pain decrease depression
32
what are 6 advantages of biofeedback?
small changes can be seen quicker immediate identification of results illustrates progress of rehab for patient reduces stress from lack of improvement identifying training problems scientific approach to rehab
33
what are 4 types of biofeedback instruments?
peripheral skin temp finger photo-transmission unit skin conductance activity electromyographic activity
34
what are 4 disadvantages of biofeedback?
rely on extrinsic input from device over internal weaning off device if dependent instrument makes activity exercise like as opposed to free flowing mechanical failure
35
instruments in biofeedback do not:
measure the physiologic event directly, but an aspect correlated with it (muscle contraction strength is not measure with EMG)
36
what are 4 devices used to measure forms of biofeedback?
sphygmomanometer thermometer EKG EEG
37
what are some devices or tests that do not measure biofeedback?
lab studies scales height imaging
38
what is EMG biofeedback?
nerve impulse reaches muscle and is sensed by the electrode gives either visual (graph, oscilloscope) or auditory feedback (beep)
39
the sound in ultrasound is produced by what?
**piezoelectric effect** rapid expansion and contraction of the crystal as AC passes
40
soundwaves of ultrasound are either:
1mhz -deep 3mhz- superficial
41
what is the audible range for human hearing?
20-20,000hz
42
provide some characteristcs of 1 mhz vs 3mhz ultrasound penetration:
1mhz= 2-5cm 3mhz= 3mhz- 1-2cm
43
what is the duty cycles of ultrasound?
20% acute 50% subacute cont- chronic
44
what is the intensity of ultrasound?
.5-1w/cm2 thin acute 1-1.5 acute thin 1-1.5w/cm2 chronic thin 1.5-2w/cm2 chronic thick
45
continuous ultrasound has a ____ effect
thermic effect 100% duty cycle
46
what are some benefits of ultrasound?
histamine release to enhance inflammation increase temp soften collagen decrease pain
47
what are some contraindications of ultrasound?
vascular insufficiency over reproductive organs over eyes over gravid uterus near pacemaker over tumor over joint replacements or open GP
48
ultrasound frequency should not exceed _______
14 days can be 6-8 days
49
what are some thermal effects of ultrasound?
collagen extensibility decrease joint stiffness reduction of muscle spasm increase blood flow 1mhz and 1.5w/cm2- .2C increase 3mhz and 1.5w/cm2 - .6c per minute increase temp
50
ultrasound can cause non-thermal effects like:
cavitation -stable and unstable cavitation acoustic streaming-increase membrane permeability
51
sound travels faster in ______ (water or air)
water than air so a coupling medium is needed for ultrasound
52
for bladder and underwater ultrasound, intensity is changed in which way:
increase .5w/cm2 immersion, the head is held .5-1.0cm away
53
what is combination therapy?
using ultrasound and electrical stim through transducer head
54
with regards to combo therapy, the dispersal electrode of combo must be:
4x area of transducer head
55
the treatment area of ultrasound must not be:
>2-3x transducer head
56
what are some diathermy adverse effects?
patients with implanted brain stimulators died after receiving diathermy following treatment for scoliosis and oral surgery as well
57
what are 3 types of diathermy?
short wave microwave ultrasound
58
diathermy is a form of:
**deep heat that is conversion** since the energy is converted within the tissue
59
what are some diathermy effects?
high frequency electromagnetic energy 10-100million hz dense tissue becomes warmer than less dense
60
diathermy is not used often because:
it cannot be precisely controlled or prescribed
61
diathermy must take place on a table free of what material?
metal
62
what are the parameters for medical shortwave diathermy?
13.56mhz-strong magnetic field 27.12mhz strong electrical field wavelengths between 3-30m long most commonly 12 meters
63
what are some Types of short wave diathermy?
inductor, induction field, induction coil condenser type pad electrodes coil electrodes continuous vs pulsed shortwave diathermy
64
explain the physiologic effects of short wave diathermy:
no contractions thermal effect causes: muscle relaxation vasodilation increased metabolism increased enzymatic activity increased lymph drainage increased phagocytosis decreased joint stiffness vibration releases histamine
65
what are some endocrine changes of short wave diathermy?
marked increase in production of blood glucose increased visceral circulation influences circulation more than hot pack, infrared, IFC
66
what are some physiologic effects of pulsed short wavediathermy?
similar to pulsed ultrasound repolarized damaged cells and restores sodium pump pearl chain effect of WBC and RBC line up in a row along vessel walls
67
MSK indications for shortwave or microwave diathermy
subacute or chronic phase due to heating element: sprain/strain myalgia osteoarthritis trigger points tenosynovitis
68
visceral conditions for short wave diathermy
COPD via bloodflow bronchitis via increased blood flow PMS via muscle relaxation cystitis via increased blood flow colic via muscle relaxation constipation hemorrhoids
69
contraindications of shortwave and microwave diathermy
acute inflammation ANY ACUTE CONDITION edema metallic implants malignancy open GP poor blood supply pregnancy Contact lenses IUD vascular problems no watches or jewelry bc of heat and magnetic fields
70
what are some treatment set ups with diathermy?
lay of towel is used to absorb sweat no moisture can be in region treated intensity is set to a comfortable warmth 10 minutes-15min
71
what is microwave diathermy?
higher frequency shorter wavelength and less penetration compared to short wave "deep heat" good for low fat or water content areas
72
parameters of microwave diathermy:
2.5billion hz 12cm wavelength superficial penetration strong magnetic field is absorbed subcutaneously
73
what is magnetron?
electrons flow through iron structure on microwave diathermy depends on velocity and force
74
what is director?
small structure focuses the microwave diathermy onto a small area of the body
75
heat of diathermy is ___
conversion as it is converted in the body
76
the director of microwave diathermy should be
90 degree to the area being treated at all times
77
LASER stands for:
light amplification of stimulated emissions of radiation
78
provide visible light characteristics:
400-800nm infrared and microwave are above 800nm
79
UV light has the following wave characteristic:
>400nm with x rays and gamma rays
80
frequency is defined as what?
number of wavelengths/cycles per one second
81
how does the energy source of lasers work?
stimulates atoms to move to high energy level and creates a population inversion (more excited atoms)
82
lasing medium is responsible for:
wavelength and color of the light may be a solid liquid or gas
83
resonating cavity is defined as:
chamber for lasers that is capped with a 100% impermeable mirror and 80-99% impermeable mirror on the other end light reflects back and forth until is has enough energy to leave the chamber
84
what does the term monochromatic mean?
one wavelength
85
what does the term coherent mean?
light waves are continuous and unbroken
86
what does the term collimated mean?
light runs parrallel and does not diverge
87
how would you describe laser qualities in 3 terms?
monochromatic coherent collimated
88
longer wavelength lasers are able to:
penetrate deeper than shorter ones
89
what are the FDA laser power guidlines?
1mw for continuous .5mw pulsed
90
what are some indications for laser?
facilitate wound healing reduce pain increase tensile strength of scar tissue decrease scar tissue decrease inflammation increase fx healing
91
what are some contraindications for laser?
not over gravid uterus no over malignancy not over eyes not over thyroid
92
what is UVA?
long UV wavelength not commonly used and close to visible light
93
what is UVB?
medium wavelength Sunburn
94
what is UVC?
short wavelength bactericidal (most common)
95
what are UVA and UVB?
near UV
96
UVC is also known as:
far UV
97
what are some ultraviolet therapy processes?
2-3mm penetration 10% reaches dermis palms of soles and hands of feed- no UV reaches dermis due to callous absorption causes leathery skin (epidermal hyperplasia)
98
what are some physiologic effects of UV therapy?
erythema pigmentation UVA/UVB thickened skin edema increase fibroblast activity increase RBC numbers stimulates Vit D production bactericide
99
what is the term photokeratitis? what does this lead to pathology wise?
inflammation of the eye from UV light conjunctivitis photophobia tearing ocular spasm
100
what are some types of UV lamps?
carbon arc mercury arc (most common) high pressure type (hot quartz) fluorescent UV (Blacklight)
101
what are some indications of UV therapy?
acne psoriasis sinusitis osteomalacia sterilization herpes zoster folliculitis septic wounds pityriasis rosea pressure sores
102
what are some precautions for UV?
cover eyes fair skin cannot contact metal older and younger people with thin skin
103
what are some contraindications of UV?
lupus pregnancy pellagra acute exzema herpes diabetes hyperthyroidism chicken pox acute psoriasis
104
what is the minimum erythemal dose?
exposure time needed to create erythema 24 hours after exposure treatment should never exceed 10x MED
105
what are physiological reasons to utilize traction?
seperates joint surfaces promotes gliding of joints decrease spasm decrease congestion stretches adhesions
106
wha tare some contraindications for traction?
acute trauma cancer cardiovascular disorders joint instability uncontrolled HTN osteoporosis pregnancy
107
____ must be done with traction
tolerance testing must be done before treatment begins
108
vibration therapy is ____ and _____
stimulative <3min sedative >3min
109
what are some indications for vibration therapy?
adhesions trigger points congestion joint swelling circulatory stasis
110
what are some contraindications for vibration therapy?
acute inflammation heart disease hyper anxiety states damaged organs over eyes thrombophlebitis
111
What are the three Stages of healing?
Inflammatory response Fibroblastic repair (subacute) Maturation-remodeling (chronic)
112
Explain the Inflammatory response stage
2-4 days after injury Leukotaxin increases leukocytes along cell walls Necrosin cleans area with phagocytosis
113
Explain the Fibroblastic Repair Phase
Begins 4 days after injury Lasts up to 10 days Granulation tissue infiltrates 6-7 days after injury fibroblasts lay down collagen haphazardly
114
Explain the Maturation-Remodeling Phase
Begins around day 7 and lasts for years Haphazard collagen is realigned along movement patterns Parallel to tensile forces
115
pain can outlive its purpose, when it does so, it is a _____ ______ in itself
Diseased state
116
sensory receptors meissners- pacinian- merkels- ruffini- krauses- free nerve-
meissners- light touch pacinian- deep (fast) merkels-deep pressure (slow) ruffini- touch/tension, joint position krauses- thermo free nerve- chemical, thermal noxious stimulus
117
specific theory of pain is an indicator of what?
specific nerve fibers and endings carry noxious stimuli to the brain with ascending pathways pathway determines nature of stimulus
118
Explain the summation pain theory
excessive stimulation of nerve fibers results in transmission of noxious stimulus no anatomical basis for this theory
119
What is the pattern theory?
stimulus must match a certain pattern to be transmitted as pain or other sensations stimulus must come in abnormal matter
120
What is the sensory interaction theory?
specialized system exists to control sensory input from large and small afferent fibers summation is prevented from occuring
121
LIST all pain theories:
specific theory summation theory pattern theory sensory theory likely a combination of all to form pain pathways
122
What are 4 main causes of pain?
external causes (skin) internal causes (no skin) lesions of CNS (skin is involved) non-physiological
123
What will 80pps/hz cause?
enkephalins to be released for short period of time natural painkiller
124
What will 10pps/hz cause?
endorphins to be released natural painkiller that lasts much longer than enkephalins
125
What is a rheobase?
minimal intensity needed to cause contraction
126
What is chronaxie?
minimum time it takes to cause contraction at 2x rheobase
127
What is the definition: “decrease in sensitivity to and area that is exposed to prolonged stimulation or the same frequency”
wedensky inhibition
128
Describe ohms law:
amps (current) is directly proportional to the voltage and inversely proportional to the resistance amps=volts/resistance increase intensity and resistance will be lessened
129
What is the cosine law?
as the source of the energy moves away from the perpendicular its intensity lessens and absorption lessons cosine of 90degree
130
What is the inverse square law?
intensity of radiation is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from its source
131
a ____ frequency is formed due to the interactions of 2 frequencies:
beat frequency
132
cold pack procedure
1 towel layer 5 minutes and 60 minutes in between treatments 1/2 inch penetration conduction heat transfer
133
superficial heat application
10-20min (15min) check every 5 min conduction heat 1/4-1/2 inch penetration 6-8 towel layers
134
paraffin bath procedure
20-30 min conduction heat 1/4 inch penetration 6-10 dips
135
fluidotherapy procedure
cellulose particles convection 110-125f 15-20 min 1/4 inch
136
russian or biphasic for edema
moderate muscle contraction 10/10 cycle 15 min 20-50hz normal one channel 1.5-2 ramp
137
biphasic acute
15 min 80-150 mild sensory stim normal, continuous
138
biphasic chronic
15 min 1-10hz normal continuous strong sensory stim
139
biphasic spasm
15 min 80-150hz mild motor stim normal, continuous
140
russian for muscle strengthening
(only one that can be done for strengthening) 35-50hz 30+ min 10/30(rehab) 10/50 for health people strong motor stim normal 1 channel 2 channels co-contract or reciprocal
141
IFC acute
80-150hz (high) mild sensory stim target/sweep 15 min
142
IFC chronic
15 min 1-10hz strong sensory stim target/sweep (2 channels)
143
pre-mod acute
15 min high 80-150hz 1 channel mild sensory stim
144
pre-mod chronic
15 min low 1-10hz 1 channel strong sensory stim
145
Dynatron microcurrent pads
20-30 min .3hz frequency 50microamps intensity should not feel it
146
dynatron microcurrent probes
.5hz-10hz 350-550ua 4-6 spots circle the dragon protocol (10 sec at each spot)
147
alphastim microcurrent probes
.5hz 350-550ua 4-6 spots at 10 seconds (circle the dragon)
148
positive polarity is used to treat ____ while negative treats _____
acute problems chronic problems
149
alphastim transcranial
30+ min to 2 hrs 350-550ua .5hz clip to earlobes