Final Exam Flashcards
During a loaded movement assessment (pushing or pulling), what is a sign that the neck muscles are working more than they should be?
a.) shoulder elevation
b.) shoulder depression
c.) excessive cervical flexion
a.) shoulder elevation
Where is the hyoid bone located in the cervical spine?
a.) between C3 and C4
b.) the anterior neck in a muscular sling
c.) the posterior neck in a muscular sling
d.) the throat
b.) the anterior neck in a muscular sling
The head weighs 10-12 lbs. When the neck is flexed at 60 degrees, such as when looking down at a cell phone, how many pounds of relative stress does this place on the neck?
a.) 60lbs
b.) 30lbs
c.) 50lbs
d.) 40lbs
a.) 60lbs
How can sustained forward head posture also contribute to the development of TMJ disorders?
a.) causing stabilization of the hyoid bone
b.) causing alteration of length-tension relationships in the head and neck
c.) causing a reduction of force requirements for the jaw muscles
d.) promoting underactivity in the suboccipital muscles
b.) causing alteration of length-tension relationships in the head and neck
A condition that typically effects older adults, but can appear in middle-aged individuals with a genetic predisposition that is categorized by narrowing of the spinal canal that causes compression on the spinal cord is called…
a.) spinal stenosis
b.) degenerative disc disease
c.) thinning disc
d.) bulging disc
a.) spinal stenosis
All of the following are integration exercises for forward head posture except…
a.) chin tucks
b.) ball combo 1
c.) squat to row
a.) chin tucks
To help correct a client’s forward head posture, the CES recommends that the client perform the chin tuck exercise. What primary muscles are targeted when performing this exercise?
a.) upper trapezius
b.) scalenes
c.) deep cervical flexors
d.) sternocleidomastoid (SCM)
c.) deep cervical flexors
How many cervical vertebrae make up the cervical spine?
a.) 7
b.) 5
c.) 12
d.) 3
a.) 7
Polly demonstrates forward head posture during her assessment. Which of her muscles are most likely underactive?
a.) latissimus dorsi
b.) serratus anterior
c.) sternocleidomastoid
d.) deep cervical flexors
d.) deep cervical flexors
An individual (180cm) performs the single leg broad jump, and you record a best distance of 105cm with the left leg and 112cm with the right leg. Did this person pass the FCS Single Leg Jump Screen?
a.) yes
b.) no
b.) no
Which of the following exercises are appropriate to use to activate muscles involved in the shoulder elevation compensation?
a.) push-pull plus and ball combo 1
b.) ball combo 2 with dowel rod
c.) ball scaption and ball cobra
c.) ball scaption and ball cobra
If a male subject fails to get a 3 on the Trunk Stability Push-Up, where does he align his thumbs on his second attempt?
a.) xiphoid process
b.) chin
c.) forehead
d.) clavicle
b.) chin
Performing a gait assessment can be a great technique for observing dynamic range of motion. During which phase of gait is ankle mobility assessed?
a.) midstance
b.) initial contact
c.) late midstance
d.) propulsion
c.) late midstance
What is the minimal typical duration of acute static stretching per muscle group in isolation (no dynamic warm-up) that would lead to performance impairments?
a.) 30 seconds
b.) 60 seconds
c.) 120 seconds
d.) 20 seconds
b.) 60 seconds
What is the purpose of holding a ball between the knees during a seated thoracic rotation test?
a.) to provide a focal point for the client
b.) to guide the path of rotation
c.) to keep the feet apart
d.) to stabilize the lower body
d.) to stabilize the lower body
During a static posture assessment, your client presents the following: excessive thoracic kyphosis, elevated shoulders, scapular winging, excessive lumbar lordosis, lateral leg rotation and knee hyperextension. Which of Janda’s syndromes do you suspect?
a.) lower crossed
b.) layered crossed
c.) upper crossed
b.) layered crossed
What is the name given for the wrist bones collectively?
a.) carpals
b.) tarsals
c.) metatarsals
d.) metacarpals
a.) carpals
Loaded movement assessments reveal non-neutral wrists and mobility assessments reveal restricted wrist flexion motion. What muscle group should be lengthened?
a.) elbow flexors
b.) wrist extensors
c.) wrist flexors
d.) elbow extensors
b.) wrist extensors
“Righty tighty” is a great way to remember…
a.) pronation
b.) supination
c.) both
b.) supination
A 180cm athlete performs a Broad Jump with Arms Impact Control Screen from the FCS and you record a distance of 205cm for the best attempt. Did this person pass the broad jump screen?
a.) yes
b.) no
a.) yes
De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis affects which part of the hand?
a.) radial side of the hand
b.) dorsal side
c.) palmar side
d.) ulna side
a.) radial side of the hand
During an OHSA, a client demonstrates a lack of elbow extension. To what is this often attributed?
a.) poor shoulder mobility
b.) poor elbow stability
c.) underactive biceps brachii
d.) overactive biceps brachii
d.) overactive biceps brachii
An individual (180cm) performs the Broad Jump with hands on hips, and you record a distance of 170cm for the best attempt. Their best attempt at the Broad Jump with Arms was 190cm. Did this person pass the Broad Jump Hands on Hip Screen from the FCS?
a.) yes
b.) no
b.) no
An individual (180cm) with a 112cm single leg jump on right leg performs the 2-1-2 Jump Screen with the right leg. You record a distance of 125cm. Did this person pass the FCS 2-1-2 Screen for the right leg?
a.) yes
b.) no
b.) no
From the anatomical position, rotation of the forearm such that the palm faces downward is known as what motion?
a.) ulnar deviation
b.) radial deviation
c.) forearm supination
d.) forearm pronation
d.) forearm pronation
Consider the following scores for an FCS upper extremity motor control screen:
Attempts:
1 - 20”
2 - unsuccessful
3 - unsuccessful
4 - 22”
5 - 23”
6 - 21”
What is the final score of the screen?
a.) 22”
b.) 23”
c.) 21”
b.) 23”
What are the key compensations at the LPHC to look for during the Single Leg Squat Assessment?
a.) asymmetric weight shift and forward trunk lean
b.) posterior and anterior pelvic tilt
c.) asymmetric weight shift and inward or outward trunk rotation
c.) asymmetric weight shift and inward or outward trunk rotation
Matt presented with a knee valgus compensation that did not improve with a heel lift on the overhead squat assessment. What two muscles should be addressed as a key part of the activation exercises of Matt’s corrective exercise program?
a.) biceps femoris
b.) gluteus medius and gluteus maximus
c.) TFL/IT band
d.) gastrocnemius and soleus
b.) gluteus medius and gluteus maximus
Which of these ankle positions are a proper description of pronation, as seen in a squat loading/lowering phase?
a.) dorsiflexion, foot abduction and eversion
b.) plantar flexion, foot abduction and inversion
c.) plantar flexion, foot adduction and inversion
d.) dorsiflexion, foot adduction and eversion
a.) dorsiflexion, foot abduction and eversion
What is an example of a client-related factor?
a.) Where will the client be training primarily?
b.) What neuromuscular and physiological adaptations are necessary to achieve training objectives?
c.) How much time does the client have to commit to their program?
d.) What are the client’s specific goals?
d.) What are the client’s specific goals?
Kaden is a 45-year old office worker just beginning a corrective exercise program. What is an example of a total-body primer exercise for more advanced programming in the future?
a.) barbell squat
b.) push-up
c.) ball squat with overhead press
d.) seated overhead press
c.) ball squat with overhead press
What best describes the psycho-physiological concept of stretch tolerance?
a.) a client can tolerate the maximum amount of pain during a dynamic stretching activity
b.) a client can tolerate the maximum amount of discomfort during a prolonged stretch
c.) a client can tolerate the level of discomfort during a prolonged stretch
d.) a client can only tolerate a short duration of stretching due to pain
c.) a client can tolerate the level of discomfort during a prolonged stretch
What are the dysfunctional spinal postures identified by Kendall?
a.) upper crossed syndrome, lower crossed syndrome and kyphosis-lordosis
b.) kyphosis-lordosis, layered cross syndrome and text neck
c.) sway-back, lordotic and upper crossed syndrome
d.) lordotic, flatback, swayback and kyphosis-lordosis
d.) lordotic, flatback, swayback and kyphosis-lordosis
Cueing an athlete to “land quietly” while performing plyometric drills is an example of which form of feedback?
a.) knowledge of results
b.) internal feedback
c.) knowledge of performance
c.) knowledge of performance
The acromion is part of which bony structure?
a.) infraspinatus fossa
b.) glenohumeral joint
c.) scapula
d.) coracoid
c.) scapula
“Weightlifter’s shoulder” is a term associate with what clinical presentation?
a.) dislocation of the GH during bench press
b.) osteoarthritis of the AC joint
c.) osteoarthritis of the GH joint
d.) tendinopathy of the rotator cuff
b.) osteoarthritis of the AC joint
How far apart should the cones be placed for the FCS Carry Screen?
a.) 30 feet
b.) 20 feet
c.) 25 feet
c.) 25 feet
Hanging effectively from a tree branch with an outstretched hand requires which full range of motion?
a.) horizontal abduction
b.) flexion
c.) 360-degree circumduction
d.) extension
b.) flexion
During transitional and loaded movements assessments (pushing and pulling), if the shoulders start to elevate, then the _________ and _________ need to be inhibited and lengthened.
a.) upper trapezius; levator scapulae
b.) serratus anterior; upper trapezius
c.) middle trapezius; lower trapezius
d.) none of the above
a.) upper trapezius; levator scapulae
A ligament injury to the acromioclavicular joint is best classified as…
a.) AC separation
b.) AC dislocation
c.) GH dislocation
d.) GH separation
a.) AC separation
When completing the Ankle Clearing Screen in the FCS, the subject passes when the testing knee is _________ the reference medial malleolus of the opposite foot.
a.) within
b.) beyond
c.) behind
b.) beyond
Which group of muscles should be inhibited and lengthened for someone exhibiting scapular winging?
a.) serratus anterior, middle and lower trapezius
b.) latissimus dorsi, pectoralis minor and upper trapezius
c.) latissimus dorsi, serratus anterior and lower trapezius
d.) latissimus dorsi, pectoralis major and rhomboids
b.) latissimus dorsi, pectoralis minor and upper trapezius
Consider the following results of an FCS Lower Extremity Motor Control Screen:
Left Foot Length - 12 in
Right Foot Length - 12 in
Left Foot Attempts: 18”, fail, 20”, fail, 24”
Right Foot Attempts: 19”, 23”, 26”, 26”
What is the final interpretation of the Lower Extremity Motor Control Screen?
a.) fail greatest reach; pass symmetry
b.) pass greatest reach on right foot; fail symmetry
c.) pass both greatest reach and symmetry
b.) pass greatest reach on right foot; fail symmetry
How many reps are performed of the FCS Lower Extremity Motor Control Screen on an individual side?
a.) as many times as needed to reach 2x foot length
b.) 3 attempts
c.) minimum 3 attempts, continue until next reach does not improve
c.) minimum 3 attempts, continue until next reach does not improve
Foam rolling the hamstring complex helps to reduce tension in the tissues allowing for appropriate levels of which joint action to be achieved?
a.) hip adduction
b.) hip extension
c.) knee flexion
d.) hip flexion
d.) hip flexion
What muscles are overactive when the client shows knee valgus during the OHSA?
a.) quadriceps and gastrocnemius
b.) gluteus complex
c.) hamstrings and anterior tibialis
d.) adductor complex and biceps femoris
d.) adductor complex and biceps femoris
A client that presents with feet turning out, excessive pronation and excessive forward lean in the OHSA is at risk for which injury?
a.) chronic ankle instability
b.) overpronation and limited ankle mobility are only linked to positions, not conditions or injuries
c.) Achilles tendinopathy
c.) Achilles tendinopathy
Strengthening of one side unilaterally can also increase the strength of which of the following?
a.) ipsilateral limb
b.) contralateral limb
c.) anteriorly rotated limb
d.) posteriorly rotated limb
b.) contralateral limb
A new client is just learning to use the myofascial roller. He asks how much pain should be felt while performing Step 1 of the myofascial rolling program. What is the best response?
a.) there should be some discomfort, but he should be able to relax and breathe
b.) instruct him to hold his breath and apply as much pressure as tolerable to the roller
c.) there should be no discomfort
d.) there should be maximal discomfort
a.) there should be some discomfort, but he should be able to relax and breathe
The modified Thomas test assesses mobility in all of the following joint motions except…
a.) hip adduction
b.) hip abduction
c.) hip extension
d.) knee flexion
b.) hip abduction
What is considered the ideal posture from the lateral view at the LPHC kinetic chain checkpoint?
a.) neutral pelvis
b.) anteriorly rotated pelvis
c.) posteriorly rotated pelvis
a.) neutral pelvis
You are a personal trainer watching your client complete a series of yoga poses you previously taught them. You witness your client make minor adjustments to their body’s position without any feedback from you. Which term describes what you are witnessing?
a.) knowledge of results
b.) external (augmented) feedback
c.) internal (sensory) feedback
c.) internal (sensory) feedback
Your client demonstrates asymmetric weight shift during the OHSA. Which of the following would be the appropriate muscle to activate?
a.) opposite side piriformis
b.) opposite side adductors
c.) same side TFL
d.) same side adductors
b.) opposite side adductors
Your client demonstrates an excessive posterior pelvic tilt during the OHSA. Which of the following is the most appropriate muscle to activate?
a.) erector spinae
b.) hamstrings complex
c.) adductor magnus
d.) abdominal complex
a.) erector spinae
If an individual has an excessive anterior pelvic tilt, the movement impairment might be due to a shortened hip flexor complex or latissimus dorsi, or because of limited thoracic extension. To identify where it’s coming from, which modification to the OHSA should be used?
a.) split squat stance
b.) hands on hips
c.) heels elevated on a plate
b.) hands on hips
