Final Exam Flashcards
(138 cards)
1
Q
During a loaded movement assessment (pushing or pulling), what is a sign that the neck muscles are working more than they should be?
a.) shoulder elevation
b.) shoulder depression
c.) excessive cervical flexion
A
a.) shoulder elevation
2
Q
Where is the hyoid bone located in the cervical spine?
a.) between C3 and C4
b.) the anterior neck in a muscular sling
c.) the posterior neck in a muscular sling
d.) the throat
A
b.) the anterior neck in a muscular sling
3
Q
The head weighs 10-12 lbs. When the neck is flexed at 60 degrees, such as when looking down at a cell phone, how many pounds of relative stress does this place on the neck?
a.) 60lbs
b.) 30lbs
c.) 50lbs
d.) 40lbs
A
a.) 60lbs
4
Q
How can sustained forward head posture also contribute to the development of TMJ disorders?
a.) causing stabilization of the hyoid bone
b.) causing alteration of length-tension relationships in the head and neck
c.) causing a reduction of force requirements for the jaw muscles
d.) promoting underactivity in the suboccipital muscles
A
b.) causing alteration of length-tension relationships in the head and neck
5
Q
A condition that typically effects older adults, but can appear in middle-aged individuals with a genetic predisposition that is categorized by narrowing of the spinal canal that causes compression on the spinal cord is called…
a.) spinal stenosis
b.) degenerative disc disease
c.) thinning disc
d.) bulging disc
A
a.) spinal stenosis
6
Q
All of the following are integration exercises for forward head posture except…
a.) chin tucks
b.) ball combo 1
c.) squat to row
A
a.) chin tucks
7
Q
To help correct a client’s forward head posture, the CES recommends that the client perform the chin tuck exercise. What primary muscles are targeted when performing this exercise?
a.) upper trapezius
b.) scalenes
c.) deep cervical flexors
d.) sternocleidomastoid (SCM)
A
c.) deep cervical flexors
8
Q
How many cervical vertebrae make up the cervical spine?
a.) 7
b.) 5
c.) 12
d.) 3
A
a.) 7
9
Q
Polly demonstrates forward head posture during her assessment. Which of her muscles are most likely underactive?
a.) latissimus dorsi
b.) serratus anterior
c.) sternocleidomastoid
d.) deep cervical flexors
A
d.) deep cervical flexors
10
Q
An individual (180cm) performs the single leg broad jump, and you record a best distance of 105cm with the left leg and 112cm with the right leg. Did this person pass the FCS Single Leg Jump Screen?
a.) yes
b.) no
A
b.) no
11
Q
Which of the following exercises are appropriate to use to activate muscles involved in the shoulder elevation compensation?
a.) push-pull plus and ball combo 1
b.) ball combo 2 with dowel rod
c.) ball scaption and ball cobra
A
c.) ball scaption and ball cobra
12
Q
If a male subject fails to get a 3 on the Trunk Stability Push-Up, where does he align his thumbs on his second attempt?
a.) xiphoid process
b.) chin
c.) forehead
d.) clavicle
A
b.) chin
13
Q
Performing a gait assessment can be a great technique for observing dynamic range of motion. During which phase of gait is ankle mobility assessed?
a.) midstance
b.) initial contact
c.) late midstance
d.) propulsion
A
c.) late midstance
14
Q
What is the minimal typical duration of acute static stretching per muscle group in isolation (no dynamic warm-up) that would lead to performance impairments?
a.) 30 seconds
b.) 60 seconds
c.) 120 seconds
d.) 20 seconds
A
b.) 60 seconds
15
Q
What is the purpose of holding a ball between the knees during a seated thoracic rotation test?
a.) to provide a focal point for the client
b.) to guide the path of rotation
c.) to keep the feet apart
d.) to stabilize the lower body
A
d.) to stabilize the lower body
16
Q
During a static posture assessment, your client presents the following: excessive thoracic kyphosis, elevated shoulders, scapular winging, excessive lumbar lordosis, lateral leg rotation and knee hyperextension. Which of Janda’s syndromes do you suspect?
a.) lower crossed
b.) layered crossed
c.) upper crossed
A
b.) layered crossed
17
Q
What is the name given for the wrist bones collectively?
a.) carpals
b.) tarsals
c.) metatarsals
d.) metacarpals
A
a.) carpals
18
Q
Loaded movement assessments reveal non-neutral wrists and mobility assessments reveal restricted wrist flexion motion. What muscle group should be lengthened?
a.) elbow flexors
b.) wrist extensors
c.) wrist flexors
d.) elbow extensors
A
b.) wrist extensors
19
Q
“Righty tighty” is a great way to remember…
a.) pronation
b.) supination
c.) both
A
b.) supination
20
Q
A 180cm athlete performs a Broad Jump with Arms Impact Control Screen from the FCS and you record a distance of 205cm for the best attempt. Did this person pass the broad jump screen?
a.) yes
b.) no
A
a.) yes
21
Q
De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis affects which part of the hand?
a.) radial side of the hand
b.) dorsal side
c.) palmar side
d.) ulna side
A
a.) radial side of the hand
22
Q
During an OHSA, a client demonstrates a lack of elbow extension. To what is this often attributed?
a.) poor shoulder mobility
b.) poor elbow stability
c.) underactive biceps brachii
d.) overactive biceps brachii
A
d.) overactive biceps brachii
23
Q
An individual (180cm) performs the Broad Jump with hands on hips, and you record a distance of 170cm for the best attempt. Their best attempt at the Broad Jump with Arms was 190cm. Did this person pass the Broad Jump Hands on Hip Screen from the FCS?
a.) yes
b.) no
A
b.) no
24
Q
An individual (180cm) with a 112cm single leg jump on right leg performs the 2-1-2 Jump Screen with the right leg. You record a distance of 125cm. Did this person pass the FCS 2-1-2 Screen for the right leg?
a.) yes
b.) no
A
b.) no
25
From the anatomical position, rotation of the forearm such that the palm faces downward is known as what motion?
a.) ulnar deviation
b.) radial deviation
c.) forearm supination
d.) forearm pronation
d.) forearm pronation
26
Consider the following scores for an FCS upper extremity motor control screen:
Attempts:
1 - 20"
2 - unsuccessful
3 - unsuccessful
4 - 22"
5 - 23"
6 - 21"
What is the final score of the screen?
a.) 22"
b.) 23"
c.) 21"
b.) 23"
27
What are the key compensations at the LPHC to look for during the Single Leg Squat Assessment?
a.) asymmetric weight shift and forward trunk lean
b.) posterior and anterior pelvic tilt
c.) asymmetric weight shift and inward or outward trunk rotation
c.) asymmetric weight shift and inward or outward trunk rotation
28
Matt presented with a knee valgus compensation that did not improve with a heel lift on the overhead squat assessment. What two muscles should be addressed as a key part of the activation exercises of Matt's corrective exercise program?
a.) biceps femoris
b.) gluteus medius and gluteus maximus
c.) TFL/IT band
d.) gastrocnemius and soleus
b.) gluteus medius and gluteus maximus
29
Which of these ankle positions are a proper description of pronation, as seen in a squat loading/lowering phase?
a.) dorsiflexion, foot abduction and eversion
b.) plantar flexion, foot abduction and inversion
c.) plantar flexion, foot adduction and inversion
d.) dorsiflexion, foot adduction and eversion
a.) dorsiflexion, foot abduction and eversion
30
What is an example of a client-related factor?
a.) Where will the client be training primarily?
b.) What neuromuscular and physiological adaptations are necessary to achieve training objectives?
c.) How much time does the client have to commit to their program?
d.) What are the client's specific goals?
d.) What are the client's specific goals?
31
Kaden is a 45-year old office worker just beginning a corrective exercise program. What is an example of a total-body primer exercise for more advanced programming in the future?
a.) barbell squat
b.) push-up
c.) ball squat with overhead press
d.) seated overhead press
c.) ball squat with overhead press
32
What best describes the psycho-physiological concept of stretch tolerance?
a.) a client can tolerate the maximum amount of pain during a dynamic stretching activity
b.) a client can tolerate the maximum amount of discomfort during a prolonged stretch
c.) a client can tolerate the level of discomfort during a prolonged stretch
d.) a client can only tolerate a short duration of stretching due to pain
c.) a client can tolerate the level of discomfort during a prolonged stretch
33
What are the dysfunctional spinal postures identified by Kendall?
a.) upper crossed syndrome, lower crossed syndrome and kyphosis-lordosis
b.) kyphosis-lordosis, layered cross syndrome and text neck
c.) sway-back, lordotic and upper crossed syndrome
d.) lordotic, flatback, swayback and kyphosis-lordosis
d.) lordotic, flatback, swayback and kyphosis-lordosis
34
Cueing an athlete to "land quietly" while performing plyometric drills is an example of which form of feedback?
a.) knowledge of results
b.) internal feedback
c.) knowledge of performance
c.) knowledge of performance
35
The acromion is part of which bony structure?
a.) infraspinatus fossa
b.) glenohumeral joint
c.) scapula
d.) coracoid
c.) scapula
36
"Weightlifter's shoulder" is a term associate with what clinical presentation?
a.) dislocation of the GH during bench press
b.) osteoarthritis of the AC joint
c.) osteoarthritis of the GH joint
d.) tendinopathy of the rotator cuff
b.) osteoarthritis of the AC joint
37
How far apart should the cones be placed for the FCS Carry Screen?
a.) 30 feet
b.) 20 feet
c.) 25 feet
c.) 25 feet
38
Hanging effectively from a tree branch with an outstretched hand requires which full range of motion?
a.) horizontal abduction
b.) flexion
c.) 360-degree circumduction
d.) extension
b.) flexion
39
During transitional and loaded movements assessments (pushing and pulling), if the shoulders start to elevate, then the _________ and _________ need to be inhibited and lengthened.
a.) upper trapezius; levator scapulae
b.) serratus anterior; upper trapezius
c.) middle trapezius; lower trapezius
d.) none of the above
a.) upper trapezius; levator scapulae
40
A ligament injury to the acromioclavicular joint is best classified as...
a.) AC separation
b.) AC dislocation
c.) GH dislocation
d.) GH separation
a.) AC separation
41
When completing the Ankle Clearing Screen in the FCS, the subject passes when the testing knee is _________ the reference medial malleolus of the opposite foot.
a.) within
b.) beyond
c.) behind
b.) beyond
42
Which group of muscles should be inhibited and lengthened for someone exhibiting scapular winging?
a.) serratus anterior, middle and lower trapezius
b.) latissimus dorsi, pectoralis minor and upper trapezius
c.) latissimus dorsi, serratus anterior and lower trapezius
d.) latissimus dorsi, pectoralis major and rhomboids
b.) latissimus dorsi, pectoralis minor and upper trapezius
43
Consider the following results of an FCS Lower Extremity Motor Control Screen:
Left Foot Length - 12 in
Right Foot Length - 12 in
Left Foot Attempts: 18", fail, 20", fail, 24"
Right Foot Attempts: 19", 23", 26", 26"
What is the final interpretation of the Lower Extremity Motor Control Screen?
a.) fail greatest reach; pass symmetry
b.) pass greatest reach on right foot; fail symmetry
c.) pass both greatest reach and symmetry
b.) pass greatest reach on right foot; fail symmetry
44
How many reps are performed of the FCS Lower Extremity Motor Control Screen on an individual side?
a.) as many times as needed to reach 2x foot length
b.) 3 attempts
c.) minimum 3 attempts, continue until next reach does not improve
c.) minimum 3 attempts, continue until next reach does not improve
45
Foam rolling the hamstring complex helps to reduce tension in the tissues allowing for appropriate levels of which joint action to be achieved?
a.) hip adduction
b.) hip extension
c.) knee flexion
d.) hip flexion
d.) hip flexion
46
What muscles are overactive when the client shows knee valgus during the OHSA?
a.) quadriceps and gastrocnemius
b.) gluteus complex
c.) hamstrings and anterior tibialis
d.) adductor complex and biceps femoris
d.) adductor complex and biceps femoris
47
A client that presents with feet turning out, excessive pronation and excessive forward lean in the OHSA is at risk for which injury?
a.) chronic ankle instability
b.) overpronation and limited ankle mobility are only linked to positions, not conditions or injuries
c.) Achilles tendinopathy
c.) Achilles tendinopathy
48
Strengthening of one side unilaterally can also increase the strength of which of the following?
a.) ipsilateral limb
b.) contralateral limb
c.) anteriorly rotated limb
d.) posteriorly rotated limb
b.) contralateral limb
49
A new client is just learning to use the myofascial roller. He asks how much pain should be felt while performing Step 1 of the myofascial rolling program. What is the best response?
a.) there should be some discomfort, but he should be able to relax and breathe
b.) instruct him to hold his breath and apply as much pressure as tolerable to the roller
c.) there should be no discomfort
d.) there should be maximal discomfort
a.) there should be some discomfort, but he should be able to relax and breathe
50
The modified Thomas test assesses mobility in all of the following joint motions except...
a.) hip adduction
b.) hip abduction
c.) hip extension
d.) knee flexion
b.) hip abduction
51
What is considered the ideal posture from the lateral view at the LPHC kinetic chain checkpoint?
a.) neutral pelvis
b.) anteriorly rotated pelvis
c.) posteriorly rotated pelvis
a.) neutral pelvis
52
You are a personal trainer watching your client complete a series of yoga poses you previously taught them. You witness your client make minor adjustments to their body's position without any feedback from you. Which term describes what you are witnessing?
a.) knowledge of results
b.) external (augmented) feedback
c.) internal (sensory) feedback
c.) internal (sensory) feedback
53
Your client demonstrates asymmetric weight shift during the OHSA. Which of the following would be the appropriate muscle to activate?
a.) opposite side piriformis
b.) opposite side adductors
c.) same side TFL
d.) same side adductors
b.) opposite side adductors
54
Your client demonstrates an excessive posterior pelvic tilt during the OHSA. Which of the following is the most appropriate muscle to activate?
a.) erector spinae
b.) hamstrings complex
c.) adductor magnus
d.) abdominal complex
a.) erector spinae
55
If an individual has an excessive anterior pelvic tilt, the movement impairment might be due to a shortened hip flexor complex or latissimus dorsi, or because of limited thoracic extension. To identify where it's coming from, which modification to the OHSA should be used?
a.) split squat stance
b.) hands on hips
c.) heels elevated on a plate
b.) hands on hips
56
What is the total score for this hypothetical FMS?
Deep Squat - 2
Hurdle Step L - 2; R - 3
In-Line Lunge L - 3; R - 3
Shoulder Mobility L -3; R -1
Active Straight Leg Raise L - 3; R -2
Trunk Stability Push Up: 2
Rotary Stability L - 2; R - 2
a.) 16
b.) 14
c.) 18
b.) 14
57
When an asymmetry is present in an FMS, which score of the 2 sides is used to calculate the total score?
a.) the lower score of the two
b.) the higher score of the two
c.) both scores combined
a.) the lower score of the two
58
At which joint might an increase in ROM serve as a preventative strategy by allowing the trunk to be more upright and minimizing shearing forces in the trunk?
a.) ankle
b.) pelvic upslip
c.) cervical spine
d.) knee varus
a.) ankle
59
Which of the following statements is true regarding the FMS?
a.) the goal is to have everyone score a total of 21
b.) it is intended to identify lack of movement health and/or movement competency
c.) it is intended to be diagnostic
b.) it is intended to identify lack of movement health and/or movement competency
60
What score would you give an FMS Rotary Stability pattern where the opposite arm and leg are touching?
a.) 0
b.) 1
c.) 2
d.) 3
c.) 2
61
In an OHSA, tightness in hip flexors and weakness in abdominal muscles will most likely contribute to which movement dysfunction?
a.) knee caves in
b.) feet turn out
c.) excessive forward lean
d.) anterior pelvic tilt
d.) anterior pelvic tilt
62
During a depth jump assessment, most impairments will be observed during what phase?
a.) start or take off
b.) jump/movement
c.) deceleration
c.) deceleration
63
Which muscle is the most appropriate to static stretch for the client who demonstrates over-pronation in the overhead squat?
a.) anterior tibialis
b.) gluteus medius
c.) gastrocnemius
d.) rectus femoris
c.) gastrocnemius
64
Corrective exercise programs do not need to be complex to be effective. How long or short could an effective corrective exercise program be to get results?
a.) 10-15 minutes
b.) 30 minutes
c.) 5 minutes
a.) 10-15 minutes
65
Which of the following exercises is the most appropriate progression from a single leg hop exercise?
a.) step off a box and perform an unexpected cutting maneuver
b.) bilateral long jump
c.) wall jump
a.) step off a box and perform an unexpected cutting maneuver
66
Which of the following is NOT likely a local mechanical effect of myofascial rolling?
a.) reducing tissue viscosity
b.) breaking up myofascial adhesions
c.) reducing arterial stiffness
b.) breaking up myofascial adhesions
67
What is the recommended client position when performing the passive hip internal rotation test?
a.) lying supine on a table
b.) lying prone on a table with legs together
c.) standing with knees straight and feet in a comfortable position
d.) standing with knees straight and feet shoulder-width apart
b.) lying prone on a table with legs together
68
You identify that a client/athlete displays a lower crossed syndrome static posture upon assessment. Which of the following joint motions will you predict to be excessive when this individual performs an OHSA?
a.) cervical extension
b.) lumbar lordosis
c.) foot external rotation
b.) lumbar lordosis
69
What purpose do the 3 clearing tests that accompany the patterns in the FMS serve?
a.) identification of pain
b.) identification of stability restriction
c.) identification of mobility restriction
a.) identification of pain
70
If a client cannot complete a single-leg squat without difficulty, what modification provides more stability but also more insight into unilateral compensations?
a.) goblet squat
b.) split squat
c.) overhead squat
d.) overhead squat with heel lift
b.) split squat
71
What should an individual do with the stance leg during the Hurdle Step movement?
a.) lock the knee
b.) flex the knee
c.) relax the knee
c.) relax the knee
72
If a person tests positive for pain on the clearance test that follows the trunk stability pushup pattern, what will the final score be for that pattern?
a.) 0
b.) 1
c.) 2
d.) 3
a.) 0
73
According to the Screw-Home Mechanism, in an open-chain position and as the knee extends, what action best describes the motion of the tibia on the femur during the last 30 degrees?
a.) flexion
b.) abduction
c.) internal rotation
d.) external rotation
d.) external rotation
74
Consider a client completing the deep squat pattern of the FMS. During the first attempt, they perform a squat with minimal compensations, including a slight heel rise during the descent into the squat, and arms slightly falling forward to just in front of the nose. What score would you give this person, based on first attempt?
a.) 1
b.) 2
c.) can't determine score given the information in the question
c.) can't determine score given the information in the question
75
If an observed knee compensation improves with the heels elevated during the modified overhead squat assessment, what is the primary area to address with corrective mobility exercise?
a.) foot and ankle complex
b.) knee
c.) shoulder complex
d.) LPHC
a.) foot and ankle complex
76
The Balance Error Scoring System is a common clinical assessment that consists of ___ tests lasting 20 secs each, performed on a _________, used by sports medicine professionals.
a.) four, wobble board
b.) five, form and/or foam surface
c.) three, Bosu
b.) five, form and/or foam surface
77
Which of the following is NOT one of the 6 dimensions of wellness used by the National Wellness Institute?
a.) social
b.) athletic
c.) spiritual
b.) athletic
78
Integration techniques are used to reeducate the Human Movement System back into what type of functional movement pattern?
a.) cooperative
b.) length-tension
c.) synergistic
d.) force-couple
c.) synergistic
79
Which is the best intensity prescription for a static or NMS stretch duration when a novice client is performing it according to NASM recommendations?
a.) extreme discomfort
b.) mild discomfort
c.) mild discomfort minus 10%
c.) mild discomfort minus 10%
80
How many reps are recommended when completing one of the upper extremity loaded movement assessments?
a.) 5
b.) 10
c.) 20
b.) 10
81
Which is the GREATEST risk factor for developing a musculoskeletal injury to a particular area of the body?
a.) previous musculoskeletal injury in that area
b.) BMI
c.) physical activity level
a.) previous musculoskeletal injury in that area
82
What term is used to describe neural drive to an antagonist muscle when an agonist muscle contracts?
a.) cross-bridging
b.) sensorimotor integration
c.) muscle imbalance
d.) reciprocal inhibition
d.) reciprocal inhibition
83
Rearfoot pronation or sub-talar joint eversion, and ankle dorsiflexion are associated with what coupled motion?
a.) ankle plantarflexion
b.) external fibula rotation
c.) subtalar joint inversion
d.) tibial internal rotation
d.) tibial internal rotation
84
Which of the following muscles is a good target for activation if a heel rise is noted on the OHSA that corrects with a heel elevated modification?
a.) quadriceps
b.) anterior tibialis
c.) soleus
d.) gastrocnemius
b.) anterior tibialis
85
Your client has pain and inflammation at the ankle joint, especially in the morning or after long periods of sitting. In her static assessment, you note her feet turn out and excessive pronation; in her OHSA she showed excessive forward lean as well. What do you expect to find after further testing?
a.) toes moving away from the midline of the foot
b.) high arch in foot
c.) chronic ankle instability
d.) insufficient elasticity or stretch within the plantar fascia
d.) insufficient elasticity or stretch within the plantar fascia
86
Medial tibial stress syndrome typically presents on which aspect of the tibia?
a.) center of the medial tibia
b.) upper 1/3 of the medial tibia
c.) lower 1/3 of the medial tibia
c.) lower 1/3 of the medial tibia
87
Once you have completed three successful trials in one of the directions in the YBT, what do you do with the 3 reach distances recorded for that direction?
a.) find the mean
b.) find the mean and divide by the length of the test leg, then multiply by 100
c.) add them together
b.) find the mean and divide by the length of the test leg, then multiply by 100
88
If your client is in the inhibition phase for the foot and ankle, which of the following muscles will most likely be involved?
a.) posterior tibialis
b.) gastrocnemius
c.) anterior tibialis
d.) medial hamstrings
b.) gastrocnemius
89
During which phase of the muscle action spectrum are most strength gains developed?
a.) isometric stabilization
b.) concentric acceleration
c.) the amortization phase
d.) eccentric deceleration
d.) eccentric deceleration
90
Which movement compensation may improve following the completion of myofascial rolling of the latissimus dorsi?
a.) posterior pelvic tilt
b.) excessive trunk lean
c.) arms falling forward
c.) arms falling forward
91
Muscles that connect directly to the spine and are predominantly involved in LPHC stabilization are classified as...
a.) local musculature system
b.) deep longitudinal system
c.) global musculature system
a.) local musculature system
92
What muscle changes may occur as a result of a chronically inhibited neural drive?
a.) the muscles on the opposing side of the joint would pull the inhibited muscle into a shortened state
b.) force production is reduced as a result of the inhibited muscle being overactive
c.) the muscle on the opposing side of the joint would pull the inhibited muscle into a lengthened state
d.) force production is increased as a result of the inhibited muscle being overactive
c.) the muscle on the opposing side of the joint would pull the inhibited muscle into a lengthened state
93
Which of the following terms describes an athlete's elite ability to produce force, reduce force and dynamically stabilize the human movement system in all 3 planes of motion?
a.) structural efficiency
b.) neuromuscular efficiency
c.) neural drive
b.) neuromuscular efficiency
94
Which of the following contractions prevents a weight from an uncontrolled descent?
a.) isometric
b.) eccentric
c.) concentric
b.) eccentric
95
What term is used to describe how the CNS integrates sensory information with previous experiences?
a.) motor development
b.) motor learning
c.) motor behavior
d.) motor control
d.) motor control
96
Which of the following deviations occurs in lower crossed syndrome?
a.) kyphotic posturing
b.) anterior pelvic tilt
c.) decreased lordotic curvature
b.) anterior pelvic tilt
97
What are the key components of the Cumulative Injury Cycle?
a.) synergistic dominance and movement impairments
b.) muscle spasms, compensation and injury
c.) adhesion, dysfunction, and surgery
d.) tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasms and adhesions
d.) tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasms and adhesions
98
Which of the following muscles are typically overactive in an individual with upper crossed syndrome?
a.) serratus anterior
b.) pectorals
c.) rhomboids
b.) pectorals
99
Which term describes a state of overactivity occurring when a segment of the body is repeatedly moved or chronically held in the same way?
a.) pattern overload
b.) arthokinematic dysfunction
c.) synergistic dominance
a.) pattern overload
100
What is the position of the hip joint of the leg you are testing during an active knee extension test?
a.) neutral
b.) extended
c.) flexed
c.) flexed
101
What muscle would be considered overactive, leading to scapular winging during the Davies test?
a.) lower trapezius
b.) infraspinatus
c.) serratus anterior
d.) pectoralis minor
d.) pectoralis minor
102
Mobility assessments contain which of the following categories of joint motion?
a.) passive motions only
b.) active motions only
c.) both active and passive motions
c.) both active and passive motions
103
When performing a standing row movement assessment, you note that your client's shoulders elevate and their head migrates forward. Which of the following muscles is probably overactive?
a.) lower trapezius
b.) deep cervical flexors
c.) upper trapezius
c.) upper trapezius
104
Which of the following compensations during an OHSA will you likely be able to only identify from a lateral view?
a.) knees moving inward
b.) asymmetric weight shift
c.) low back arching
c.) low back arching
105
The OHSA does not involve a change in the base of support, and therefore is classified as...
a.) dynamic movement assessment
b.) transitional movement assessment
c.) static posture assessment
b.) transitional movement assessment
106
Myofascial rolling is classified as what type of intervention?
a.) strengthening
b.) compression
c.) therapeutic modality
d.) stretching
b.) compression
107
Which of the following myofascial techniques falls within the scope of practice of a personal trainer with a CES certification?
a.) vibration
b.) cupping
c.) IASTM
a.) vibration
108
What type of stretching can lead to decreased incidences of muscle and tendon injury?
a.) short-term static stretching
b.) long-term static stretching
c.) short-term NMS
d.) long-term dynamic stretching
b.) long-term static stretching
109
The short foot exercise is appropriate as a means of targeting an underactive muscle when which of the following movement compensations is observed?
a.) excessive foot pronation (flat feet)
b.) feet turn out
c.) heel rise
a.) excessive foot pronation (flat feet)
110
If your client reaches the level of progression of a single leg RDL to shoulder press, and you are ready to begin working through a progression in another plane of motion, which exercises is most appropriate?
a.) lateral lunge to press
b.) 180 degree jump
c.) squat to row
a.) lateral lunge to press
111
Isolated strengthening is a technique used to increase what?
a.) extensibility
b.) synergistic dominance
c.) activation
d.) intramuscular coordination
d.) intramuscular coordination
112
The theoretical basis that attempting to strengthen muscles when joint muscle restriction is present will provide less-than-optimal results and limited joint ROM comes in from which of the following?
a.) Janda's syndromes
b.) Clark's models
c.) Mennell's truisms
c.) Mennell's truisms
113
During which phase of the muscle action spectrum are most strength gains developed?
a.) concentric acceleration
b.) amortization phase
c.) isometric stabilization
d.) eccentric deceleration
d.) eccentric deceleration
114
What scenario might influence corrective exercise as the entire workout?
a.) pain
b.) injury
c.) deconditioned clients
c.) deconditioned clients
115
Location and equipment are related to what factors that influences a corrective exercise program?
a.) environment-related factors
b.) training-related factors
c.) client-related factors
a.) environment-related factors
116
What are the two principles within the refuel recovery strategy?
a.) adequate muscle strength and cardiovascular endurance
b.) proper balance and muscle strength
c.) proper hydration and nutrition
d.) proper flexibility and muscle endurance
c.) proper hydration and nutrition
117
What is the concentric action of the anterior deltoid?
a.) stabilizes the shoulder girdle
b.) shoulder flexion and internal rotation
c.) shoulder extension and external rotation
b.) shoulder flexion and internal rotation
118
What is the proximal attachment of the sternocleidomastoid?
a.) mastoid process and occiput
b.) medial 1/3 of the clavicle
c.) top of manubrium
a.) mastoid process and occiput
119
What is the concentric action of the internal oblique?
a.) bilateral spinal flexion, ipsilateral lateral flexion and ipsilateral rotation
b.) stabilizes the LPHC
c.) bilateral spinal extension, contralateral flexion and contralateral rotation
a.) bilateral spinal flexion, ipsilateral lateral flexion and ipsilateral rotation
120
What is the eccentric action of the rectus abdominus?
a.) spinal flexion
b.) stablizes the LPHC
c.) spinal extension
c.) spinal extension
121
What is the eccentric action of the upper trapezius?
a.) stabilizes the cervical spine and scapula
b.) cervical flexion, lateral flexion and rotation, and scapular depression
c.) cervical extension, lateral flexion and rotation, and scapular elevation
b.) cervical flexion, lateral flexion and rotation, and scapular depression
122
Which of the following is an eccentric action of the gastrocnemius?
a.) slow down knee extension
b.) slow down dorsiflexion
c.) both of these
c.) both of these
123
The proximal attachment of the gastrocnemius is...
a.) posterior tibia
b.) posterior femoral condyles
c.) calcaneous
b.) posterior femoral condyles
124
The proximal attachment of the soleus is...
a.) posterior tibia
b.) posterior fibula
c.) posterior femus
b.) posterior fibula
125
The distal attachment of the gracilis is...
a.) anterior superior iliac spine
b.) anterior aspect of pubis
c.) pes anserine
c.) pes anserine
126
Which of the following is NOT an eccentric action of the gracilis?
a.) slow down hip abduction
b.) slow down hip internal rotation
c.) slow down hip extension
a.) slow down hip abduction
127
The eccentric action of the psoas major is...
a.) knee flexion and knee internal rotation
b.) hip flexion and hip internal rotation
c.) hip extension and hip external rotation
b.) hip flexion and hip internal rotation
128
The proximal attachment of the sartorius is...
a.) IT band
b.) proximal medial surface of the tibia
c.) anterior-superior iliac spine
c.) anterior-superior iliac spine
129
Which is NOT an eccentric action of the sartorius?
a.) slow down hip adduction
b.) slow down hip internal rotation
c.) slow down hip external rotation
c.) slow down hip external rotation
130
The distal attachment of the piriformis is...
a.) greater trochanter of the femur
b.) anterior surface of sacrum
c.) anterior superior iliac spine
a.) greater trochanter of the femur
131
Which of the following is NOT an eccentric action of the piriformis?
a.) slow down hip internal rotation
b.) slow down hip abduction
c.) slow down hip flexion
b.) slow down hip abduction
132
The distal attachment of the adductor magnus is...
a.) ischial ramus of pelvis
b.) pes anserine
c.) linea aspera
c.) linea aspera
133
The distal attachment of the semimembranosus is...
a.) medial tibial condyle
b.) ischial tuberosity
c.) head of the fibula
a.) medial tibial condyle
134
The proximal attachment of the semitendinosus is...
a.) medial condyle of tibia
b.) head of the fibula
c.) ischial tuberosity
a.) medial condyle of tibia
135
The concentric action of the biceps femoris long head is...
a.) hip extension
b.) knee flexion
c.) both of these
c.) both of these
136
The eccentric of the semimembranosus is...
a.) slow down knee extension
b.) slow down hip flexion
c.) both of these
c.) both of these
137
The proximal attachment of the biceps femoris short head is...
a.) head of the fibula
b.) ischial tuberosity
c.) lower posterior femur
c.) lower posterior femur
138
Which of the following is a concentric action of the biceps femoris short head?
a.) speed up knee flexion
b.) speed up hip extension
c.) both of these
a.) speed up knee flexion
