Module 1 - 6

Question 1

What can a fitness professional use to help understand a client’s recovery habits?

a.) a recovery questionnaire
b.) report from their psychologist
c.) results from their fitness assessment
d.) report from their medical doctor

Answer 1

a.) a recovery questionnaire

Question 2

Which of the following is the BEST progression to use regarding performing a pattern in multiple planes of motion?

a.) transverse to sagittal to frontal
b.) frontal to transverse to sagittal
c.) sagittal to frontal to transverse

Answer 2

c.) sagittal to frontal to transverse

Question 3

As long as less than 3% of bodyweight is expected to be lost during exercise due to sweating, what hydration strategy should clients be instructed to follow?

a.) drink 500mL of water every 15 minutes
b.) drink fluids as desired
c.) consume as many sports drinks as possible without upsetting the stomach
d.) drink a glass of water for every pound of bodyweight lost due to sweating

Answer 3

b.) drink fluids as desired

Question 4

Corrective exercise programs do not need to be complex to be effective. How long or short could an effective corrective exercise program be to get results?

a.) 5 minutes
b.) 30 minutes
c.) 10 to 15 minutes

Answer 4

c.) 10 to 15 minutes

Question 5

A client has been training with a fitness professional independently and consistently for over 6 months. What stage of change would he most likely be in?

a.) contemplation
b.) preparation
c.) maintenance
d.) termination

Answer 5

c.) maintenance

Question 6

What scenario might influence corrective exercise as the entire workout?

a.) client experiencing pain
b.) client has an injury
c.) client is deconditioned

Answer 6

c.) client is deconditioned

Question 7

For optimal sleep, what should the temperature of the room be?

a.) 60 degrees
b.) 72 degrees
c.) 95 degrees
d.) 45 degrees

Answer 7

b.) 72 degrees

Question 8

What category of recovery does corrective exercise fall into?

a.) refuel
b.) regenerate
c.) rest

Answer 8

b.) regenerate

Question 9

What is the recommended minimum that adults should sleep each night?

a.) minimum of 8 hours
b.) minimum of 5 hours
c.) minimum of 10 hours

Answer 9

a.) minimum of 8 hours

Question 10

What is the “system” referred to in the NASM Pyramid of Success?

a.) NMS Stretching
b.) Overhead Squat Assessment
c.) Corrective Exercise Continuum

Answer 10

c.) Corrective Exercise Continuum

Question 11

The following activation exercise is appropriate as a means to target the serratus anterior when it is determined an underactive muscle during which of the following movement compensations as observed during a Davies test?

a.) excessive cervical extension
b.) scapular winging
c.) arms falling forward

Answer 11

b.) scapular winging

Question 12

A CES is implementing a static stretching program with a youth basketball team. What are the recommended acute training variables for this type of stretching?

a.) 20 to 30 seconds hold for 4-6 reps twice a week
b.) 1 to 2 minutes hold for 4-6 reps every other day
c.) 15 to 30 seconds hold for 6 to 8 reps once a week
d.) 20 to 30 seconds hold for 1-4 reps daily

Answer 12

d.) 20 to 30 seconds hold for 1-4 reps daily

Question 13

The overhead squat assessment does not involve a change in the base of support of the individual. Therefore, it is classified as which of the following?

a.) static posture assessment
b.) transitional movement assessment
c.) dynamic movement assessment

Answer 13

b.) transitional movement assessment

Question 14

Which of the following deviations occurs in lower crossed syndrome?

a.) anterior pelvic tilt
b.) kyphotic posturing
c.) lateral pelvic tilt
d.) decreased lordotic curvature

Answer 14

a.) anterior pelvic tilt

Question 15

An individual who demonstrates no movement compensations during the overhead squat, single leg squat, loaded squat nor depth jump assessments can be said to possess high levels of…

a.) pattern overload
b.) functional efficiency
c.) muscle imbalances

Answer 15

b.) functional efficiency

Question 16

Which of the following is NOT one of the 2 primary domains of skills possessed by a personal trainer who is also a corrective exercise specialist?

a.) exercise program design
b.) movement assessment
c.) pain diagnosis

Answer 16

c.) pain diagnosis

Question 17

What effect does a lack of physical activity have on the kinetic chain?

a.) improves overall movement capabilities due to ample rest from physical activity stressors
b.) makes it less prepared to adapt and recover from activity
c.) lack of physical activity has no impact on the kinetic chain

Answer 17

b.) makes it less prepared to adapt and recover from activity

Question 18

If the hamstrings are forced to make up for a decrease in neural drive due to altered reciprocal inhibition from a tight psoas, which of the following terms BEST describes the scenario?

a.) neuromuscular efficiency
b.) synergistic dominance
c.) movement impairment syndrome

Answer 18

b.) synergistic dominance

Question 19

What does it mean for a muscle to be “overactive?”

a.) the muscle is experiencing chronically elevated levels of neural drive
b.) the muscle is experiencing chronically inhibited levels of neural drive
c.) neither of these

Answer 19

a.) the muscle is experiencing chronically elevated levels of neural drive

Question 20

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate response to a new personal training client that says “I’m experiencing knee pain. Can you tell me what it is?”

a.) “I am not the best person to answer that question, but we can contact a professional who is.”
b.) “From what you told me, I think it is patellofemoral pain syndrome…”
c.) “I’m sorry, I don’t know anything about knee pain.”

Answer 20

a.) “I am not the best person to answer that question, but we can contact a professional who is.”

Question 21

Based on the scope of practice of a CES, which of the following categories of people should a professional with only a CES certification seek to work with?

a.) clients with no medical or special needs
b.) clients undergoing rehab for a musculoskeletal injury
c.) patients in need of immediate care for an acute musculoskeletal injury

Answer 21

a.) clients with no medical or special needs

Question 22

Which of the following is NOT a component of the Human Movement System?

a.) skeletal system
b.) endocrine system
c.) muscular system
d.) nervous system

Answer 22

b.) endocrine system

Question 23

Which of the following contractions prevents a weight from an uncontrolled descent?

a.) isometric
b.) eccentric
c.) isokinetic
d.) concentric

Answer 23

b.) eccentric

Question 24

Which of the following populations is appropriate for a CPT with a CES certification to work with?

a.) fitness clients with no medical or special needs
b.) recreational and competitive athletes
c.) post rehabilitation clients
d.) all of these are appropriate

Answer 24

d.) all of these are appropriate

Question 25

When should the static posture assessment be conducted within the context of the NASM CES Assessment Flow? a.) 1st b.) 2nd c.) 3rd d.) 4th

Answer 25

b.) 2nd

Question 26

What is the technical term for the natural curvature of the thoracic spine? a.) valgus b.) kyphosis c.) impingement d.) lordosis

Answer 26

b.) kyphosis

Question 27

Pes Planus Distortion Syndrome may lead to what following injuries? a.) metatarsal stress fractures, femur fractures and quad strains b.) hip flexor strain, IT band fritction syndrome, hamstring strains and Achilles tendonitis c.) hip bursitis, hamstring strains, Achilles tendonitis, and ankle arthritis d.) plantar fasciitis, medial tibial stress syndrome, patellar tendonitis and low back pain

Answer 27

d.) plantar fasciitis, medial tibial stress syndrome, patellar tendonitis and low back pain

Question 28

This region of the body is the most likely impacted by sitting most of the day. a.) shoulder b.) ankle c.) knee d.) LPHC

Answer 28

d.) LPHC

Question 29

Which of the following would you suspect to have overly-shortened gastrocnemius muscles following an assessment of their occupational habits? a.) businessman who sits and works on a laptop for prolonged periods of time b.) businesswoman who wears high heeled shoes daily c.) painter who reaches overhead throughout the work day

Answer 29

b.) businesswoman who wears high heeled shoes daily

Question 30

Which factor is most closely related to developing postural imbalances? a.) chronic suboptimal positioning b.) exercising to muscle failure c.) poor nutrition status d.) Valsalva maneuver

Answer 30

a.) chronic suboptimal positioning

Question 31

Why is wearing high heels daily a consideration for potential postural dysfunction? a.) it signifies the potential for hypertension b.) it reduces sleep quality and quantity c.) it puts the ankles in chronic plantarflexion

Answer 31

c.) it puts the ankles in chronic plantarflexion

Question 32

Muscles that connect directly to the spine and are predominantly involved in LPHC stabilization are classified as which of the following? a.) Local Musculature System b.) Deep Longitudinal System c.) Global Musculature System

Answer 32

a.) Local Musculature System

Question 33

Assessments that involve movement with a change in the base of support are known as... a.) transitional movement assessments b.) dynamic movement assessments c.) loaded movement assessments

Answer 33

b.) dynamic movement assessments

Question 34

Which muscle would be considered underactive/lengthened, leading to scapular elevation during a pull movement? a.) lower trapezius b.) cervical extensors c.) upper trapezius

Answer 34

a.) lower trapezius

Question 35

A client demonstrates knee valgus during an overhead squat assessment, which resolves when he repeats with heels elevated. Which of the following muscles is likely overactive? a.) latissimus dorsi b.) gastrocnemius c.) psoas

Answer 35

b.) gastrocnemius

Question 36

Which muscle would you suspect as being overactive if there is restricted shoulder internal rotation? a.) latissimus dorsi b.) pec minor c.) teres minor

Answer 36

a.) latissimus dorsi

Question 37

Which of the following is true regarding a gait assessment? a.) the client should choose a comfortable walking speed b.) the client should choose the fastest speed they can maintain for 3 minutes c.) it involves a detailed breakdown of muscle activation through multiple phases of the gait cycle

Answer 37

a.) the client should choose a comfortable walking speed

Question 38

You suspect hip adductors are overactive when you see knee valgus in an overhead squat assessment. Which of the following mobility assessments will you use to test your hypothesis? a.) modified Thomas test b.) seated hip internal rotation c.) hip abduction and external rotation (adductor test)

Answer 38

c.) hip abduction and external rotation (adductor test)

Question 39

A client demonstrates movement compensations during the loaded horizontal pushing assessment but NOT during the loaded squat assessment. Which of the following movement assessments should NOT be included until the movement compensations are resolved? a.) depth jump b.) gait assessment c.) Davies test

Answer 39

c.) Davies test

Question 40

The modified Thomas test assesses mobility in all of the following joint motions except... a.) knee flexion b.) hip extension c.) hip adduction d.) hip abduction

Answer 40

d.) hip abduction

Question 41

What is considered normal mobility during the shoulder flexion test? a.) elbows flexed to a 90 degree angle and shoulders fully extended b.) elbows extended and arms in line with the lateral midline of the torso c.) elbows extended and shoulders fully extended d.) elbows flexed to a 90 degree angle and arms in line with torso

Answer 41

b.) elbows extended and arms in line with the lateral midline of the torso

Question 42

Which movement assessment is considered the best assessment of an individual's lower extremity balance? a.) overhead squat b.) standing overhead dumbbell press c.) Davies test d.) single-leg squat

Answer 42

d.) single-leg squat

Question 43

What type of stretching can lead to decreased incidences of muscle and tendon injury? a.) short-term static stretching b.) long-term static stretching c.) short-term neuromuscular stretching d.) long-term dynamic stretching

Answer 43

b.) long-term static stretching

Question 44

Which of the following is true regarding the intensity of the isometric contraction that is used during neuromuscular stretching? a.) even light intensity contractions of 20% can produce significant improvements in ROM b.) near maximal intensity contractions are necessary to produce significant improvements in ROM c.) moderate (50% max) or higher intensities are necessary to produce increases in ROM

Answer 44

a.) even light intensity contractions of 20% can produce significant improvements in ROM

Question 45

What modifications are suggested if a client does not feel comfortable performing myofascial rolling with active movement of the targeted limb? a.) isometrically contract the target muscle, then proceed with the active movement b.) continuation rolling for 90-120 secs of the target tissue c.) decrease the pressure, then proceed with the active movement

Answer 45

b.) continuation rolling for 90-120 secs of the target tissue

Question 46

Which best describes how to introduce tissue movement with the myofascial roller? a.) roll in a slow, continuous motion for 60 secs b.) perform quick, active movements while continuously rolling back and forth on the target tissue c.) perform passive movements, such as trainer-assisted flexion/extension while maintaining pressure d.) perform active movements, such as flexion/extension while maintaining pressure

Answer 46

d.) perform active movements, such as flexion/extension while maintaining pressure

Question 47

What best describes the psycho-physiological concept of stretch tolerance? a.) a client can tolerate the max amount of discomfort during a prolonged stretch b.) a client can only tolerate a short duration of stretching due to pain c.) a client can tolerate the level of discomfort during a prolonged stretch d.) a client can tolerate the max amount of pain during a dynamic stretch

Answer 47

c.) a client can tolerate the level of discomfort during a prolonged stretch

Question 48

Which of the following the best intensity prescription for a stretch with a novice client? a.) extreme discomfort b.) mild discomfort c.) mild discomfort minus 10%

Answer 48

c.) mild discomfort minus 10%

Question 49

Which of the following is an adequate intensity of isometric contraction for a neuromuscular stretch? a.) 100% max isometric contraction b.) 50% max isometric contraction c.) 20% max isometric contraction

Answer 49

c.) 20% max isometric contraction

Question 50

What is the recommended length of time to hold direct pressure on a target tissue within a single rep of rolling during myofascial rolling? a.) 30 to 60 secs b.) 70 to 90 secs c.) 90 to 120 secs d.) 2 to 5 mins

Answer 50

a.) 30 to 60 secs

Question 51

Using myofascial rolling to increase tissue relaxation due to afferent input from the golgi tendon reflex, modulation the gamma loop reflex arc, and increasing mechanoreceptor signaling is classified as which of the following? a.) global muscular system effect b.) local mechanical effect c.) global neurophysiological effect

Answer 51

c.) global neurophysiological effect

Question 52

A client demonstrates an excessive anterior pelvic tilt during an overhead squat assessment. Having the client place hands on their hips and repeat the squat resolves this issue. Which muscle is likely overactive in this scenario? a.) latissimus dorsi b.) psoas c.) gastrocnemius

Answer 52

a.) latissimus dorsi

Question 53

Which statement most accurately defines an informed consent agreement with a corrective exercise client? a.) it outlines the general information and associated risks b.) it outlines the procedures and actions professionals are permitted to administer in accordance with the law

Answer 53

a.) it outlines the general information and associated risks

Question 54

Integration techniques are used to reeducate the HMS back into what type of functional movement pattern? a.) cooperative b.) length-tension c.) synergistic d.) force-couple

Answer 54

c.) synergistic

Question 55

What is the most appropriate verbal cue if a client demonstrates knee valgus on landing? a.) "keep your knees directly over your ankles." b.) "keep your knees in line with your second and third toes." c.) "keep your knees behind your toes." d.) "keep your knees out wider than your fifth toe."

Answer 55

b.) "keep your knees in line with your second and third toes."

Question 56

Strengthening one side unilaterally can also increase the strength of which of the following? a.) anteriorly rotated limb b.) contralateral limb c.) ipsilateral limb d.) posteriorly rotate limb

Answer 56

b.) contralateral limb

Question 57

Which of the following describes the ability of different muscles in the body to work together to allow coordination of global and refined movements? a.) intermuscular coordination b.) intramuscular coordination c.) total-body coordination d.) multiplanar coordination

Answer 57

a.) intermuscular coordination

Question 58

What is the recommended order of progressions when considering planes of motion? a.) frontal > transverse > sagittal b.) sagittal > frontal > transverse c.) sagittal > transverse > frontal d.) transverse > sagittal > frontal

Answer 58

b.) sagittal > frontal > transverse

Question 59

Which of the following exercises is the most appropriate progression from a single leg hop exercise? a.) wall jump b.) step off a box and perform an unexpected cutting maneuver c.) bilateral long jump

Answer 59

b.) step off a box and perform an unexpected cutting maneuver

Question 60

Isolated strengthening is a technique used to increase... a.) intramuscular coordination b.) extensibility c.) synergistic dominance d.) activation

Answer 60

d.) activation

Question 61

What is the prime mover of a specific joint action regardless of concentric or eccentric muscle action? a.) antagonist b.) type 2 muscle fibers c.) agonist d.) protagonist

Answer 61

c.) agonist

Question 62

Why might it make sense to exercise the dominant limb first, before the non-dominant limb for recruitment? a.) minimize injury to the non-dominant side b.) minimize injury to the dominant side c.) it is a primer to better prepare the non-dominant side d.) effectively perform the exercise prior to the challenge of the non-dominant side

Answer 62

c.) it is a primer to better prepare the non-dominant side

Question 63

The specific mobility assessments selected to include as part of the CES Assessment Flow should be based on which of the following? a.) the most common restricted joint motions of your client's age and gender b.) overlap between client intake questionnaire responses, static malalignments and movement compensations c.) your favorite mobility assessments

Answer 63

b.) overlap between client intake questionnaire responses, static malalignments and movement compensations

Question 64

What process describes the ability of the CNS to interpret sensory information as needed to execute the proper motor response? a.) muscle synergy b.) augmented feedback c.) knowledge of performance d.) sensorimotor integration

Answer 64

d.) sensorimotor integration

Question 65

What are proximal attachments?

Answer 65

Towards the trunk

Question 66

What are distal attachments?

Answer 66

Away from the trunk, usually the insertion of the muscle

Question 67

The distal attachment of the pectoralis major is the... a.) greater tubercle of the humerus b.) clavicle, sternum, ribs 1-7 c.) medial border of the scapula

Answer 67

a.) greater tubercle of the humerus

Question 68

The isometric action of the rhomboids is... a.) stabilize the LPHC b.) stabilize the scapula c.) stabilize the shoulder girdle

Answer 68

b.) stabilize the scapula

Question 69

The eccentric action of the latissimus dorsi is... a.) to slow down shoulder extension, horizontal abduction and external rotation b.) to slow down scapular protraction and upward rotation c.) to slow down scapular protraction and upward rotation d.) to slow down shoulder flexion, abduction and external rotation

Answer 69

d.) to slow down shoulder flexion, abduction and external rotation

Question 70

The concentric action of the rhomboids is... a.) to speed up scapular retraction and downward rotation b.) to speed up scapular protraction and upward rotation c.) to speed up shoulder flexion, horizontal adduction and internal rotation

Answer 70

a.) to speed up scapular retraction and downward rotation

Question 71

The eccentric action of the serratus anterior is... a.) scapular protraction b.) scapular retraction c.) scapular depression d.) scapular elevation

Answer 71

b.) scapular retraction

Question 72

The proximal attachment of the serratus anterior is... a.) acromion process b.) sternum c.) medial border of the scapula d.) ribs 4-12

Answer 72

d.) ribs 4-12

Question 73

The distal attachment of the middle trapezius is... a.) spinous process of T6-T12 b.) acromion process of scapula, spine of scapula c.) skull, spinous processes of C1-C7

Answer 73

b.) acromion process of scapula, spine of scapula

Question 74

The concentric action of the upper trapezius is... a.) speed up scapular retraction b.) speed up cervical extension, lateral flexion and rotation, scapular elevation c.) speed up scapular depression

Answer 74

b.) speed up cervical extension, lateral flexion and rotation, scapular elevation

Question 75

The eccentric action of the lower trapezius is... a.) slow down scapular depression b.) slow down scapular adduction c.) slow down scapular elevation

Answer 75

c.) slow down scapular elevation

Question 76

The concentric action of the middle trapezius is... a.) speed up scapular depression b.) speed up scapular elevation c.) speed up scapular retraction

Answer 76

c.) speed up scapular retraction

Question 77

The proximal attachment of the upper trapezius is... a.) spinous processes of T6-T12 b.) spinous processes of T1-T5 c.) skull, spinous processes of C1-C7

Answer 77

c.) skull, spinous processes of C1-C7

Question 78

The proximal attachment of the levator scapulae is... a.) transverse processes of C1-C4 b.) spine of the scapula c.) superior vertebral border of the scapula d.) transverse processes of T4-T12

Answer 78

a.) transverse processes of C1-C4

Question 79

The isometric action of the levator scapulae is... a.) stabilize the cervical spine and scapulae b.) stabilize the lumbar spine c.) stabilize the glenohumeral joint

Answer 79

a.) stabilize the cervical spine and scapulae

Question 80

The eccentric action of the anterior deltoid is... a.) slow down shoulder abduction b.) slow down shoulder extension c.) slow down shoulder flexion

Answer 80

b.) slow down shoulder extension

Question 81

The proximal attachment of the medial deltoid is... a.) spine of the scapula b.) lateral third of the clavicle c.) acromion process of scapula

Answer 81

c.) acromion process of scapula

Question 82

The concentric action of the posterior deltoid is... a.) to speed up shoulder extension b.) to speed up shoulder abduction c.) to speed up shoulder flexion

Answer 82

a.) to speed up shoulder extension

Question 83

The proximal attachment of the posterior deltoid is... a.) spine of the scapula b.) lateral third of the clavicle c.) acromion process of scapula

Answer 83

a.) spine of the scapula

Question 84

The eccentric action of the medial deltoid is... a.) to slow down shoulder flexion b.) to slow down shoulder adduction c.) to slow down shoulder extension

Answer 84

b.) to slow down shoulder adduction

Question 85

The isometric action of the sternocleidomastoid is... a.) stabilize the cervical spine and acromioclavicular joint b.) stabilize the cervical spine and scapulae c.) stabilize the shoulder girdle

Answer 85

a.) stabilize the cervical spine and acromioclavicular joint

Question 86

The distal attachment of the sternocleidomastoid is... a.) deltoid tuberosity b.) medical one-third of the clavicle c.) top of manubrium

Answer 86

c.) top of manubrium

Question 87

The proximal attachment of the supraspinatus is... a.) supraspinous fossa of the scapula b.) subscapular fossa of the scapula c.) infraspinous fossa of the scapula

Answer 87

a.) supraspinous fossa of the scapula

Question 88

The proximal attachment of the infrapinatus is... a.) infraspinous fossa of the scapula b.) supraspinus fossa of the scapula c.) subscapular fossa of the scapula

Answer 88

a.) infraspinous fossa of the scapula

Question 89

The concentric action of the infraspinatus is... a.) to speed up shoulder internal rotation b.) to speed up shoulder abduction c.) to speed up shoulder external rotation

Answer 89

c.) to speed up shoulder external rotation

Question 90

The eccentric action of the subscapularis is... a.) to slow down shoulder internal rotation b.) to slow down shoulder abduction c.) to slow down shoulder external rotation

Answer 90

c.) to slow down shoulder external rotation

Question 91

The concentric action of the supraspinatus is... a.) to speed up shoulder external rotation b.) to speed up shoulder abduction c.) to speed up shoulder adduction

Answer 91

b.) to speed up shoulder abduction

Question 92

What is the proximal attachment of the teres minor? a.) ribs 3-5 b.) lateral border of scapula c.) inferior angle of the scapula

Answer 92

b.) lateral border of scapula

Question 93

The concentric action of the teres minor is... a.) to speed up shoulder internal rotation b.) to speed up scapular protraction c.) to speed up shoulder external rotation

Answer 93

c.) to speed up shoulder external rotation

Question 94

What is the proximal attachment of the teres major? a.) lateral border of scapula b.) inferior angle of the scapula c.) ribs 3-5

Answer 94

b.) inferior angle of the scapula

Question 95

What is the concentric action of the teres major? a.) speeds up shoulder internal rotation, adduction and extension b.) speeds up shoulder external rotation c.) speeds up protraction of the scapula

Answer 95

a.) speeds up shoulder internal rotation, adduction and extension

Question 96

What is the eccentric action of the pectoralis minor? a.) scapular elevation b.) scapular protraction c.) scapular retraction

Answer 96

c.) scapular retraction

Question 97

What is the distal attachment of the pectoralis minor? a.) coronoid process of the ulna b.) humerus c.) coracoid process of the scapula

Answer 97

c.) coracoid process of the scapula

Question 98

What is the proximal attachment of the pronator teres? a.) coracoid process of the scapula b.) humerus c.) coronoid process of the ulna

Answer 98

c.) coronoid process of the ulna

Question 99

What is the distal attachment of the supinator? a.) radius b.) humerus c.) clavicle

Answer 99

a.) radius

Question 100

What is the isometric action of the supinator and pronator teres? a.) stabilizes the shoulder girdle b.) stabilize the cervical spine c.) stabilize the proximal radioulnar joint and elbow

Answer 100

c.) stabilize the proximal radioulnar joint and elbow

Question 101

The distal attachment of the biceps brachii is... a.) ulna b.) distal radius c.) proximal radius

Answer 101

c.) proximal radius

Question 102

The proximal attachment of the brachialis is the... a.) proximal ulna b.) coracoid process c.) humerus

Answer 102

c.) humerus

Question 103

The distal attachment of the brachioradialis is... a.) styloid process of radius b.) radial tuberosity c.) proximal ulna

Answer 103

a.) styloid process of radius

Question 104

The distal attachment of the brachialis is... a.) the radial tuberosity b.) the ulna c.) the styloid process of the radius

Answer 104

b.) the ulna

Question 105

Which of the following concentrically supinates the radioulnar joint as well as flexes the elbow? a.) brachioradialis b.) brachialis c.) biceps brachii

Answer 105

c.) biceps brachii

Question 106

Which head of the triceps brachii has a proximal attachment on the scapula? a.) medial head b.) short head c.) long head

Answer 106

c.) long head

Question 107

What muscles has a distal attachment on the olecranon process? a.) biceps brachii b.) triceps brachii c.) brachialis

Answer 107

b.) triceps brachii