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PSYC 251: Physiological Psychology > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What’s the Hebb rule?

A

Cells that fire together, wire together

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2
Q

In a conditioned emotional response (CER) study, a tone is paired with a foot shock for a rat. After several trials, the tone alone is a conditioned stimulus that can elicit fear emotional responses. Which conclusion is correct regarding the anatomy of this fear response?  

A. The central nucleus of the amygdala integrates the pairing of the tone and the shock information.

B. Tone information is relayed directly to the central nucleus of the amygdala.

C. The lateral nucleus of the amygdala integrates the pairing of the tone and the shock information.

A

A. The central nucleus of the amygdala integrates the pairing of the tone and the shock information.

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3
Q

Jules experiences a stroke that affects his ability to remember information about his family and friends. However, he still remembers how to play the piano although he has no memory of ever learning how to play. It appears that Jules’s ___________ memory is still intact.

A

Implicit

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4
Q

Persistence of long-term potentiation for more than an hour requires:

A. formation of new axonal spines.
B. presynaptic inhibition of glutamate release.
C. increased protein synthesis within the postsynaptic dendrite.
D. insertion of GABA receptors into the postsynaptic membrane.
E. destruction of AMPA receptors in the postsynaptic membrane.

A

C. increased protein synthesis within the postsynaptic dendrite.

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5
Q

The pyramidal cells of hippocampal field CA1 are unique in that
A. axon firing results in action potentials along the dendrites.
B. dendrite depolarization results in action potentials in the axon.
C. the dendritic spikes are always hyperpolarizations.
D. the threshold of activation of the pyramidal cell is quite low.
E. these cells do not conduct action potentials.

A

A. axon firing results in action potentials along the dendrites.

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6
Q

What is meant by the plasticity of the brain?

A

The ability of the nervous system to change its activity in response to intrinsic or extrinsic stimuli by reorganizing its structure, functions, or connections

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7
Q

A rat learns to press a lever when it receives a reinforcing item, such as a food pellet, after each press. To learn the connection between the lever press and the receipt of the food pellet, the neurotransmitter ___________ is involved.

A

Dopamine

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8
Q

Which factor normally prevents the calcium channel of the NMDA receptor from opening in response to only glutamate?

A. The channel is blocked by Mg2+ ions.
B. Glutamate requires the presence of glycine in order to open the channel.
C. The channel is blocked by sodium ions.
D. Glutamate requires the presence of GABA in order to open the channel.
E. Glutamate inhibits glycine activity.

A

A. The channel is blocked by Mg2+ ions.

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9
Q

The main function of operant conditioning is to allow an organism to

A. adjust behavior according to its consequences.
B. learn species-typical behaviors.
C. recognize familiar objects.
D. acquire new physical skills.

A

A. adjust behavior according to its consequences.

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10
Q

The induction of long-term potentiation in the hippocampus would be blocked by
A. a drug such as AP5 that blocks NMDA receptors.
B. using high-frequency electrical pulses.
C. a drug that activates NMDA receptors.

A

A. a drug such as AP5 that blocks NMDA receptors.

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11
Q

The __________________ controls the behaviors of walking, writing, and dancing. This area is also organized such that areas of the body that require greater innervation are represented to a greater extent cortically.

A

primary motor cortex

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12
Q

The behavior of an animal is strongly reinforced by electrical stimulation of the ______ __________ ______

A

medial forebrain bundle

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13
Q

In which case would you expect to observe an enlarged hippocampal formation?
A. a London taxi driver who has 30 years of experience
B. a pigeon that wanders from roost to roost
C. a bird that only eats from one specific backyard feeder
D. a person who has just started training as a New York subway operator
E. a chickadee tested in the early summer months

A

A. a London taxi driver who has 30 years of experience

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14
Q

Associative long-term potentiation reflects increased ________ produced by changes in ________.
A. calcium entry; NMDA receptors
B. chloride efflux; AMPA receptors
C. calcium entry; D2 receptors
D. calcium efflux; D1 receptors
E. calcium immobilization; NMDA receptors

A

A. calcium entry; NMDA receptors

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15
Q

Stanislaus was shown a collection of photographs last month, and was then shown a larger collection of photographs yesterday. He was able to identify the photos in the current group that he had seen a month previously. This type of learning is an example of what type of learning?

A

Perceptual learning

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16
Q

When looking at an automobile, the ability to label it as a car is the responsibility of the __________ stream, which terminates in the inferior temporal cortex.

A

ventral

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17
Q

Receptors for ________ are involved in long-term potentiation.
A. serotonin
B. NMDA and AMPA
C. acetylcholine
D. dopamine
E. GABA

A

B. NMDA and AMPA

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18
Q

Damage to the caudate nucleus/putamen in rats would be expected to specifically
A. impair the acquisition of a stimulus-response relationship.
B. promote the formation of new motor memories.
C. impair episodic memory.
D. impair operant conditioning.
E. impair spatial memory.

A

D. impair operant conditioning.

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19
Q

Neurogenesis is stimulated within the ______ for tasks that involve relational learning.  

A

hippocampus

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20
Q

A major structural change that accompanies long-term potentiation is the
A. decreased size of dendritic spines.
B. projection of a spinule into the presynaptic element.
C. formation of two segments of axon.
D. formation of new synaptic contacts.
E. loss of synaptic contacts.

A

D. formation of new synaptic contacts.

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21
Q

An example of a natural reinforcer is
A. cocaine.
B. amphetamine.
C. dopamine.
D. GABA.
E. food

A

E. food

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22
Q

4 Types of Learning:

A

Stimulus-response
Motor
Perceptual
Relational

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23
Q

Stimulus-Response learning:

A

ability to learn to perform a particular behavior when a particular stimulus is present.
Classical + Operant conditioning

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24
Q

Motor Learning

A

the establishment of changes (responses) within motor systems following a stimulus.
Needs sensory stimulus from the environment

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25
Q

Perceptual Learning

A

ability to learn to recognize stimuli that have been perceived before.

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26
Q

Relational Learning

A

learning the relationships among individual stimuli

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27
Q

Thorndike’s law

A

we are likely to repeat behaviors for which the consequences turned out to be ‘good’.

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28
Q

Motor learning is done by the ____ and the _____ _____

A

Cortex; basal ganglia

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29
Q

_______ ______ can turn a conscious motor task into an automatic one

A

Basal ganglia

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30
Q

The ____ stream is important in perceptual learning

A

ventral (‘what’)

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31
Q

The hippocampus is important for ______ learning

A

relational

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32
Q

Examples of declarative/explicit memory

A

Episodic
Semantic

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33
Q

_____ amnesia occurs when the hippocampus is damaged.

A

Anterograde

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34
Q

Explain anterograde amnesia

A

Can’t form new memories

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35
Q

Flight or fight system

A

Sympathetic Nervous System

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36
Q

Explain the SAM system

A

Hypothalamus releases epinephrine & norepinephrine, activating the sympathetic NS

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37
Q

Explain the HPA axis

A

the adrenal gland releases cortisol, a stress hormone

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38
Q

_______ metabolism is increased during stressful times – that gives you the boost of energy to act.

A

Glucose

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39
Q

Prolonged secretion of _____ leads to harmful effects of stress.

A

glucocorticoids

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40
Q

Can stress cause actual brain damage?

A

Yes

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41
Q

Can stress cause death?

A

Yes, sorry little vervet monkey

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42
Q

Nondeclarative memory

A

Memories that we are not necessarily conscious of; typically control behaviors

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43
Q

Declarative memory

A

Memory of events and facts that we can think and talk about

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44
Q

Episodic memory

A

Memories specific to a particular time and place

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45
Q

Semantic memory

A

Facts

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46
Q

Which is less specific, episodic or semantic memory?

A

Semantic

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47
Q

Examples of nondeclarative memory

A

Conditioning; motor memory

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48
Q

Neurogenesis happens in the ______ and ______

A

hippocampus; olfactory bulb

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49
Q

Describe LTP

A

Electrical stimulation of circuits within the hippocampal formation can lead to long-term synaptic changes that seem to be responsible for learning; caused by increase in EPSPs

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50
Q

Two events of LTP:

A

1.) Activation of synapses
2.) Depolarization of postsynaptic neuron

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51
Q

The ______ receptor controls a calcium ion channel

A

NMDA

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52
Q

During a LTP, calcium ions enter the cells through the channels controlled by NMDA receptors only when _______ is present and when the postsynaptic membrane is polarized/depolarized.

A

glutamate; depolarized

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53
Q

What is responsible for the increase in synaptic strength that occur during LTP?

A

Insertion of additional AMPA receptors into the postsynaptic membrane of the dendritic spike

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54
Q

The ______ receptor controls a sodium channels.

A

AMPA

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55
Q

When an AMPA receptor is activated by _______, they produce EPSPs in the membrane of the dendritic spike.

A

glutamate

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56
Q

How does the entry of Ca ions into the dendritic spine cause AMPA receptors to move into the postsynaptic membrane?

A

Activation of enzymes, especially CaM-KII

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57
Q

What is LTD?

A

Long-term depolarization

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58
Q

Which statement about prosody is correct?  
A. It does not serve as a vehicle for conveying emotion.
B. The left hemisphere plays a key role in the production and perception of prosody.
C. It is normal in people with Broca’s aphasia.
D. Prosody is disrupted in Wernicke’s aphasia.
E. It adds rhythmic and melodic aspects to speech.

A

E. It adds rhythmic and melodic aspects to speech.

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59
Q

The central deficit in pure anomia involves a difficulty in
A. speech comprehension.
B. producing fluent speech.
C. repeating words.
D. choosing the correct words to express an idea.
E. repeating nonwords.

A

D. choosing the correct words to express an idea.

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60
Q

An important conclusion based on investigations of transcortical sensory aphasia is that
A. a person must comprehend a word before it can be repeated.
B. speech recognition and comprehension are different processes.

A

B. speech recognition and comprehension are different processes.

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61
Q

Wernicke’s area and the association cortex in the left temporal lobe are responsible for
A. comprehension of speech.
B. comprehension of tone.
C. understanding prosody.
D. comprehension of metaphors.
E. understanding emotions.

A

A. comprehension of speech.

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62
Q

Aesop’s fable “The Tortoise and the Hare” has a moral that working slowly but steadily can benefit a person. The ____________ would be primarily involved in the ability to understand this moral.
A. left hemisphere
B. right hemisphere
C. corpus callosum
D. left frontal lobe

A

B. right hemisphere

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63
Q

The speech disorder known as ________ is characterized as a receptive aphasia.
A. Broca’s aphasia
B. ortho-apraxia
C. alexia
D. Wernicke’s aphasia

A

D. Wernicke’s aphasia

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64
Q

The central deficit noted in conduction aphasia is the inability to
A. produce fluent spontaneous speech.
B. repeat nonwords.
C. repeat words that have familiar meanings.
D. name objects.
E. identify proper nouns.

A

B. repeat nonwords.

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65
Q

Transcortical sensory aphasia results from damage to
A. Broca’s area.
B. Wernicke’s area.
C. the primary auditory cortex.
D. the posterior language area.

A

D. the posterior language area.

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66
Q

The left hemisphere is better than the right hemisphere at
A. recognizing the emotional tone in a voice.
B. analyzing geometric objects.
C. perceiving spatial relationships.
D. producing language.

A

D. producing language.

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67
Q

Broca’s aphasia involves damage localized within the
A. arcuate fasciculus.
B. left posterior cerebral cortex.
C. inferior occipital lobe.
D. frontal lobe.

A

D. frontal lobe.

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68
Q

How could you test a person for Broca’s?

A

Show them a photo and ask to describe what’s going on

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69
Q

People with Broca’s aphasia use almost entirely function/content words

A

Content

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70
Q

Language deficits in Broca’s aphasia:

A

Agrammatism
Anomia
Articulation difficulties

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71
Q

What is anomia?

A

Word-finding difficulty

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72
Q

Where is Broca’s area located?

A

HP scar

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73
Q

Where is Wernicke’s area located?

A

Superior temporal lobe (usually left)

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74
Q

How can you test a person for Wernicke’s?

A

Ask them a question or to name an object and see if they comprehended the question enough to answer it correctly

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75
Q

Symptoms of Wernicke’s aphasia:

A

Pure word deafness
Hard to convert thoughts to words
transcortical sensory aphasia

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76
Q

Pure word deafness

A

Can perceive and recognize speech, but cannot understand the words

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77
Q

Agrammaticism

A

telegraphic quality to speech

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78
Q

Broca’s damage is often thought of as just a disorder of production, but there are also problems with comprehension…how so?

A

Broca’s patients can get passive and active sentences messed up if word order does not help with interpretation

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79
Q

transcortical sensory aphasia

A

can repeat words others say, but can’t comprehend meaning / can’t produce meaningful speech of their own

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80
Q

Prosody of those with Broca’s/Wernicke’s damage sounds normal.

A

Wernicke’s

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81
Q

Phonagnosia

A

Can’t recognize voices

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82
Q

Phonagnosia is caused by damage to the right/left hemisphere

A

right

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83
Q

Causes of stuttering

A

Genetic
Lack of motor planning
No auditory feedback from your own speech

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84
Q

Under what conditions does stuttering go away?

A

Singing

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85
Q

Pure alexia

A

Visual info doesn’t make it to Left Hemisphere association area. Can’t read but can still write!

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86
Q

Best method to teach someone with surface dyslexia

A

Phonetic OK; whole-word bad.

87
Q

Best method to teach someone with phonological dyslexia

A

phonetic bad, whole-word OK.

88
Q

What is the whole word area of the brain called and where is it located?

A

Visual word-form area (VWFA)
Bottom of temporal lobe

89
Q

Acquired dyslexia is caused by ______

A

brain damage

90
Q

Developmental dyslexia is caused by ______

A

genes; several causes

91
Q

Dysgraphia is _______. What are the two types of dysgraphia?

A

Writing disorders
1.) Phonological
2.) Orthographic

92
Q

In Phonological dysgraphia, hearing/vision is the problem

A

hearing

93
Q

In orthographic dysgraphia, hearing/vision is the problem

A

vision

94
Q

Surface dyslexia is a deficit in _______

A

whole-word reading

95
Q

Human brains are about three times larger than chimpanzee brains when corrected for  
A. birth order.
B. age.
C. body size.
D. number of nerve cells.
E. gender.

A

C. body size

96
Q

The symptoms of ADHD, such as impulsivity and poor planning, resemble those noted after damage to the
A. substantia nigra.
B. caudate nucleus.
C. nucleus accumbens.
D. central amygdala.
E. prefrontal cortex.

A

E. prefrontal cortex.

97
Q

What is the function of a neural adhesion protein?
A. slowing asymmetric division
B. stimulating neurogenesis during adolescence
C. guiding the growth of neurons in a developing brain
D. consolidating memories in the hippocampus
E. stopping the process of apoptosis

A

C. guiding the growth of neurons in a developing brain

98
Q

Which aspect of brain development tends to subside around the time of adolescence?  
A. broad apoptosis
B. synapse formation
C. neural migration
D. myelination
E. neural tube development

A

B. synapse formation

99
Q

The most consistent structural feature noted in attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder brains is
A. a loss of myelin in cells within the spinal cord.
B. a decreased number of cells within the basal ganglia.
C. an increase in the number of cells within the corpus callosum.
D. reduced activation of the medial prefrontal cortex.
E. a 5 percent increase in total brain volume.

A

D. reduced activation of the medial prefrontal cortex.

100
Q

A baby who has fetal alcohol syndrome would be expected to  
A. be smaller than average in size.
B. have abnormal reflexes.
C. have a very large head.
D. be hyperactive.
E. develop more rapidly than his or her normal peers.

A

A. be smaller than average in size.

101
Q

During prenatal development, the tissues that surround the three interconnected chambers of the neural tube eventually develop into
A. a single spinal cord.
B. the major parts of the brain.
C. the heart, kidneys, and liver.
D. the lungs.
E. four chambers of the heart.

A

B. the major parts of the brain.

102
Q

Drugs that block the dopamine transporter would be expected to  
A. decrease synaptic levels of dopamine.
B. impair dopamine neurotransmission.
C. reduce the symptoms of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder.
D. reduce the likelihood of activation of other neurons.
E. aggravate the behavioral symptoms of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder.

A

C. reduce the symptoms of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder.

103
Q

Methylphenidates stimulate release of dopamine and ________ in the prefrontal cortex to ameliorate the symptoms of ADHD.  
A. glycine
B. norepinephrine
C. acetylcholine
D. serotonin
E. GABA

A

B. norepinephrine

104
Q

The most common treatment for attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder involves
A. administration of methylphenidate.
B. administration of cocaine.
C. administration of Prozac.
D. ablation of the cingulum bundle.
E. drugs that are dopamine antagonists.

A

A. administration of methylphenidate.

105
Q

Whether a child will be born with Down syndrome is related to  
A. the age of the mother at the time of pregnancy.
B. the presence of specific amino acids in the mother’s diet.
C. overexposure to toxins during pregnancy.
D. ingestion of drugs and alcohol by the father prior to conception.
E. the uterine environment during pregnancy.

A

A. the age of the mother at the time of pregnancy.

106
Q

Tracy has been playing the guitar since childhood. We’d expect Tracy’s cortical region associated with __________ to be __________ compared to non-guitar players.
A. visual processing; smaller
B. the left hand; smaller
C. abstract reasoning; larger
D. the left hand; larger
E. visual processing; larger

A

D. the left hand; larger

107
Q

_________ is a metabolic disorder in which an infant requires larger-than-normal amounts of vitamin B6 to avoid neurological symptoms.
A. Parkinson’s disease
B. Tay-Sachs disease
C. Phenylketonuria
D. Pyridoxine dependency
E. Huntington’s chorea

A

C. Phenylketonuria

108
Q

What does the successful treatment of Tay-Sachs disease involve?
A. stimulating production of phenylalanine
B. infusing the affected person with large doses of vitamin B6
C. severely limiting the amount of tyrosine in the diet
D. performing blood transfusions every 6 months until the age of 10
E. there currently is no successful treatment of Tay-Sachs disease

A

E. there currently is no successful treatment of Tay-Sachs disease

109
Q

The term congenital refers to a  
A. genetic metabolic error of the brain.
B. condition present at birth.
C. condition in which a fetus has both female and male internal reproductive structures.
D. neurological condition that appears during puberty.
E. condition that is inherited from the mother.

A

B. condition present at birth.

110
Q

What are lysosomes?  
A. a cell’s waste-removal system
B. precursors to progenitor cells
C. cells produced in the bone marrow
D. what cells are called after neurogenesis has taken place
E. reproductive cells that have been corrupted in some way

A

A. a cell’s waste-removal system

111
Q

Those with _____ dyslexia cannot comprehend words, but can read

A

Direct

112
Q

How do neurons ‘know where to go’?

A

Migration

113
Q

How does apoptosis of the progenitor cells occur? AKA what sets it off?

A

Capase cascade

114
Q

Is it a good thing to lose neurons via synaptic pruning?

A

Yes!

115
Q

When does synaptic pruning happen?

A

Between ages 2-10

116
Q

Symmetrical division produces _ ________ ___

A

2 progenitor cells

117
Q

Asymmetical division produces _______

A

a progenitor cell and a glial cell

118
Q

What is a teratogen?

A

Toxin in the womb

119
Q

Causes of FAS?

A

Lead, alcohol, viruses

120
Q

Example of a metabolic disorder

A

PKU

121
Q

Down syndrome is caused by the presence of an extra ________-

A

21st chromosome

122
Q

Autism is thought of as an extreme ____ ____

A

male brain

123
Q

ADHD: ___________ makes it hard to learn

A

delay of reinforcement

124
Q

What is meant by an inerted U-shaped curve in ADHD?

A

The amount of dopamine must be juuuuust right

125
Q

Theory of mind

A

Ability to put yourself into someone else’s shoes and recognize that ideas other than your own exist

126
Q

Tell me about partial seizures

A

Have a definite focus (source of irritation), such as scar tissue or malformed blood vessel
Small part of brain affected

127
Q

Tell me about generalized seizures

A

Widespread; involve most of the brain
Origin not always discovered

128
Q

Simple partial seizures cause ________

A

changes in consciousness

129
Q

Complex partial seizures cause _____

A

loss of consciousness

130
Q

Types of generalized seizures

A

Grand mal
Petit mal
Atonic

131
Q

Tell me about the grand mal seizure

A

Generalized, including motor areas of the brain
Aura
Convulsions
Tonic and clonic

132
Q

Tell me about the tonic phase of a grand mal seizure

A

Muscles contract, arms rigidly outstretched, rigid posture for 15 seconds

133
Q

Tell me about the clonic phase of a grand mal seizure

A

Muscles tremble, convulsions, eyes roll, tongue may be bitten, sweat and spit

134
Q

What happens when the seizure causes abnormal activity on the motor cortex?

A

Convulsions via GRAND MAL

135
Q

Another name for a cerebrovascular accident is _____

A

stroke

136
Q

Hemorrhagic strokes are caused by _______

A

bleeding in the brain

137
Q

Ischemic strokes are caused by

A

obstruction of blood flow via thrombus or embolus

138
Q

What is a thrombus?

A

Blood clot in the blood vessels

139
Q

What is an embolus?

A

piece of material that forms in the veins, breaks off, and is carried through the blood stream until it gets stuck

140
Q

atherosclerotic plaques

A

buildup of fats, cholesterol and other substances in and on the artery walls

141
Q

carotid stents

A

Placing a small metal coil (stent) in the clogged artery to declog it…

142
Q

CIMT stands for

A

Constraint-induced movement therapy

143
Q

Meds that quickly dissolve blood clots that cause many strokes

A

tPA

144
Q

Davey has a long history of high blood pressure. He takes medications to regulate his blood pressure, but he often forgets to take them and doesn’t follow the diet suggested by his doctor. These facts make it more likely that he will suffer from a(n) _____________ stroke.
A. ischemic (thrombus)
B. ischemic (embolus)
C. transient
D. hemorrhagic

A

D. hemorrhagic

145
Q

Meningitis leads to damage of the brain because this disease produces
A. damaged secretory cells within the choroid plexus.
B. scar tissue on the meninges.
C. inflammation of the meninges that interferes with the circulation of blood or cerebrospinal fluid.
D. a buildup of the long form of ß-amyloid precursor protein.
E. sclerotic plaques.

A

C. inflammation of the meninges that interferes with the circulation of blood or cerebrospinal fluid.

146
Q

Approximately 90 percent of cases of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis are
A. known to be hereditary.
B. classified as sporadic.
C. due to excessive production of dopamine in brain.
D. cured using anticholinergic drugs.

A

B. classified as sporadic.

147
Q

People who have sustained chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE) show accumulations of __________ in their cerebral cortexes.
A. GABA
B. beta-stanine-3
C. abnormal tau protein
D. epinephrine
E. acetylcholine

A

C. abnormal tau protein

148
Q

Which statement about benign brain tumors is true?
A. Benign tumors cause damage through glutamate release.
B. Benign tumors damage brain tissue by infiltration.
C. Benign tumors are encapsulated.

A

C. Benign tumors are encapsulated.

149
Q

Which statement about transmissible spongiform encephalopathy (TSE) is correct?  
A. Multiple sclerosis is a form of TSE.
B. In TSE, the ventricles in the brain are constricted.
C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is a form of TSE that results from eating human flesh.
D. TSEs are caused by simple proteins termed prions.

A

D. TSEs are caused by simple proteins termed prions.

150
Q

Which treatment has demonstrated the most utility for Huntington’s disease?
A. deep brain stimulation of the caudate nucleus
B. deep brain stimulation of the thalamic projections
C. lesioning the putamen
D. implantation of fetal caudate and putamen cells
E. there is no current treatment for Huntington’s disease

A

E. there is no current treatment for Huntington’s disease

151
Q

Rabies is a type of  
A. autoimmune disorder.
B. viral encephalitis.
C. degenerative disorder related to matrix proteins.
D. bacterial infection.

A

B. viral encephalitis.

152
Q

Open-head TBI

A

Injuries internal brain, like a gunshot

153
Q

Closed-head TBI

A

Outer

154
Q

Coup

A

Initial blow to the brain caused by a punch

155
Q

Countercoup

A

Injury caused when brain recoils from a punch or something and smashes against the other side of the skull

156
Q

Examples of developmental disorders:

A

FAS, PKU, Tay-Sachs, Down Syndrome

157
Q

Tell me about PKU

A

condition in which your body can’t break down an amino acid called phenylalanine
Special diet

158
Q

Tell me about Tay-Sachs

A

caused by the absence of an enzyme that helps break down fatty substances. These fatty substances, called gangliosides, build up to toxic levels in the brain and spinal cord and affect the function of the nerve cells
No cure

159
Q

Examples of degenerative disorders

A

TSE (mad cow disease), Parkinson’s, Huntinton’s

160
Q

What goes wrong in the brains of those with Parkinson’s?

A

Degeneration of nigrostriatal system (dopamine –> basal ganglia)

161
Q

Examples of infectious diseases

A

herpes simplex, rabies, AIDS dementia, meningitis.

162
Q

Korsakoff’s – _______ amnesia

A

anterograde

163
Q

autoimmune disease that attacks myelin.

A

MS

164
Q

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

A

progressive neurodegenerative disease that affects motor nerve cells in the brain and spinal cord. Usually not hereditary

165
Q

Can a person with a schizophrenia diagnosis go on to live a fulfilling life?

A

yes

166
Q

What does the dopamine system have to do with schizophrenia?

A
167
Q

Is schizophrenia heritable (does it run in families)?

A

Yes! #TwinStudies

168
Q

What about environmental factors for schizophrenia?

A

Season of birth
Viral epidemics
Vitamin D deficiency
Population density
Prenatal malnutrition
Substance abuse
Obstetric complications

169
Q

How does the brain change over the course of schizophrenia?

A

Enlarged ventricles, lose more gray matter, smaller hippocampus,

170
Q

What does the dopamine system have to do with schizophrenia?

A

Too much dopamine

171
Q

What parts of the brain are implicated for the Negative symptoms?

A

Mesocortical dopamine pathway
Hypofrontality; less activity in PF cortex
Impaired glutamate activity

172
Q

What parts of the brain are implicated for the Positive symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

Mesolimbic dopamine pathway; dopamine agonists increase DA, causing pos. symptoms

173
Q

Major depression: is it heritable? How does it affect the brain?

A

Slightly heritable.
Hyperactivity of subgenual ACC in frontal lobe
Decreased activity in rest of frontal cortex

174
Q

Drug treatment for depression: MAO inhibitors increase the level of _________ (including serotonin).

A

monoamines

175
Q

The Tricyclics are a drug for depression that slow down reuptake of _______

A

serotonin

176
Q

SSRIs slow down reuptake of ______

A

serotonin

177
Q

True or false: atypical antidepressants are not MAO agonists

A

True

178
Q

What is the ‘therapeutic lag’?

A

A delayed onset of treatment effect

179
Q

Tell me about ECT

A

Induce a seizure in a depressed patient and their depression will lift, but only for a short time.

180
Q

Shock-related treatments for MDD

A

ECT, DBS, TMS

181
Q

Depression is associated with high prefrontal activity and low subgenual ACC activity. The trick is to decrease one and boost the other.

A

Ye

182
Q

Monoamine hypothesis: the idea that depression = not enough ______

A

serotonin (P.S. This hypothesis is probably too simple…Maybe the SSRIs are boosting neurogenesis. Maybe they are boosting BDNF)

183
Q

Can sleep deprivation be a treatment for depression?

A

Yep!

184
Q

____ attack can be mistaken for heart attack

A

panic

185
Q

Keys to resilience:

A

Controlled exposure to stress-related stimuli
Protective factor (hormones)
Early life nurturing experiences

186
Q

stress can depress our _____ system

A

immune

187
Q

Tell me about B-lymphocytes

A

Antibodies in the bone marrow are sent out
Kill invaders and attract WBCs to help

188
Q

Tell me about T-lymphocytes

A

Antibodies remain attached to cell
Help against fungi, viruses, parasites

189
Q

Tell me about cytokines

A

Chemicals that stimulate cell division
Cause WBCs to proliferate

190
Q

Examples of cell-mediated immune responses

A

T- and B-lymphocytes

191
Q

Chronic stress, poor sleep, exhaustion, and certain genetic disorders may all lead to low __ levels or deficiency, weakening the immune system

A

IgA

192
Q

Symptoms of PTSD

A

‘flashbacks’ to the traumatic event, feelings of detachment, similar to depression.

193
Q

Potential cause of PTSD, NT-wise.

A

Too many catecholamines (dopamine, norepinephrine, and epinephrine)

194
Q

Those with PTSD have a smaller/larger hippocampus

A

smaller

195
Q

Treatments for PTSD

A

cog-beh therapy, exposure therapy, antidepressants, time

196
Q

Anxiety disorders affect more women/men.

A

women

197
Q

Types of anxiety disorders

A

Panic, anticipatory, generalized, social,

198
Q

Causes of Anxiety

A

Genetic
BDNF may play a role in anxiety disorders.

199
Q

Amygdala, prefrontal cortex are implicated in anxiety disorders.

A

Yeah

200
Q

Treatment for anxiety:

A

Benzodiazapines (like Valium) can be used but only for a short time. They boost GABA receptors (remember they’re inhibitory, so you can see why these drugs are sometimes called tranquilizers).

201
Q

Brain of OCD:

A

Overactivity of orbitofrontal cortex (in frontal lobe). This area is important for vigilance tasks (so OCD is kind of like everyday worrying take to an extreme).

202
Q

Treatment for OCD

A

SSRI, more serotonin reduce compulsions
Purposely destroy part of the basal ganglia circuit, to reduce OCD symptoms
cog-beh therapy

203
Q

An example of a cognitive symptom evident in schizophrenia would be  
A. exhibiting poor problem solving and deficits in learning and memory.
B. experiencing a feeling of euphoria at the start of a schizophrenic episode.
C. exhibiting excessive emotional expression.
D. thinking that you are the most powerful being on earth.

A

A. exhibiting poor problem solving and deficits in learning and memory.

204
Q

Which class of antidepressant agents has the effect of increasing activity in both serotonin and norepinephrine synapses?  
A. cocaine-related stimulants
B. lithium salts
C. SSRIs
D. SNRIs
E. MAOIs

A

D. SNRIs

205
Q

When comparing transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) and electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), which statement is most accurate?  
A. TMS has fewer side effects than ECT.
B. TMS has more side effects than ECT.
C. TMS has greater relapse rates than ECT.

A

A. TMS has fewer side effects than ECT.

206
Q

Positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations, result from
A. an imbalance of norepinephrine in the brain.
B. underactivity of the mesolimbic system.
C. damage to the mesocortical system.
D. overactivity of the mesolimbic system.

A

D. overactivity of the mesolimbic system.

207
Q

A major problem for the use of lithium in treating affective disorders is that
A. lithium dulls thought processes.
B. there is a low therapeutic index for lithium.
C. lithium may not work in up to 50 percent of patients.
D. lithium is an expensive treatment.

A

B. there is a low therapeutic index for lithium.

208
Q

The negative symptoms of schizophrenia, such as social withdrawal, are caused by
A. underactivity of the mesolimbic system.
B. excessive birth weight.
C. damage to the mesocortical system.
D. overactivity of the mesolimbic system.
E. overactivity of the mesocortical system.

A

C. damage to the mesocortical system.

209
Q

Richie, a 68-year-old man, has been taking L-DOPA to treat his Parkinson’s disease. However, he has recently begun to exhibit positive symptoms of schizophrenia (such as hallucinations and delusions), even though his physician has made it clear that Richie doesn’t meet the criteria for a diagnosis of schizophrenia. What’s at work here?
A. Drugs such as L-DOPA stimulate the synthesis of dopamine, which in turn can produce positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
B. Parkinson’s disease shares the same neurological basis as schizophrenia, so “symptom blurring” is occurring.
C. Richie has schizophrenia and his physician is incorrect in her diagnosis, as schizophrenia usually manifests itself in men later in life.
D. Richie is actively trying to get more attention from his physician in the hope of receiving an experimental treatment for Parkinson’s disease.

A

A. Drugs such as L-DOPA stimulate the synthesis of dopamine, which in turn can produce positive symptoms of schizophrenia.

210
Q

The likelihood of developing posttraumatic stress disorder is increased if a person is exposed to a traumatic event that involves  
A. a natural disaster.
B. property damage.
C. danger or violence from other people.
D. repeated exposure to mild stressors.

A

C. danger or violence from other people.

211
Q

A person who experiences recurrent panic disorder may become even more anxious because
A. of anticipatory anxiety.
B. anxiety causes the release of GABA in the brain.
C. of residual long-lasting anxiety from the previous panic attack.
D. anxiety symptoms show sensitization with repeated experiences.

A

A. of anticipatory anxiety.

212
Q

A problem with using benzodiazepine drugs as a long-term anxiety treatment is that these drugs
A. induce seizures.
B. cause sedation.
C. make a person more prone to drink alcohol.
D. result in sensitization.
E. suppress REM sleep.

A

B. cause sedation.

213
Q

Prolonged stress can result in cardiovascular disease because  
A. stress-related hormones are toxic for cardiac cells.
B. stress can increase blood pressure.
C. of prolonged activation of the parasympathetic nervous system.
D. stress increases consumption of fatty foods that in turn clog the arteries.

A

B. stress can increase blood pressure.

214
Q
A

PSYC 251: Physiological Psychology (14 decks)

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