Final Exam Flashcards
(99 cards)
1
Q
What are the transmissible diseases of concern for DHCP?
A
Candidiasis
Pneumococcal pneumonia
Tuberculosis
2
Q
What are some standard precautions?
A
-PPE
-Control plan
-Prevent cross-contamination
-Updated protocols
3
Q
What conditions are important to clinicians?
A
HBV
HCV
HIV
4
Q
What conditions don’t have vaccines?
A
HCV
HIV
5
Q
What is the influenza vaccine used for?
A
Flu
6
Q
What can untreated strep throat turn into?
A
Cardiac condition
7
Q
How can TB be transmitted?
A
Coughing
Droplets
8
Q
What organ does hepatitis affect?
A
Liver
9
Q
What conditions are traditionally not transmitted to others?
A
HAV
HEV
10
Q
What can HPV cause?
A
Oropharyngeal cancers
11
Q
What is the primary infection of herpes simplex 1?
A
Herpetic gingivostomatitis
12
Q
What is the primary infection of herpes simplex 2?
A
Genital herpes
13
Q
What is the primary infection of HHV-3 Varicella-zoster?
A
Varicella - chicken pox
14
Q
What is the primary infection of HHV-4 Epstein-Barr?
A
Infectious mononucleosis
15
Q
What is the primary infection of HHV-5 Human cytomegalovirus?
A
Mononucleosis, fever, hepatitis
16
Q
What is the primary infection of HHV-6A Herpes lymphotropic?
A
Asymptomatic infection after HHV-6B
17
Q
What is the primary infection of HHV-6B Herpes lymphotropic?
A
Roseola infantum
18
Q
What is the primary infection of HHV-8 Kaposi’s sarcoma-related virus?
A
Asympotomatic in immunocompetent lymphadenopathy
19
Q
What are the immunizations for clinician’s?
A
o Hepatitis B
o MMR (measles, mumps, rubella)
o Varicella-zoster
o Influenza
o Tetanus, diphtheria, pertussis
o Meningococcal
20
Q
What masks should clinican’s wear?
A
Level 3
21
Q
When are antiseptic hand rubs not appropriate to use in the clinical setting?
A
When hands are visibly soiled
22
Q
What are symptoms of type 1 hypersensitivity?
A
Rash, shortness of breath, swelling of lips & throat
23
Q
How is sterilization tested?
A
Biological monitoring - Spore testing
24
Q
What are the indications for spore testing?
A
o Once per week
o Training new personnel
o New packaging
o Initial use of new sterilizer
o After repair
o Improper loading
25
What cannot be tested for sterilization?
Chemical liquid sterilization
26
What are the properties of a disinfectant?
-Broad spectrum
-Fast acting
-Unaffected by physical factors
-Nontoxic
-Surface compatibility
-Residual effect on treated surfaces
-Easy to use
-Odorless
-Economical
27
What does a patient on blood thinners INR have to be in order to be treated?
Less than 3
28
What type of conditions do patients take blood thinners for?
Stroke
Heart attack
History of blood clots
29
What patients need to take premedication before treatment?
Cardiac condition patients
30
What do they want to add to vital signs?
Smoking
31
What is the first process of biofilm development?
Acquired pellicle
32
What can unremoved biofilm turn into?
Gingivitis
33
What source of minerals do we get from saliva?
Calcium
34
What can the color of calculus come from?
Blood pigments
35
What bacteria's are associated with acquired pellicle formation?
-Streptococcus mutans
-Streptococcus sanguinis
-Actinomyces viscosis
36
What step is this in dental biofilm?
-Pellicle formation
Step 1
37
What step is this in dental biofilm?
-Initial adhesion
Step 2
38
What step is this in dental biofilm?
-Maturation
Step 3
39
What step is this in dental biofilm?
-Detachment & dispersion
Step 4
40
Primarily gram-positive aerobic bacteria
Supragingival biofilm
41
Primarily gram-negative anaerobic and motile organisms
Subgingival biofilm
42
A shift of healthy species to periodontitis-associated species
Dysbiosis
43
Stain within body of tooth
-Always intrinsic
Endogenous
44
Stain originating outside of tooth
Exogenous
45
What stain is from chromogenic bacteria?
Green stain
46
Why don't we scale green stain?
Enamel may be demineralized
47
What is the first sign of a carious lesion?
White spot lesion
48
What helps with white spot lesions?
Fluoride
49
What causes caries?
pH
Xerostomia
Exposure
50
Exaggerated response to stimulation
Pulpitis
51
What fluoride is used off label?
Fluoride Varnish
52
What has the highest fluoride concentration that can be used in a dental office?
Fluoride varnish
53
What fluoride can stain if in contact with tissue?
Silver diamine
54
Contains 9,050 ppm fluoride ion
Recommended for esthetic restorations
Neutral Ph 7.0
4-minute application
Foam or gel
Limited evidence of foam
Neutral sodium fluoride
2.0% NaF
55
-Ortho-phosphoric acid 3.5 pH
-12,300 ppm fluoride ion
-Thixotropic agent
-May etch porcelain and composite restorations and sealants
-4-minute tray application is recommended
Acidulated phosphate fluoride
1.23 APF
56
-High concentration of Fluoride 22,600 ppm
-Lesser amount of Fl used is required
-Remains on the teeth for several hours releasing Fl to pits and fissures and proximal surfaces.
-Reduces demineralization of white spot lesions
5% fluoride varnish
57
What are contraindications of 38% silver diamine fluoride?
-Allergy to silver
-Pregnant/breastfeeding
-Painful sores/raw gingiva
-Pulpal involvement
58
What is the lethal dose of sodium fluoride for adults?
5-10g
59
What is the safe dose of sodium fluoride for adults?
1.25-2.5g
60
- Removes biofilm from adjacent to and directly beneath the gingival margin
-Cervical/proximal areas, open embrasures
-Exposed root surfaces
-Abutment teeth of fixed partial denture & orthodontic appliances
The bass method
61
-Designed for cleaning the sulcus, cervical areas and massaging the gingiva
-Press to flex and angle filaments at a 45 degree angle to the long axis of the tooth
The stillman method
62
-Removes biofilm etc. from teeth without emphasis on the gingival margin
-Direct filaments apically
-Place side of the brush on attached gingiva
-Recommended for children
Rolling stroke method
63
-Removes biofilm from proximal surfaces
-Massage marginal & interdental gingiva
-Adapts to cervical areas below the height of contour
-To clean under the margins of a fixed partial denture
-Direct filaments at a 45-degree angle toward the occlusal/ incisal plane
Charter method
64
-Toothbrush placed at a 90 -degree angle to the long axis of the teeth
-Circular motion in each area
Fones/Circular method
65
-Place toothbrush at 90° to the long axis of the teeth, buccal and lingual, and press bristles gently against the teeth
-The teeth are edge to edge
-May work well with small children
Leonard's/Vertical method
66
What embrasure type is no gingival recession? What is used?
Type 1
Dental floss
67
What type of embrasure space has moderate papillary recession? What is used?
Type II
Interdental brush
68
What type of embrasure space has complete loss of papillae or extensive recession? What is used?
Type III
Unitufted brush
69
What is used on a healthy sulcus, good dexterity, ability to slide through contacts?
Floss
70
What is used for a healthy sulcus, dexterity problems, ability to slide through contacts?
Floss holder
71
What is used on gingivitis, implants, orthodontics, deeper pockets?
Water flosser/irrigation
72
What is used on embrasure spaces II & III, perio patient, exposed root surfaces?
Interdental brush
Wood sticks
73
-Proximal surfaces of widely spaced teeth
-Tooth surfaces next to an edentulous area
Gauze strips
74
-Single tuft or group of small tufts
-Open interproximal areas
-Fixed prostheses, orthodontics, implant abutments
-Difficult to reach areas
Single tuft brush
75
1996 - Infection control recommendations through
its Councils on Scientific Affairs and Dental
Practice
ADA - American dental association
76
Infection Control recommendations concur with CDC & ADS
ADHA - American dental hygienists' association
77
Regulates the disposal of medical waste
Effectiveness and safety of disinfectants
EPA - Environmental protection agency
78
-United States Department of Labor
-1992 Bloodborne Pathogens Standard
-The Needlestick Safety and Prevention Act 2001
OSHA - Occupational safety and health administration
79
inactivates spores and all forms of bacteria, fungi, and viruses
High level disinfectants
80
all forms of microorganisms but not spores
Intermediate level disinfectants
81
inactivates vegetative bacteria, and certain lipid-type viruses but does not destroy spores, tubercle bacilli, or non-lipid viruses
Low level disinfectants
82
What cardiac conditions require antibiotic prophylaxis before invasive dental treatment?
-Prosthetic heart valve
-History of infective endocarditis
-Congenital heart disease
-Heart transplant with heart valves
83
A bacterial infection that enters the bloodstream and settles into the heart lining, heart valve, or a blood vessel
Infective endocarditis
84
What are the ways of getting patient history?
Interview
Questionnaire
85
What is the normal body temp range?
97-99 degrees F
86
Greater than 104 degrees F
Hyperthermia
87
Below 96 degrees F
Hypothermia
88
What is the adult range for pulse?
60-100 bpm
89
What is the adult range of respiration?
12-20 per minute
90
What is the BP for hypotension?
<90
<60
91
What is the normal BP?
<120
<80
92
What is a elevated BP?
120-129
<80
93
What is a stage 1 hypertension BP?
130-139
80-89
94
What is a stage 2 hypertension BP?
Greater/equal to 140
Greater/equal to 90
95
What is a hypertensive BP?
>180
>120
96
What agent in mouthrinses reduces biofilm, bactericidal, and bacteriostatic?
Chlorhexidine 12%
97
What are the adverse effects of chlorhexidine in mouthrinse?
-Stain
-Increase in calculus
-Alter taste production
-Desquamation
98
What ruptures bacteria cell wall and decreases the ability of bacteria to attach to the pellicle
Quaternary Ammonium Compounds
99
-A five carbon sugar alcohol
-Found naturally in trees, fruits, vegetables
-Approved by the FDA as a dietary food additive in 1963
Xylitol
