Final Exam Flashcards
(199 cards)
1
Q
Because of its function, the seventh cranial nerve is often called the ___.
A
great motor nerve of the face
2
Q
What are the names given to the afferent root of the seventh cranial nerve?
A
the nervus intermedius, the nerve of Wrisberg
3
Q
What classifications of fibers are conveyed at the apparent origin of the seventh cranial nerve?
A
branchial efferent, visceral efferent, somatic afferent, special visceral
4
Q
What is the name of the location for multipolar branchial efferent neurons of the cranial verve VII?
A
facial motor nucleus
5
Q
What is the opening through which the seventh cranial nerve exits the cranial vault?
A
internal acoustic meatus of the temporal bone
6
Q
What is the name of the afferent ganglion for the seventh cranial nerve?
A
geniculate ganglion, genicular ganglion
7
Q
Most of the seventh cranial nerve will exit the skull via what opening?
A
the stylomastoid foramen
8
Q
Into what region of the head will the stylomastoid foramen open?
A
the partoid region
9
Q
Branchial efferent fibers carried in the seventh cranial nerve will innervate what muscles?
A
muscles of facial expression, muscles of the scalp and auricle, the buccinator, platysma, stapedius, stylohyoid, and the posterior belly of the digastric
10
Q
What will the parasympathetic efferent pathways of the seventh cranial nerve supply?
A
the lacrimal, submandibular, sublingual, lingual, and mucosal glands
11
Q
Preganglionic visceral efferent fibers of the cranial nerve VII will exit the pons in what nerve?
A
nervus intermedius, nerve of Wrisberg, sensory root of facial nerve
12
Q
Which immediate branch of the seventh cranial nerve will convey preganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers to the lacrimal gland?
A
greater petrosal or greater superficial petrosal nerve
13
Q
Which branch of the seventh cranial nerve will convey preganglionic parasympathetic fibers into the pterygopalatine ganglion?
A
vidian nerve or nerve of the pterygoid canal
14
Q
The continuation of the great petrosal nerve exits the middle cranial fossa by what opening?
A
vidian canal or pterygoid canal of the sphenoid bone
15
Q
The vidian canal opens into what region of the head?
A
The pteygopalatine region, sphenopalatine region
16
Q
What are the names of the ganglion of synapse in the efferent pathway to the lacrimal gland?
A
pterygopalatine ganglion, sphenipalatine ganglion, Meckel’s ganglion
17
Q
Postganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers from the pterygopalatine, sphenopalatine or Meckel’s ganglion will become incorporated in which cranial nerve branch?
A
maxillary nerve of the trigeminal
18
Q
The maxillary division of the cranial nerve V exits the pterygopalatine region via what opening?
A
the interior orbital fissure
19
Q
What bones converge to form the inferior orbital fissure?
A
sphenoid, maxillary, palatine, and zygomatic
20
Q
The parasympathetic pathway to the lacrimal gland will involve branched from which cranial nerve?
A
facial and trigeminal nerves
21
Q
What immediate branch of the maxillary nerve will convey postganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers to the lacrimal gland?
A
zygomatic nerve
22
Q
Which branch of the zygomatic nerve will convey postganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers to the lacrimal gland?
A
zygomaticotemporal nerve
23
Q
The zygomaticotemporal nerve will convey postganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers to the lacrimal gland through a communication with which branch of the fifth cranial nerve?
A
ophthalmic nerve
24
Q
Which ophthalmic nerve branch will contain postganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers?
A
lacrimal nerve
25
Postganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers from the ophthalmic nerve will innervate which gland?
lacrimal gland
26
What is the nucleus of origin for the preganglionic parasympathetic fibers carried in the seventh cranial nerve for the submandibular and sublingual glands?
superior salivatory nucleus
27
Which immediate branch of the seventh cranial nerve will convey preganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers to the submandibular and sublingual glands?
chorda tympani nerve
28
The chord tympani nerve exits the temporal bone via which opening?
the petrotympanic fissure of the temporal bone
29
The chord tympani nerve will join which nerve?
the lingual nerve of the mandibular division of the trigeminal
30
Peripheral sensory processes from receptors around the ear and mastoid region are conveyed to the seventh cranial nerve from what other cranial nerve?
vagus
31
What is the nucleus of termination for central sensory processes from pseudounipolar neurons in the geniculate ganglion associated with information from the mastoid region and auricle?
the spinal trigeminal nucleus
32
What is the classification of sensory fibers associated with taste?
special visceral afferent fibers
33
Peripheral sensory processes from taste receptors located on the anterior two thirds of the tongue are conveyed in which branch of the fifth cranial nerve?
lingual nerve, mandibular division
34
Peripheral sensory processes from taste receptors located on the anterior two thirds of the tongue are conveyed in which branch of the seventh cranial nerve?
chorda tympani
35
Peripheral sensory processes from taste receptors in the anterior two thirds of the tongue are conveyed in the seventh cranial nerve to what ganglion?
genicular ganglion or geniculate ganglion
36
What is the nucleus of termination for central sensory processes from pseudounipolar neurons in the geniculate ganglion which are associated with taste?
gustatory nuclues of the nucleus solitarius
37
What fluid separates the membranous labyrinth from the bony labyrinth?
perilymph
38
What fluid is present within the membranous labyrinth?
endolymph
39
What makes up the vestibular apparatus?
the saccule, the utricle, and the semicircular ducts
40
How is sound or position converted into a neural impulse?
endolymph is displaced and alters the membrane of a specialized receptor cell
41
What are the specialized receptor cells for equilibrium called?
hair cells
42
receptor cells associated with equilibrium are located in elevations within what parts of the vestibular apparatus?
the saccule, the utricle, and the ampullae of the semicircular ducts
43
In what elevations of each part of the vestibular apparatus will receptor cells be identified?
the macula of the saccule, the macula of the utricle, the crista ampullaris of the ampullae of the semicircular ducts
44
what is unique to the receptor cells associated with equilibrium?
sterocillia and a single kinocilium
45
Peripheral sensory processes associated with equilibrium arise from what neurons?
bipolar neurons
46
Receptor cells associated with hearing are located in what structure?
the organ of Corti in the cochlear duct or scala media
47
What is the unique feature of receptor cells associated with hearing
stereocilia
48
Peripheral sensory processes associated with hearing arise from what neurons?
type I bipolar neurons
49
What is the location of the primary afferent neuron associated with hearing?
the spiral ganglion or cochlear ganglion
50
What is the visceral efferent nucleus of origin for the ninth cranial nerve?
inferior salivatory nucleus
51
Preganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers are observed in what primary branch of the ninth cranial nerve?
tympanic nerve or nerve of Jacobson
52
The lesser (superficial) petrosal nerve will emerge from the middle cranial fossa to enter what region of the head?
the infra temporal region
53
Preganlionic parasympathetic efferent fibers from the ninth cranial nerve will synapse in which ganglion?
oric ganglion or Arnold's ganglion
54
Preganlionic parasympathetic efferent fibers from the otic or Arnold's ganglion will communicate with what other cranial nerve branch?
the auriculotemporal branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal
55
The parasympathetic pathway from the ninth cranial nerve will innervate what target?
parotid gland
56
What is/are the target organ(s) monitoring blood pressure or blood physiology which are supplied by the ninth cranial nerve?
carotid body or carotid glomus and the carotid sinus
57
Central sensory processes from the ninth cranial nerve psuedounipolar neuron cell bodies monitoring general visceral sensation will synapse in what location of the brain?
cardiorespiratory nucleus of the nucleus soitarius
58
Periphreal sensory processes from the postsulcal (posterior one third) tongue are conveyed in which cranial nerve?
glossopharyngeal nerve
59
Central sensory processes from taste receptors associated with the ninth cranial nerve will synapse in what location within the brain?
gustatory nucleus of the nucleus solitarius
60
Branchial efferent fibers conveyed in the tenth cranial nerve will innervate what target organ(s)?
muscles of the soft palate; constrictor muscles of the pharynx, cricothyroid muscle and palatoglossus muscle
61
What is/are the target organ(s) monitoring blood pressure or blood physiology supplied by the tenth cranial nerve?
aortic body or aortic glomus and the aortic arch
62
Peripheral sensory processes are derived from what neuron and location?
pseudounipolar afferent neurons of the dorsal nerve root ganglion
63
Nerve fibers are derived from what neuron and location?
multipilar efferent neurons of the lateral and ventral horns
64
What part of the primary afferent neuron will be located in each of the five parts of the peripheral nerve system as stressed in class?
peripheral sensory process - mixed spinal nerve, ventral primary ramus/division, dorsal primary ramus/division
central sensory process - dorsal nerve root
65
What skeletal muscles are specifically interacted via dorsal primary rami/divisions?
splenius, erector spinar, transversospinalis, suboccipital, interspinalis, intertransversarii, and levator costarum
66
What skeletal muscles are interacted via both ventral primary rami/divisions?
all muscles of the neck, trunk, extremities, abdominal parietal wall, and pelvic parietal wall WITH THE EXCEPTION OF muscles innervated by cranial nerves IX, X, XI in the neck and the splenius, erector spinae, transversospinalis, suboccipital, interspinalis, and lavatory costarum
67
What are the subdivisions of the visceral division of the peripheral nerve system?
sympathetic, parasympathetic and enteric
68
What is the location from the enteric nerve system?
alone the gastrointestinal tract and organ system
69
What is the function of the enteric nerve system?
control of mobility, exocrine and endocrine secretions, microcitculation and regulation of the immune and inflammatory processes of the gastrointestinal tract and organ system
70
What are the locations for neurons of the enteric nerve system?
the myenteric plexus of Auerbach and the submucosal plexus of Meissner
71
What function is primarily emphasized for the myenteric plexus of Auerbach?
peristaltic activity alone the gastrointestinal tract
72
Where is the submucosal plexus of Meissner?
glandular epithelium, the mescularis mucosa, intestinal endocrine cells and submucosal blood vessels
73
What function is primarily emphasized for the submucosal pleas of Meissner?
influence on the process of secretion/absorption of the gut
74
The sacrococcygeal ganglion is the result of fusion of which paravertebral ganglia?
S5 and Co1 paravertebral ganglia on one side
75
Which paravertebral ganglia fuse to form the ganglion impar?
both sacrococcygeal ganglia fuse in he midline, S5 and Co1 paravertebral ganglia on both sides fuse in the midline
76
Who is going to pass their Spinal 1 final?
YOU ARE!!! :-)
77
Most prevertebral sympathetic ganglia are associated why that non-vertebral features?
celiac, ganglion, superior mesenteric ganglion, and inferior mesenteric ganglion
78
Which of the prevertebral nerve plexuses are more likely to contain secondary sympathetic neuron cell bodies?
cardiac pelxus, pulmonary plexus, celiac plexus, and inferior hypogastric (pelvic) plexus
79
Based on the target cell innervated, what are the classifications given to post ganglionic sympathetic efferent fibers?
vasomotor fiber, pilomotor fiber, sudomotor fiber, and secretomotor fiber
80
What nerve fibers will form the white ramus comminicans?
preganglionic sympathetic efferent fibers
81
what does the white ramus comminicans tie together?
the paravertebral sympathetic ganglion and the ventral primary nerve ramus
82
Postganglionic sympathetic eferent fibers will bundle together to form what structure which attaches to the paravertebral sympathetic ganglion?
gray ramus communicans
83
What does the gray rams communicans tie together?
the paravertebral sympathetic ganglion and the ventral primary nerve ramus
84
What nerve fibers will form the interganglionic rams communicans?
preganglionic sympathetic efferent fibers which are myelinated
85
What does the interganglionic rams communicans tie together?
paravertebral sympathetic ganglia
86
What rami will communicate with the paravertebral ganglia?
white rami comminicans, gray rami communicans, interganglionic rami communicans, and splanchnic nerves
87
What is the common sympathetic neuronal pathway?
the part of the sympathetic pathway from the spinal cord level of origin to the paravertebral ganglion which corresponds to that cord level of origin
88
What is the termination of the horizontal sympathetic neuronal pathway?
smooth muscle or glandular tissue in the parietal wall of the thorax and upper abdomen; territory roughly corresponding to the T1-T12, L1-L2 dermatomes
89
What is the termination of the ascending sympathetic neuronal pathway?
smooth muscle or glandular tissue in the head, neck, and upper extremity
90
In the ascending pathway, what is the location of synapse of the preganglionic sympathetic efferent fiber?
in a paravertebral ganglion higher than the paravertebral ganglion of origin
91
What is the termination of the descending sympathetic neuronal pathway?
smooth muscle o glandular tissue in the parietal wall of the lower abdomen, pelvis, and lower extremity
92
In the descending pathway, what is the location of synapse of the preganglionic sympathetic efferent fibers?
in a paravertebral ganglion lower than the paravertebral ganglion of origin
93
What is the termination of the splanchnic/visceral sympathetic neuronal pathway?
smooth muscle or glandular tissue in the organs and blood vessels of the thorax, abdomen and pelvis
94
In the splanchnic pathway, what is the location of synapse of the preganglionic sympathetic efferent fiber?
in a prevertebral ganglion or prevertebral plexus
95
What is the cord level origin of the sympathetic neuronal pathway to the heart?
upper thoracic spinal cord levels T1 - T12 typically
96
Where will preganglionic sympathetic efferent fibers synapse in the pathway to the head?
superior cervical ganglion
97
Where will preganglionic sympathetic efferent fibers synapse in the pathway to the heart?
1) paravertebral ganglia of origin from T1 - T4, T5
2) any cervical paravertebral ganglion
3) the cardiac plexus
98
What does the adrenal medulla represent embryologically?
a modified sympathetic pre vertebral ganglion
99
Where will preganglionic sympathetic efferent fibers synapse in the adrenal gland pathway?
chromatin cells of the adrenal medulla
100
Which splanchnic nerves contain preganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers?
nervi erigentes or pelvic splanchnic nerves
101
What is the locations of the intramural parasympathetic ganglion?
on or in the wall of the target organ
102
Do spinal nerves typically contain postganglionic parasympathetic efferent fibers?
no
103
What are the characteristics of the Artery of Adamkiewicz?
it is a left side, anterior, medullary feeder artery, located in the T9/T10 intervertebral foramen, and the primary vascular supply to the lumbar enlargement
104
What will the intervertebral veins drain into?
the external vertebral venous plexus or Batson's plexus
105
What is a unique histological feature of the veins of the vertebral column?
they appear to lack valves
106
What is the relationship between agin and cervical spine nerve root characteristics?
the length of the nerve root increases as it descends from its apparent origin on the spinal cord, but the cross-sectional area of the nerve root decreases
107
What forms the lumbosacral tunnel?
The lumbosacral ligament, transverse processes of L5 and sacral ala
108
What condition is the result of the encroachment on the L5 spinal nerve?
the far out syndrome
109
What are some examples of destructive lesions of the vertebral body?
tuberculosis, hemangiomas, osteoporosis
110
What are examples of acquired alterations of the spinal curves identifies in class?
obesity, pregnancy, and the use of backpacks
111
Identify the common ligaments of the vertebral column.
the 9 common ligaments are anterior longitudinal ligament, intervertebral disc, posterior longitudinal ligament, ligamentum flavum, capsular ligament, interspinous ligament, ligamentum nuchae, supraspinous ligament, and intertransverse ligament
112
What is the consequence on non-aggregated glucosaminoglycans in the lumbar nucleus pulposus?
the nucleus pulposus will loose water under deformation conditions
113
What cell is associated with the nucleus pulposus until about age eleven?
notochord cells
114
Which type of collagen is dominant in the nucleus pulposus?
collagen type II
115
What is the organizational pattern for collagen fibers in the nucleus pulposus?
they are irregularly oriented and randomly scattered
116
What is unusual about the cervical annulus fibrosus?
it lacks any lamellar or layered organization
117
What is the consequence of aggregated glycosaminoglycans in the lumbar annulus fibrosus?
the annulus fibrosis will retain water under deformation conditions
118
Which type of collagen is dominant int he annulus fibrosus?
collagen type I
119
What is the organizational pattern for collagen fibers in the annulus fibrosus?
they are parallel with one another in a single lamellas and angled
120
What is the organization of collagen fibers between lamellae?
collagen fibers will be angled in the opposite direction such that a spiral - counterspiral organization is observed
121
What is the principal type of collagen fiber within the cartilage end plate?
the type II collagen fiber
122
What is the thinner part of the cartilage end plate?
the central part, over the nucleus pulposus
123
What is the direction of the collagen fibers within the cartilage end plate?
collagen fibers are aligned anterior and posterior
124
What is the earliest indicator of intervertebral disc pathology or degeneration?
changes in the histology of the cartilage end plate
125
What are the types of receptor endings in the intervertebral disc?
nociceptors and proprioceptors
126
What is the relationship between size of the intervertebral disc and receptor endings?
the larger the disc, the greater the variety of receptor endings
127
What are the sources of innervation of the intervertebral disc?
the sinu-vertebral nerve (sinus vertebral nerve, recurrent meningeal nerve), fibers from the ventral primary rams, fibers from the white rams communicans, fibers from the paradisiacal rams communicans, fibers from the gray rams communicans
128
What nerve(s) have been shown to give off the sinus vertebral/sinu-vertebral/recurrent meningeal nerve?
the mixed spinal nerve, ventral primary ramus, dorsal primary rams, gray ramus communicans, and white rams communicans have all been implicated
129
What does the intrasclerotomal fissure or fissure of von Ebner become?
the perichondral disc
130
What structure forms following migration and subsequent mixing of the sclerotomites?
the vertebral blastema
131
What is the earliest indicator of the position of the adult intervertebral disc?
the intrasclerotomal fissure or fissure of von Ebner
132
What is the function of the anterior longitudinal ligament?
it brakes or limits dorsi-flextion of hyperextension of the vertebral column
133
What was ossification of the anterior longitudinal ligament in the lumbar region identifies as?
Forestier's Disease
134
What is ossification of the anterior longitudinal ligament in the lumbar region now identified as?
Diffuse Idiopathic Skeletal Hyperostosis or DISH
135
Where is the ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament most commonly identified?
the cervical spine with an 80% incidence
136
What is the gender, age, and ethnic bias associated with ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament?
it is greater in males over 50 and has a higher incidence in the Japanese
137
At one time ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament was an example of what condition?
Diffuse Idiopathic Skeletal Hyperostosis or DISH
138
What is the name given to the ligamentum flavum used on appearance and histology?
it is a yellow elastic ligament
139
What fibers are most ligaments made up of?
collagen type 1 fibers which are whitish in appearance
140
Where is ossification of the ligamentum flavum most commonly identified?
the thoracic spine or thoracolumbar transition zone
141
What is the name given to the superficial layer of the ligamentum nuchae?
the funicular layer or part
142
What is the name given to the deep layer of the ligamentum nuchae?
the lamellar layer or part
143
What are the attachment sites for the superficial layer of the ligamentum nuchae, respectively?
the external occipital protuberance, external occipital crest, and spinous tubercle of C7
144
What is the termination level inferiorly for the supraspinous ligament according to current literature?
primarily at L4 (73%); between L4 and L5 (5%)
145
Where is the supraspinous ligament said to be best developed?
the lumbar spine
146
What is now thought to be a major function of the supraspinous ligament?
it is a proprioceptive transducer for the spinal reflex
147
What forms the ventral slip of the in transverse ligament in the lumbar spine?
A membranous partition from the vertebral body covers the intervertebral foramen and extends back to the transverse process to form a ventral slip. It is penetrated by the contents of the intervertebral foramen
148
What is ADI?
the Atlanto-Dental Interspace, a radiographic distance between the surfaces of the anterior bursa of the median atlanto-axial joint
149
What is the ADI of children compared with that of adults?
about 4.5mm in children; a range from 2-3mm or about 2.5mm in adults
150
What are the degrees of movement facilitated at the atlanto-axial joint?
about 20 degrees flexion-extension, 40 degrees one side axial rotation, and 5 degrees of lateral bending
151
The occiput-C1-C2 joint complex accounts for what percent of all cervical axial rotation?
about 60%
152
Which ligaments replace the inter transverse ligament at the lumbosacral joint?
the iliolumbar ligament and lumbosacral ligament
153
What is the attachment sites for the lumbosacral ligament?
the sacral ala and ventrolateral surface of sacrum attach to the transverse process of L5
154
What does degenerative arthritis mean?
a condition of degeneration of the joint, sometimes referred to as degenerative joint disease (DJD)
155
What does ankylosis mean?
a condition of fibrous adhesion occurs within the joint
156
What is the age and gender bias associated with degenerative arthritis of the the sacra-iliac joint?
age 50 and male bias particularly in African American males
157
What is the name given to the outline of the nasal cavity at the front of the skull?
piriform aperture
158
What is the tip of the external occipital protuberance called?
the inion
159
What is the appearance of suture intersections just above the zygomatic arch called?
the pterion
160
What bones form the pterion?
parietal, temporal, sphenoid, and frontal bones
161
What is the appearance of suture intersections just above the mastoid process called?
the asterion
162
What bones form the asterion?
parietal, temporal, and occipital bones
163
What points on the skull are used to measure the skull size
the nation, vertex, inion, and gnathion
164
What points on the skull are used to measure cranial vault capacity?
the nation, vertex, and inion
165
What is the appearance of the suture intersections over the hard palate called?
the cruciate or cruciform suture
166
What ostia are observed in the anterior cranial fossa?
cribriform plate, anterior and posterior ethmoid foramina and foramen cecum
167
The olfactory nerve exits the cranial vault via what opening?
cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone
168
What bony feature is prominent in the median plane of the middle cranial fossa?
sella turcica
169
What are the parts of the sella turcica?
anterior clinoid processes, sphenodial jugum, posterior clinoid processes, dorsum sella, and hypophysial fossa of sphenoid bone
170
Which cranial nerves exit the skull via middle cranial ross ostia?
cranial nerves II, III, IV, V, and VI
171
What are the contents of the optic canal?
the optic nerve and ophthalmic artery
172
What are the contents of the superior orbital fissure?
the ophthalmic veins, the oculomotor nerve, the trochlear nerve, the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, and the abducent nerve
173
Which single opening will allow the exit of the greatest number of cranial nerves?
the superior orbital fissure
174
What are the contents of the foramen rotundum?
the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve Vb)
175
What are the contents of the foramen ovale?
the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve (Vc) and the lesser petrosal branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve
176
What are the contents of the foramen spinosum?
the nervus spinosus from the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve and the missile meningeal artery
177
What are the contents of the foramen lacerum?
the internal carotid artery, the carotid sympathetic nerve plexus, and a venous plexus
178
What forms the roof of the the posterior cranial fossa?
the tentorium cerebelli
179
What part of the cerebrum occupies the posterior cranial fossa?
none, the tentorium cerebella separates the cerebrum into a space above the posterior cranial fossa
180
Which cranial nerves exit posterior cranial fossa ostia?
cranial nerve VII (facial), VIII (vestibulocochlear/auditory) IX (glossopharyngeal), X (vagus), XI (spinal accessory) and XII (hypoglossal)
181
Which single opening will allow the exit of the creates number of cranial nerves from the posterior cranial fossa?
the jugular foramen
182
What can the five layers of the scalp spell?
Skin, Connective tissue, Aponerurosis, Loose connective tissue, Periosteum… SCALP
183
What are the major constituents of the the five layers of the scalp?
skin, neurovascular, muscular, loose connective tissue, periosteum
184
What is the third layer of the scalp associated with?
muscular component of the scalp
185
WHat muscles are specifically associated with the scalp?
frontalis and occipitalis bellies of the epicranius muscle
186
The bellies of the epicranius muscle are connected by what structure?
galea aponeurotica
187
What unusual/unique about the musles of the face?
they do not act as lever muscles; they do not attach to bone at both origin and insertion
188
Which muscles lack attachment to bone?
orbiularis oris, procerus and risorius
189
What nerve is the great motor nerve of the face?
facial nerve
190
The primary source of sensory innervation from the face is the ____ nerve
trigeminal
191
What landmark forms the apex of the orbit?
convergence of the superior orbital fissure and inferior orbital fissure
192
What opening(s) are located along the superior wall of the orbit?
optic canal
193
What is the name given to the medial wall of the orbit?
lamina papyracea
194
What opening(s) are located along the lateral all of the orbit?
superior orbital fissure
195
What opening(s) are located along the inferior wall of the orbit?
inferior orbital fissure
196
What are the names given to the modified sebaceous gland in the tarsus of the eyelid?
tarsal or Meibomian gland
197
What is the name of the modified sebaceous gland at the base of the eyelash?
ciliary gland
198
Sympathetic stimulation of the lacrimal gland will result in what events?
vasoconstriction of blood vessels, limited availability of water to secretory units, more viscous or thicker product formed in glandular lumen
199
Parasympathetic stimulation of targets in the lacrimal gland will result in what events?
vasodilatation of blood vessels, increased availability of water to secretory units, thinner or more watery product in lumen; constriction of myoepithelial cells leading to release of product from secretory lumen into duct system
