Final Exam Flashcards
(168 cards)
1
Q
True or false; interactions between the brainstem, hypothalamus, thalamus, and basal forebrain determine our states of arousal
A
true
2
Q
Dampening of the arousal systems with concomitant active inhibition produces what
A
sleep
3
Q
True or false; the midline brainstem (raphe nuclei), dorsolateral medullary reticular formation, and anterior hypothalamus area are all areas promoting wakefulness
A
false; they are all areas promoting sleep
4
Q
The oral pontine reticular formation, midbrain central tegmentum, and posterior hypothalamus are all associated with what?
A
areas maintaining wakefulness
5
Q
The magnocellular nucleus basalis of Meynert has ACH projections that do what?
A
intermingle with both sleep and arousal centers
6
Q
Pontomesencephalic cells in the dorsolateral pontine tegmentum are associated with what?
A
wakefulness
7
Q
What kind of projections do pontomesencephalic cells in the dorsolateral pontine tegmentum have (wakefulness)
A
Dopaminergic and Noradrenergic
8
Q
The oral pontine reticular formation has what kind of projections? What are they associated with?
A
Glutaminergic
Wakefulness
9
Q
Caudal mesencephalic (cholinergic) and oral pontine reticular formation (glutaminergic) are associated with wakefulness sending ascending projections where?
A
Thalamus
10
Q
True or false; Caudal mesencephalic (cholinergic) and oral pontine reticular formation (glutaminergic) are associated with wakefulness sending ascending projections to the thalamus communicate with hypothalamus and basal forebrain
A
true
11
Q
True or false; sleep is divided into stages based on electroencephalograph (EEG) electro-occulogram (EOG) and electromyogram (EMG)
A
true
12
Q
How many stages are there in Non REM sleep
A
4 (two light and two deep)
13
Q
Theta and delta low amplitude readings are associated with which stages of sleep?
A
I, II of Non REM (light stages)
14
Q
High amplitude delta readings are associated with which stages of sleep
A
III, IV of Non REM (deep stages)
15
Q
EEG resembles awake stage during what stage of sleep
A
REM
16
Q
Electrical stimulation of nucleus tractus solitarius (NTS) produces what?
A
Slow wave sleep
17
Q
Lesions in serotonin rich raphe nucleus produces
A
insomnia
18
Q
Paraclorophenylalanine (PCPA) blocks production of serotonin causing what
A
insomnia
19
Q
True or false; serotonin modulates sleep through its effect on anterior hypothalamus
A
true
20
Q
True or false; serotonin is a precursor to melatonin
A
true
21
Q
Where is melatonin synthesized and released?
A
pineal gland (through sympathetic stimulation)
22
Q
True or false; prolonged bright light exposure increases melatonin levels
A
false; it suppresses melatonin and sleep
23
Q
True or false; jet lag can be treated with melatonin? Crossing about how many time zones in what directions would cause jet lag
A
true it can
about 6 going East
24
Q
True or false; pre optic nucleus of anterior hypothalamus stimulates waking areas
A
false; inhibits waking areas 2
25
True or false; the anterior hypothalamus promotes sleep by inhibiting the posterior hypothalamus
true
26
Prostaglandin D2 is highly concentrated in the pre optic nucleus and induces what?
Slow wave sleep (SWS) and REM
27
Sleep spindles and delta waves are physiologic events involving what kind of neurons
GABAergic
28
rhythmic cortical waveforms generated by oscillatory activity in nucleus reticularis of the thalamus best describes what?
sleep spindles
29
True or false; an increase in GABAergic anterior hypothalamic pre optic and basal forebrain neurons is associated with SWS (slow wave sleep)
true
30
True or false; slow waves (delta) are generated in all cortical areas
true
31
What is somnambulism? When does it happen
Sleepwalking
| occurs during slow wave sleep (SWS)
32
True or false; during REM cortical EEG is highly desynchronized (similar to when you're awake)
true
33
Which stage of sleep is associated with pontine geniculate occipital spikes (PGO)
REM
34
True or false; pontine geniculate occipital spikes (PGO) is associated with rapid eye movements, changes in respiration, heart rate, and muscle twitches
true
35
True or false; REM sleep can be induced by cholinergic stimulation of the pons
true
36
What do REM-ON cells in the pontine reticular formation do?
Cause PGO (pontine geniculate occipital spikes)
37
What do antidepressants do to REM?
they are REM suppressors
| They increase activity of norepinephrine and/or serotonin
38
Normally what happens to muscle tone during REM?
progressive decrease in muscle tone (hyper polarization of motor neurons)
39
In regards to muscle tone, what happens during REM behavior disorder
Persistant muscle tone during REM
| Characterized by bursts of excessive limb and body movements during REM (Cause; unknown-believed to be lesions in pons)
40
The reduction in body and brain temperature at the onset of sleep is associated with what?
vasodilation and a general decrease in metabolism
41
What job does the suprachiasmatic nucleus have during sleep
acts as an endogenous clock influencing both sleep and body temperature
42
True or false; brain metabolism increases during SWS (slow wave sleep)
false; it decreases by 20-35% (decrease in cerebral blood flow)
43
True or false; sleep onset is associated with inhibition of thyroid stimulating hormone, cortisol, and stimulation of growth hormone and prolactin
true
44
True or false; many immune hormones promote wakefulness (IL-1, Prostaglandin D2, TNF)
false; they all have sleep promoting factors
45
Sleep deprivation can cause what in relationship to weight loss
Can greatly inhibit weight loss
Increases cortisol which increases insulin and fat storage
Can contribute to insulin resistance (Low levels of SWS=Low levels of growth hormone)
46
What effect do the hormones Ghrelin (GI tract) and Leptin (adipose tissue) have?
Ghrelin- increase hunger, promotes weight gain
Lepin- decreases drive for food intake, promotes weight loss
47
What is the inverse relationship between Ghrelin (GI tract) and Leptin (adipose tissue) look like?
Ghrelin (gain) Leptin (lose)
Increase sleep: Leptin > Ghrelin
Sleep deprivation: Leptin < Ghrelin
48
Uncontrolled excessive activity of all or part of the CNS (electrical storm) is characteristic of what?
Epilepsy
49
What is the incidence of epilepsy in US?
.5-1% (2nd most common neurological disease)
50
Causes of epilepsy?
```
Trauma
Oxygen deprivation
Tumors
Infections
Toxic states
(1/2 idiopathic)
```
51
Grand Mal, Petite Mal, Psychomotor, Jacksonian, Myoclonic Atonic and status epilepticus are all types of what?
Types of epileptic seizures
52
In a grand mal epileptic seizure what are the 4 phases?
Aura- tingling prior to seizure
Tonic phase- rigid stiffening of body-loss of consciousness
Tonic-clonic phase- strong muscle contractions and convulsions
Post-ictal phase- return to consciousness - confusion, weakness, slurred speech
53
Phenobarbital, dilantin, tegratol, and depekene are all drugs used to treat what?
Epilepsy
54
What is a evoked potential (EP)?
Sensory evoked potential (EP) is a change in EEG reading after repeated sensory stimulus
55
A change in EEG resulting from stimulation of a sensory pathway best describes what?
Evoked potentials (EP)
56
What is sensory evoked potentials (EP) useful for in a clinical setting?
Assessing the sensory systems and evaluating demyelinating diseases (i.e. MS)
57
Destruction of myelin would cause what? How is that related to sensory evoked potentials? (EP)
It would decrease conduction velocity and increase latencies when using sensory evoked potentials (EP) on a patient
58
What is kindling?
increase in sensitivity of NS (increase neuroexcitability) due to multiple acute withdrawals of a sedative-hypnotic drug (alcohol, benzodiazepines)
59
What does kindling cause in a patient?
intensification of anxiety and other psychological symptoms
60
True or false; adolescents, females and young adults are most sensitive to the neurological effects of binge drinking (kindling)
true
61
The mechanisms of neurotoxicity and kindling of neurotransmission systems because of alcohol is thought to be what
Alcohol's effect on GABAergic enhancement and NMDA suppression
62
True or false; alcohol causes kindling because of its effects on GABAergic enhancement and NMDA suppression
true
63
Neural disruptions occurring at biochemical or molecular level affecting personality, goal oriented behavior, emotion, language and creativity best describes what?
mental illness
64
Obcessive compulsive personality and antisocial personality are both examples of what?
mild mental illness
65
Dementias, schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, major depression, anxiety disorders are all examples of what?
severe mental illnesses
66
What disorder means shattered mind, causing mixture of sings and symptoms of which no single one is necessarily present
schizophrenia
67
What percentage of people worldwide have schizophrenia, early or late onset?
1 % full blown (2-3% have schizotypal personality no psychotic behavior)
early onset
68
What are positive symptoms of schizophrenia
distortions/exaggerations of normal thinking
cannot interpret reality
Delusions, hallucinations, bizarre behavior, illogical thinking
excessive mesolimbic activity
69
Perceptions occurring without an external stimulus best describes what?
hallucinations
70
Aberrant beliefs not supported by facts and not changed by evidence best describe what?
delusions
71
What are negative symptoms of schizophrenia
loss or decrease of normal functions
alogoria (poverty of speech or empty content)
flat affect (decrease in ability to express emotion)
anhedonia (inability to experience pleasure)
avolition (inability to persist goal oriented behavior)
Tend to impair persons ability to function daily compared to positive
72
What is more debilitating to a schizophrenic patient negative or positive symptoms
negative
73
true or false; poor attention, deficits in working memory are both examples of cognitive symptoms of schizophrenia
true
74
True or false; the various symptoms of schizophrenia suggest involvement of many cortical and subcortical areas
true
75
What is the probability monozygotic twins will both be schizophrenic? What about dizygotic twins
40%
| 10%
76
Exaggerated dopamine activity is related to what mental illness
schizophrenia
77
True or false; schizophrenia is associated with increased dopamine receptors, decreased dopamine blockers
true
78
True or false; L-Dopa cannot cause schizophrenic symptoms
false; it can
79
What is affect in relation to mood
what can be observed - i.e. euphoria, sadness, pleasure, surprise, etc
80
Unipolar depression what first described when? What were moods thought to be determined by?
Hippocratic writings 5th century
depended on balance of four humors (blood, phlegm, yellow bile and black bile)
Too much black bile meant depression
81
pervasive unpleasant mood present most of the day, inability to experience pleasure (anhedonia) generalized loss of interest, and decreased levels of serotonin are characteristics of what
unipolar depression
82
What is the incidence of unipolar depression in US
5% of population (~8 million)
83
True or false; symptoms of unipolar depression are typically constant throughout the day
false; usually worse in morning and follow a diurnal (during day) variation
84
True or false; bipolar and manic depressive are the same disorder
true
85
What is mania?
elevated expansive or irritable mood which lasts at least a week (overactivity, social intrusiveness, increased energy and libido)
86
True or false; bipolar patients have euphoria (manic phases) that last at least a week at a time
true
87
True or false; depression is not genetic
false; strong genetic ties
88
what is the incidence of depression in monozygotic twins
50%
89
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a popular treatment for what?
depression
90
MAO inhibitors, tricyclic, serotonin uptake blockers, lithium salts are all examples of drugs used to treat what?
depression
91
True or false; electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) has around 90% success rate in treating patients with depression
Are there any possible side effects
true
possible memory loss- can be severe
92
What do MAO inhibitors do? What is the response rate in patients with depression
decrease breakdown of biogenic amines (norepinephrine and serotonin)
70%
93
What are tricyclic compounds? What is the response rate in patients with depression
biogenic amine uptake blocker
70% (just like MAO inhibitors)
94
What is an example of a serotonin uptake blocker? How effective is it in treating depression
Prozac
85%
95
Lithium salts are effective at terminating what?
manic episodes
96
What is transcranial magnetic stimulation? It is a new or old technique
use of strong magnets to stimulate different areas of brain
new technique (remember video man treated with asperger's)
97
True or false; there is a major link between chronic back pain and depression
true
98
What is the relationship between brain and chronic back pain?
can cause brain shrinkage (brain may age up to 20x faster)
99
What is the key feature of anxiety disorders
frequent occurrence of symptoms of fear
100
True or false; anxiety is adaptive but excessive anxiety is maladaptive
true
101
What are panic attacks? How long do they usually last?
Brief episodes of terror - overactivity of SNS
lasts 15-30 minutes
102
True or false; panic attacks can be induced by inhalation of O2
false; can be by inhalation of CO2 (hyperventilating)
103
Generalized anxiety disorder has what kind of duration? What are some symptoms
Long duration >6 months
increased motor tension, increased SNS, exaggerated startle response
104
Stimulation of GABA receptors using valium or librium are characteristic of what mental illness
generalized anxiety
105
What is the most common form of dementia
alzheimer's
106
What percentage of the US population older than 65 show mental impairment (dementia)
11%
107
True or false; findings of alzheimer's disease are very specific when looking at a CT scan or MRI
false; they are non specific - some thinning of cortical gyri and enlarged ventricles
108
Is there a genetic component to alzeimer's?
Yes, in certain forms (early onset)
109
Virtually all people with _______ who live past 35 develop alzheimer's
down syndrome
110
Extracellular plaques containing amyloid (variety of proteins that accumulate in extracellular fibrils), neurofibrillary tangles, and neuronal cell loss are all associated with what form of dementia
alzheimer's
111
True or false; decreased somatostatin, NPY, corticotropin, RF, substance P and VIP are all associated with alzheimer's
true
112
True or false; nerve growth factor has no effect on alzheimer's development
false; appears to retard the development
113
Cerebral blood flow represents what percentage of resting cardiac output
15%
114
lack of blood flow to brain would result in loss of consciousness in how long?
5-10 seconds (stroke)
115
What is the incidence of occlusive vs. hemorrhagic strokes
occlusive 75%
| hemorrhagic 25%
116
True or false; most substances that must cross BBB are not lipid soluble and use specific carrier mediated systems
true
117
The brain which uses glucose exclusively receives glucose supply how?
by Glut 1 transporter across BBB
118
True or false; BBB is found in all areas of brain
false; posterior pituitary, and circumventricular organs (area postrema and median eminence)
119
Is there free exchange between BBB and CSF
no
120
AA gain access across the BBB via 1 of 3 carrier systems. What are the 3 carrier systems
```
L system (energy and Na+ independent)
A system (energy and Na+ dependent)
ACS system (energy and Na+ dependent)
```
121
Which 2 carrier systems for AA across the BBB are energy and Na+ dependent
A system and ACS system (L system is independent of both)
122
The L carrier system for AA across the BBB carriers which 2 AA
Leucine and valine
123
What secretes CSF? What is the total volume of CSF? How many times is it turned over per day?
Secreted by choroid plexus
Total vol. 150 mL
Turned over 3x per day
124
Communicating with brain ISF, removal of harmful brain metabolites, mechanical cushion, reduction of brain weight are all functions of what?
CSF
125
What is neuroimmunomodulation
study of secreted immune cell products - actions in CNS and PNS
126
SNS activation has what effect on immune response?
decrease-inhibits
127
True or false; thymocytes, B lymphocytes, and macrophages have both alpha and beta adrenergic receptors (SNS)
true
128
True or false; VIP, NPY, and substance P are controlled by SNS stimulation
false; by autonomic nerves
129
How does stress and SNS effect your immune system
When you're stressed the SNS is stimulated which inhibits many immune responses, this is why you're at greater risk of getting sick when stressed all the time
130
True or false; microglia and astrocytes secrete different types of interlukins and TNF alpha
true
131
Soluble mediators that are produced by immune cells best describe what?
Cytokines
132
What cytokine is involved in immune cell proliferation, and fever production - produced by macrophages and hypothalamic and hippocampal neurons
IL-1
133
True or false; physical (trauma, infection, inflammation) and psychologic stressors of brain tissue stimulate cytokine production
true
134
True or false; prolonged production of IL-1 IL-6 and TNF in brain (glial cells and neurons) can produce fever sleep induction, anorexia (eating disorder - weight)
true
135
True or false; cortisol up regulates IL-1, IL-2, IL-6
false; down regulates them
136
True or false; TNF alpha can suppress thyroid function, contribute to lethargy, and mediates inflammation
true
137
True or false; neuroendocrine (NE) peptides cannot be produced by immune cells
false; immune cells have been shown to produce NE
138
What effect does gonadotropins have on T cells and NK cells
decrease their activity
139
True or false; ACTH suppresses macrophage activity
true
140
What is bidirectional communication?
Communication between immune and nervous systems
141
True or false; VIP, NPY, and substance P are all examples of peptides in neuroimmunomodulation
true
142
True or false; a patient with a spinal cord injury would have increased NK cell, T cell and cellular adhesion molecule function
false; they would have decreased
143
What is a possible explanation for why spinal cord injury patients have decreased immune function
disrupts outflow of signals from SNS to lymphoid tissues and their blood vessels
144
True or false; chronic stress is associated with immunosuppression (corticosteroids, catacholamines, endorphins)
true
145
The hypothalamus coordinates the response to stress through the release of what?
soluble products from SNS
146
True or false; immune cells can produce neurologically active peptides like ACTH, CRF, GH, thyrotropin, PRL, hCG, substance P, and somatotropin
true
147
What effect does melatonin administration have on normal mice
increased life span
148
Enhancement of immune system, antioxidant, sleep aid, lower cholesterol, little to no toxicity are all effects of what
melatonin
149
What is neural plasticity
remodeling of neuronal pathways
150
What are neurotrophic factors?
They are factors secreted by the target tissues of neurons
The target tissue secretes small amounts of neurotrophic factors when stimulated, these factors are vital for the continued survival of neurons
If you stopped using the pathway (i.e. the neurons didn't receive neurotrophic factors) the subsequent neurons would enter apoptosis
Sensory and SNS neurons require these trophic factors for survival
This is why if you covered a babies eyes and never let them see for the first years of life then took off the blind fold most of the neurons in their sight pathway would have undergone apoptosis (same if you didn't allow them to speak or hear language)
151
Cell shrinkage, condensation of chromatin, cellular fragmentation, and phagocytosis of cellular remnants are all characteristics of what?
apoptosis
152
What is axotomy?
transection of axon
153
True or false; most injuries to Nervous system involve damage to axons
true
154
glial cells degenerating, postsynatpic neurons atrophy, "synaptic stripping" are all effects of what?
axotomy (transection of axon)
155
What has a greater regenerative capacity PNS or CNS
PNS
156
True or false; in PNS regeneration re-innervation of glands, blood vessels and viscera, and re-innervation of muscle spindles are all possible
true
157
True or false; in PNS all 3 divisions (sensory, motor, autonomic) are reversible after injury
true
158
True or false; in CNS regeneration long distance axon repair is common
false; very rare
159
Damage to the nervous system can induce remodeling of neural pathways; this is evidence of what
neural plasticity
160
What is amblyopia
reduced visual capacity
161
methylprednisone is a antioxidant that is known for what?
minimizing damage to nerve trauma
162
What is focal hand dystonia
patient is unable to independently control digits of hand (happens when fingers are moving together at a high rate for long period of time) i.e. neurons that fire together WIRE together
163
true or false; synapses increase their electrical activity when adjacent astrocytes stimulate Ca+ waves
true
164
How do astrocytes communicate among themselves and with neurons
Ca+ waves
165
true or false; schwann glial cells sprout branches that form bridges after nerve damage guides axons back to injured muscle allowing re-innervation of muscle
true
166
true or false; thoughts create physical changes in your brain
true
This is why you shouldn't constantly think negative thoughts, or your brain will re-wire itself to go back to these thoughts
If you concentrate on something your brain will re-wire to continue to gain focus
167
True or false; attention exerts real physical effects in brain
true
168
What does thymectomy (taking out of thymus) have on neonate mice
atrophy of anterior pituitary gland
