FINAL exam (3 lectures) Flashcards

(81 cards)

1
Q

Three complications in treating monogenic disorders

A

1.) gene may not have been identified
2.) Fetal damage
3.) most severe clinical phenotypes are less ammenable to intervention

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2
Q

Levels of intervention for treatment strategy

A

-mutant gene modification
-mutant mRNA modification
-mutant protein modification
-disease-specific compensation
-clinical phenotype modification (medical/surgical)
-genetic counseling

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3
Q

Long-term complications of gene therapy

A

1.) deficiencies have a late onset
2.) successful in one tissue but harmful to another
3.) side effects have a late onset

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4
Q

Dominant negative

A

effect of genetic heterogeneity on therapy, new wildtype replacements my be “poisoned” by a still-present mutant gene

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5
Q

The most successful gene therapy

A

treatment of metabolic deficiencies (strategies include: dietary modification, avoidance, diversion, inhibition. and depletion)

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6
Q

Biotinidase deficiency

A

prenatal biotin administration

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7
Q

Cobalamin-responsive methylmalonic adicuria

A

prenatal maternal cobalamin administration

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8
Q

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

A

Dexamethasone, a cortisol analogue

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9
Q

Phosphoglycerate dehydrogenase (PGDH) deficiency, a disorder of L-serine synthesis

A

Prenatal L-serine administration

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10
Q

Protein mutation genetic therapies

A

1.) add a cofactor
2.) replace the defective protein

Problems:
1.) proteins with a short half-life require frequent treatments and replacement –> insufficent supplies and harmful immune responses

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11
Q

Ivacaftor

A

For CF patients, restores lung function by permitting CTFR protein to be integrates into the cell membrane (augmentation)

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12
Q

Gaucher Disease

A

Lysosomal storage disease, mutation in glucocerebrosidase causing accumulation of glucocerebrosides in reticuloendothelial system

treated successfully with enzyme replacement (imiglucerase, miglustat) therapy (expensive and weekly infusions)

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13
Q

Beta-globin deficiencies– sickle cell

A

inducing the expression of gamma-globin (noramally only found in fetus) can partially rescue beta-globin deficiency phenotype

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14
Q

Hematopoietic stem cell (HSC) transplantation

A

bone marrow transplant, is risky due to infection

placental cord blood is more desirable over bone marrow, rich in HSCs, graft vs host risk is greatly reduced

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15
Q

gene therapy

A

modification of cells to produce a therapeutic effect, based on recombinant DNA technology that permits the introduction of new genes and possibly the removal of damaged genes

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16
Q

reasons to do gene therapy

A
  • compensate for a mutant cellular gene with a loss of function mutation
  • replace or inactivate a dominant mutant gene
  • Pharmacological effect (like cancer)
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17
Q

Ex vivo gene transfer

A

transfer outside the body or a stem cell, followed by introduction into the body
ADVANTAGES: does not require an efficient means to enter a cell because it can be engineered for
DISADVANTAGES: difficult and time consumig

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18
Q

In vivo gene transfer:

A

direct injection into the body using a vector
ADVANTAGES: quick and easy
DISADVANTAGES: targeting proper cells, immune responses, safety

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19
Q

Retroviral vectors

A

-Can enter virtually all target cells
-made simple and replication-defective
-Easy to engineer
-Introduce DNA into host genome
-accomodate large transgenes

Problems:
-require dividing cells to introduce DNA into host genome (lentiviruses, HIV can get around this)
- Safety due to mutagenesis

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20
Q

adenoviral vectors

A

Advantages:
- generated at high titer
- infect wide range of cell types
- accomodate large genes

Disadvantages:
- does not integrate into the genome
- expression is transient
-strong immune responses
- result in cell toxicity sometimes

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21
Q

Adeno-associated vectors (AAVs)

A

Advantages:
- can infect both dividing and non-dividing cells
- integrate host genome
- EX: CF, Factor IX, muscular dystrophy, CNS diseases

Disadvantages:
- Small transgenes (5KB)
—- Preferred viral vector for clinical trials

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22
Q

non-viral vectors

A

Advantages:
- lack biological risks associated with viral vectors

Disadvantages:
- not successful, DNA degraded in lysosomes

EX: naked DNA, liposomes, protein-DNA conjugates, artificial chromosomes, nanoparticles

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23
Q

Herpesviruses

A

central nervous system tropism, have large packing capacity, however they have strong inflammation and neurotoxic responses

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24
Q

CRISPR/CAS-9 example

A

in vivo-gene editing of transthyretin amyloidosis (ATTR), KO the mutant gene with 87% response positive

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25
siRNA gene therapy
designed to target a range of tissues ex studies: SARS, pathology of lungs in CF, KO of Huntington mRNA
26
Hemophilia B gene therapy
- Factor IX replacement - Liver-specific -AAV2, AAV9 and Hemophilia A (factor VIII)
27
Lysosomal storage disease gene therapy
- enzyme replacement therapy, Gaucher disease) - hematopoietic cell transplantation - AAVs and other vectors
28
Parkinson's disease gene therapy
- Viral vectors targeting the neuronal population that is affected in PD
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Leber congenital amaurosis gene therapy
early onset photoreceptor degeneration - RPE65 gene (RA metabolism) -AAV2 vectors
30
DMD gene therapy
-mini-dystrophin genes delivered by AAVs - mutation suppression by STOP codon read through - Exon skipping
31
SCID gene therapy treatment
OTC deficiency gene therapy, Jesse Gelsinger, X-SCID --> fatality and Leukemia (LMO2 gene)
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Terminal differentiation
As cells differentiate, they usually stop dividing permanently.
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Two features of stem cells that are consistently present
1.) stem cells retain the capacity to proliferate and self-renew 2.) stem cells produce daughter cells that can terminally differentiate into specific cell types
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Hematopoiesis
the ground floor of stem cells; hierarchy of cell types multipotent SC > multipotent progenitor > common myeloid/lymphoid progenitor > erythrocytes/leukocytes
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transit amplifying cells/progenitors
transient between stem cell and only proliferative for a limited time
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Mechanisms to promote stem cell DNA health
1.) use progenitor cells to divide to create tissues so that stem cells don't have to divide as frequently (dividing leads to errors) 2.) exceptions to random assortment because they give ALL parental (non-copied) chromosomes to one daughter cell to reduce the chance of them being altered during synthesis-- known as "the immortal strand hypothesis"
37
Embryonic stem cells
obtained from inner cell mass, are pluripotent. Primarily obtained from unneeded extra blastocytes created for IVF. Ethical considerations
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Tissue-specific stem cells
Somatic/adult stem cells: multi or uni-potent and usually exist in small numbers. Can be difficult to isolate and grow in cultures
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Mesenchymal stem cells
multipotent stromal cells from various locations including: bone marrow, connective tissue, and adipose tissue. Can be induced into bone, cartilage, and fat cells
40
Cancer stem cells
undifferentiated cells, contain a mix of pleomorphic and relatively undifferentiated cells
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Induced pluripotent stem cells (iPS/iPSCs)
Differentiated cells engineered in the lab to resemble embryonic stem cells.
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Regulation of Embryonic pluripotency
-- Oct4, Sox2, NANOG, KLF4 forming a core Pluripotency Gene Regulatory Network - miR-302 regulating the inhibition of Oct4 and NANOG
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PGRN
transcription factors acting as hubs, core intact=pluripotency
44
PGRN
transcription factors acting as hubs, core intact=pluripotency Three general levels: 1.) signaling pathways 2.) Transcriptional networks 3.) Epigenetic factors
45
Stem cell niche
stem cell regions that allow for controlled stem cell proliferation (uses Hh and Wnt). They produce paracrine factors that regulate stem cell proliferation and prevent differentiation
46
The 4 R's of regenerative medicine
1.) Repair 2.) Replace 3.) Restore 4.) Regenerative
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OKSM method
Certain transcription factors were strongly expressed in pluripotent embryonic stem cells, but suppressed in differentiating cells: Oct4/Sox2/Klf4/Myc or Oct4/Sox2/Klf4/NANOG because overexpression of Myc increases the risk of oncogenic transformation
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Direct reprogramming examples
Fibroblasts --> Neurons Pancreatic exocrine cells --> Beta-cells Fibroblasts --> cardiac muscle cells
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SCNT cloning
replacing the genome of an oocyte with that of an adult cell Ex. Dolly ant the mammary cell
50
Antigen assay
Search for microbial or virus antigens, using fluorescent antibody, or EIA
51
Molecular assay
 Search for key genes of pathogen, nucleic acid hybridization, PCR
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Blood sample
search for antibodies using agglutination, RIA, EIA, and so on 
53
Direct microscopic examination of clinical specimen
• gram stain, acid fast stain • India ink, CSF for cryptococcus neoformans • KOH treatment for fungal forms, blue • fluorescent antibodies • Electron microscopy for viral infection
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Most common direct microscopic exams
Bright field, and fluorescence
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Culture media
Supplies the nutritional needs of micro organisms and can either be chemically defined or undefined (complex media) 
56
Selective media
Contains compounds that selectively inhibit growth of some microbes but not others
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Differential media
Contains an indicator, usually a guy, that to text chemical reactions were occurring during growth
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Anaerobic micro organisms
Isolation, growth, and identification must be kept in anoxic conditions
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Aerobes
Require oxygen to live, whereas anaerobes do not and may even be killed by oxygen
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Facultative organisms
Can live with or without oxygen
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Aerotolerant anaerobes
Can tolerate oxygen and grow and its presence even though they cannot use it
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Microaerophiles
Arabs that can use oxygen only when it is present levels reduced from that an air
63
Most common culture medias
Blood agar, enteric agar
64
Sheep’s blood agar
Nonselective nutrient base with 5% sheep‘s blood added. Used for the cultivation of non-fastidious micro organisms. Measures hemolytic capacity, and classifies into alpha beta or gamma
65
EMB agar
Enteric media,eosin- methylene blue, selective and differential media. Inhibits growth of gram-positive bacteria and distinguishes gram-negative bacteria based on their ability to ferment lactose (metallic sheen= can ferment, blue = cannot ferment) 
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EMB appearance for Escherichia coli
Dark center with greenish metallic Sheen
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EMB appearance of Enterobacter
Similar to E. coli, but colonies are larger
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EMB appearance of klebsiella
Large, mucoid, brownish
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ENB appearance of proteus
Translucent, colorless
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EMB appearance of pseudomonas, salmonella, Shigella
Translucent, colorless to Gold
71
MacConkey agar
Selective and differential, enteric agar inhibits the growth of G positive, distinguishes G negative by lactose fermenters. Lactose fermenter will be deep purple/pink and non-fermenter will be colorless
72
Thayer-Martin media
Used for isolating Neisseria bacteria. Media inhibits the growth of most other organisms by using: Vancomycin to kill G positive Colistin to kill G negative Nystatin to kill fungi SXT to inhibit G negative, swarming Proteus Nutrients: chocolate chips blood, beef infusion, casein hydrolysate, and starch
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Example identification of N. gonorrhea
Look for cytochrome C oxidase, oxidase positive means gonorrhea positive On Thayer-Martin media
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API strip
Purified colony growths added to solutions, looking for biochemical pathways (changes the color of the liquid)
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Serology
The study of antigen antibody reactions in vitro, looking for particular antigen using antibodies or looking for antibodies against a particular antigen
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Agglutination
The visible clumping of a particular antigen when mixed with antibodies specific for the particulate antigens Typically used to identify blood group antigens and many pathogens
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Direct Agglutination
When soluble antibody causes clumping due to interaction with an antigen that is an integral part of the surface of a cell or other insoluble particle. Used for classification of antigens found on RBCs
78
Passive agglutination
When it is too small, colorless: chemically couple to cells or insoluble particles like latex beads or charcoal. Clumping gives you a positive test, while diffusion is a negative result
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Direct ELISA test
Antibodies bound to the wells, allow for virus antigen binding, add antivirus antibody containing conjugated enzyme and look for fluorescent colors
80
Indirect ELISA test
Wells coated with antigen preparation, looking for antibodies from the patient (allowing them to bind antigen), add fluorescent conjugated enzyme
81
Search for pathogenic nucleic acid
Finding Jean on present, deep sequencing/next generation sequencing