Final Exam Flashcards
(100 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following involves performing exercises in a superset sequence?
a. Speed Endurance Training
b. Aerobic Endurance Training
c. Anaerobic Endurance Training
d. Strength Endurance Training
A
d. Strength Endurance Training
2
Q
Which of the following is a goal of the Stabilization Level of the OPT model?
a. Increase anaerobic power
b. Increase maximal muscle strength
c. Enhance rate of force production
d. Enhance joint stability
A
d. Enhance joint stability
3
Q
Which of the following is an example that exhibits the conditions for being classified as obese?
a. An individual who is 20 pounds over the ideal weight for his or her height
b. An individual with a body mass index equal to or less than 20
c. An individual who is 10 pounds over the ideal weight for his or her height
d. An individual with a body mass index equal to or higher than 30
A
d. An individual with a body mass index equal to or higher than 30
4
Q
What is a primary cause of musculoskeletal degeneration in the adult population?
a. Spina bifida
b. High blood sugar level
c. Low-back pain
d. Vitamin K deficiency
A
c. Low-back pain
5
Q
According to the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model, which of the following corresponds to the first phase of training?
a. Hypertrophy training
b. Power training
c. Maximal strength training
d. Stabilization endurance training
A
d. Stabilization endurance training
6
Q
Which term refers to a system of glands that secrete hormones into the bloodstream to regulate a variety of bodily functions and consists of host organs, chemical messengers, and target cells?
a. Nervous system
b. Respiratory system
c. Digestive system
d. Endocrine system
A
d. Endocrine system
7
Q
What are responsible for sensing distortion in body tissues and are located in muscles, tendons, ligaments, and joint capsules?
a. Chemoreceptors
b. Osmoreceptors
c. Mechanoreceptors
d. Photoreceptors
A
c. Mechanoreceptors
8
Q
Which of the following characteristics distinguishes type II muscle fibers from type I muscle fibers?
a. Contractions of a longer duration
b. Decreased oxygen delivery
c. Smaller in size
d. More capillaries, mitochondria, and myoglobin
A
b. Decreased oxygen delivery
9
Q
Which of the following is a catabolic hormone secreted by the adrenal glands and serves to maintain energy supply through the breakdown of carbohydrates, fats, and protein?
a. Insulin
b. Testosterone
c. Norepinephrine
d. Cortisol Correct
A
d. Cortisol Correct
10
Q
Which mechanoreceptor helps prevent muscles from stretching too far or too fast?
a. Ruffini endings
b. Muscle spindle Correct
c. Golgi tendon organ
d. Intercalated disc
A
b. Muscle spindle Correct
11
Q
Which of the following refers to vessels that transport blood from the capillaries toward the heart?
a. Arterioles
b. Veins Correct
c. Carotids
d. Arteries
A
b. Veins Correct
12
Q
Which of the following is a system of organs that collects oxygen from the external environment and transports it to the bloodstream?
a. Integumentary system
b. Endocrine system
c. Respiratory system Correct
d. Immune system
A
c. Respiratory system Correct
13
Q
Dysfunctional breathing results in an increase in the activity level of which of the following secondary respiratory muscles?
a. Internal oblique
b. Diaphragm
c. Rectus abdominis
d. Scalenes Correct
A
d. Scalenes Correct
14
Q
Which term refers to the amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction?
a. Radial pulse
b. Stroke volume Correct
c. Cardiac output
d. Heart rate
A
b. Stroke volume Correct
15
Q
In which of the following structures are water and chemicals exchanged between the blood and tissues?
a. Venules
b. Sinoatrial node
c. Atrioventricular node
d. Capillaries Correct
A
d. Capillaries Correct
16
Q
For which activity is the oxidative system primarily used?
a. Performing a 1RM squat
b. Executing a 1RM clean and jerk
c. Jogging for 30 minutes Correct
d. Sprinting 40 yards
A
c. Jogging for 30 minutes Correct
17
Q
How does metabolism behave during EPOC?
a. Remains elevated Correct
b. Remains unaffected
c. Fluctuates
d. Increases
A
a. Remains elevated Correct
18
Q
A client runs a mile in 6 min and 30 seconds. Which of the following energy systems is the client primarily using to produce energy?
a. Anaerobic glycolysis
b. ATP-PC
c. Phosphagen
d. Oxidative Correct
A
d. Oxidative Correct
19
Q
Which of the following energy pathways is used for activities lasting between 30 and 50 seconds?
a. Oxidative
b. Krebs cycle
c. Glycolysis Correct
d. ATP-CP
A
c. Glycolysis Correct
20
Q
Which term refers to the assistance of amino acids in energy production during periods of starvation?
a. The Kreb’s cycle
b. Gluconeogenesis Correct
c. Glycogenesis
d. The Cori cycle
A
b. Gluconeogenesis Correct
21
Q
What refers to a position relatively closer to the midline of the body?
a. Superior
b. Anterior
c. Distal
d. Medial Correct
A
d. Medial Correct
22
Q
Which term refers to an anatomical position on the opposite side of the body?
a. Superior
b. Distal
c. Contralateral Correct
d. Ipsilateral
A
c. Contralateral Correct
23
Q
Horizontal abduction involves the movement of the arm or thigh in the transverse plane from which of the following positions to a lateral position?
a. Ipsilateral
b. Posterior
c. Inferior
d. Anterior Correct
A
d. Anterior Correct
24
Q
Front lunges and biceps curls occur in which plane of motion?
a. Transverse
b. Sagittal Correct
c. Scapular
d. Frontal
A
b. Sagittal Correct
25
Which of the following is true of eccentric motion?
a. It is known as “a positive” in the health and fitness industry.
b. The antagonist muscle lengthens.
c. It is known as “a negative” in the health and fitness industry. Correct
d. The agonist muscle is shortening.
c. It is known as “a negative” in the health and fitness industry. Correct
26
During a static postural assessment, a personal trainer observes that a client has protracted shoulders and a forward head. Which of the following muscles is most likely to be shortened?
a. Lower trapezius and rhomboids
b. Sternocleidomastoid and pectoralis major Correct
c. Teres minor and posterior deltoid
d. Serratus anterior and infraspinatus
b. Sternocleidomastoid and pectoralis major Correct
27
Which of the following assessments would be most important for a new client who recently recovered from a shoulder injury?
a. Shark skill test
b. Body composition
c. Pushing/pulling assessments Correct
d. 1RM strength assessment
c. Pushing/pulling assessments Correct
28
Which assessment should a personal trainer use to determine the heart rate zone a client should begin training at?
a. Shark skill test
b. Davies test
c. L.E.F.T. test
d. YMCA step test Correct
d. YMCA step test Correct
29
The observation of excessive forward lean during an overhead squat assessment is most likely caused by which of the following?
a. An overactive pectoralis major and teres major
b. An overactive abdominal complex and gastrocnemius Correct
c. An overactive abductor complex and anterior tibialis
d. An overactive transverse abdominis and gluteus maximus
b. An overactive abdominal complex and gastrocnemius Correct
30
Knee injuries involving ligaments lead to which of the following?
a. Increased neural control to stabilizing muscles of the core of the knee
b. Decreased neural control of the rotator cuff muscles
c. An increase in the neural control to the gluteus medius and gluteus maximus muscles
d. A decrease in the neural control to muscles that stabilize the patella Correct
d. A decrease in the neural control to muscles that stabilize the patella Correct
31
When performing the static latissimus dorsi ball stretch, which of the following is a correct body position?
a. 90° horizontally abducted humerus
b. Posteriorly rotated pelvis Correct
c. Anteriorly rotated pelvis
d. 90° internally rotated humerus
b. Posteriorly rotated pelvis Correct
32
Which of the following concepts is demonstrated when a tight psoas decreases the neural drive of the gluteus maximus?
a. Pattern overload
b. Synergistic dominance
c. Altered reciprocal inhibition Correct
d. Arthrokinetic dysfunction
c. Altered reciprocal inhibition Correct
33
When performing a squat, an overactive hip flexor complex can decrease neural drive to the gluteus maximus; what is this an example of?
a. Synergistic dominance
b. Autogenic inhibition
c. Relative flexibility
d. Altered reciprocal inhibition Correct
d. Altered reciprocal inhibition Correct
34
Which of the following clients would use active-isolated stretching during a warm-up?
a. Power Level client
b. Strength Level client Correct
c. Stabilization Level client
d. Corrective Exercise Level client
b. Strength Level client Correct
35
Dynamic stretching uses which of the following concepts to improve soft tissue extensibility?
a. Myotatic stretch-reflex
b. Reciprocal inhibition Correct
c. Synergistic dominance
d. Relative flexibility
b. Reciprocal inhibition Correct
36
Which of the following is a factor of the FITTE principle used to determine exercise training programs for each individual?
a. Fitness
b. Tolerance
c. Frequency Correct
d. Efficiency
c. Frequency Correct
37
Which of the following have a linear relationship during dynamic exercise?
a. Heart rate and oxygen uptake Correct
b. Blood pressure and carbon dioxide release
c. Blood pressure and oxygen release
d. Heart rate and carbon dioxide uptake
a. Heart rate and oxygen uptake Correct
38
Which method of cardio should be avoided for a client who demonstrates low-back arching as a movement compensation?
a. Group exercise classes
b. Bicycles Correct
c. Elliptical trainers
d. Treadmills
b. Bicycles Correct
39
A client has been performing cardiorespiratory exercise for four weeks. Which of the following physiologic adaptations should the personal trainer expect to observe in the client?
a. Improved ability of muscles to use oxygen Correct
b. Increased resting heart rate
c. Decreased cardiac output
d. Decreased stroke volume
a. Improved ability of muscles to use oxygen Correct
40
According to the 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines, what is the minimum amount of time per week an individual should engage in physical activity if performed at a moderate-intensity level?
a. 100 min
b. 150 min Correct
c. 200 min
d. 250 min
b. 150 min Correct
41
A client experiences difficulty in performing the prone iso-abs exercise. Which of the following should be suggested as an regression?
a. Cable rotation
b. Rolling active resistance row
c. Quadruped arm and opposite leg raise Correct
d. Cable chop
c. Quadruped arm and opposite leg raise Correct
42
Which of the following has the objective of uniformly strengthening the deep and superficial muscles that stabilize, align, and move the trunk of the body?
a. Flexibility training
b. Interval training
c. Core training Correct
d. Volume training
c. Core training Correct
43
Which of the following is a precaution that should be taken while performing the reverse crunch exercise?
a. Keep the chin tucked while performing the exercise.
b. Avoid a large stride length to protect the low back.
c. Avoid rounding the lower back when performing the exercise.
d. Avoid swinging the legs when performing the exercise. Correct
d. Avoid swinging the legs when performing the exercise. Correct
44
Which of the following training types involves little motion through the spine and pelvis?
a. Core-reactive
b. Core-power
c. Core-strength
d. Core-stabilization Correct
d. Core-stabilization Correct
45
Performing the drawing-in maneuver or bracing can do what?
a. Cause narrowing of openings in the vertebrae
b. Affect posture and muscle balance
c. Help retrain motor control of local and global stabilization systems Correct
d. Result in lower endurance for stabilization
c. Help retrain motor control of local and global stabilization systems Correct
46
Which term refers to the body being in equilibrium and stationary?
a. Functional efficiency
b. Neuromuscular efficiency
c. Balance Correct
d. Posture
c. Balance Correct
47
Maintenance of which of the following is an integrated process requiring optimal muscular balance, joint dynamics, and neuromuscular efficiency using visual, vestibular, and proprioceptive inputs?
a. Static equilibrium
b. Mechanical equilibrium
c. Dynamic equilibrium
d. Postural equilibrium Correct
d. Postural equilibrium Correct
48
A multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization is categorized as an exercise in which of the following?
a. Leg-power
b. Balance-stabilization
c. Leg-stabilization
d. Balance-power Correct
d. Balance-power Correct
49
What is a single-leg balance an example of?
a. Balance-stabilization exercise Correct
b. Balance-strength exercise
c. Balance-power exercise
d. Balance-modification exercise
a. Balance-stabilization exercise Correct
50
Exercises that involve dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion are categorized as which of the following?
a. Balance-stabilization
b. Leg-stabilization
c. Leg-strength
d. Balance-strength Correct
d. Balance-strength Correct
51
What is the purpose of stretch-shortening cycles?
a. To enhance excitability and decrease the rate of force production
b. To check the client's core strength and balance stabilization capabilities
c. To produce the necessary force to change the direction of an object's center of mass efficiently Correct
d. To decrease the reaction time of the muscle action spectrum
c. To produce the necessary force to change the direction of an object's center of mass efficiently Correct
52
What exercise requires that the knees always stay in line with the toes during the takeoff and landing components?
a. Power step-up Correct
b. Single-leg step-up
c. Squatting
d. Overhead soccer throw
a. Power step-up Correct
53
Which of the following is an alternative name for plyometric training?
a. Reactive training Correct
b. Functional training
c. Integrated training
d. Stabilization training
a. Reactive training Correct
54
Which of the following is a form of training in which an individual reacts to the ground surface in such a way that he or she develops larger than normal ground forces that can be used to project the body with a greater velocity or speed of movement?
a. Hypopressive exercise
b. Reactive training Correct
c. High-intensity training
d. Vacuum exercise
b. Reactive training Correct
55
In what position should the ankles, knees, and hips be during the takeoff position of the squat jump?
a. Extension
b. Adduction
c. Flexion Correct
d. Abduction
c. Flexion Correct
56
Which of the following statements is correct about the position of the foot and ankle complex during speed, agility, and quickness exercises?
a. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a dorsiflexed position when it hits the ground. Correct
b. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a plantarflexed position in the air.
c. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a plantarflexed position when it hits the ground.
d. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a dorsiflexed position in the air.
a. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a dorsiflexed position when it hits the ground. Correct
57
What should be the primary focus when developing SAQ drills for weight loss?
a. Focusing on the development of maximal speed
b. Keeping the heart rate appropriately elevated Correct
c. Providing variety in the selection of SAQ drills
d. Maximizing sports performance training
b. Keeping the heart rate appropriately elevated Correct
58
When training a client for speed, agility, and quickness, which of the following exercises would be most appropriate?
a. Box jump
b. One-ins Correct
c. Butt kicks
d. Tuck jump
b. One-ins Correct
59
During sprinting, backside mechanics includes which of the following motions?
a. Ankle eversion, knee adduction, and hip internal rotation
b. Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion
c. Ankle plantarflexion, knee extension, and hip extension Correct
d. Ankle inversion, knee abduction, and hip external rotation
c. Ankle plantarflexion, knee extension, and hip extension Correct
60
When training for speed, agility, and quickness, the foot and ankle complex should be in which of the following positions when it hits the ground?
a. Pointing straight ahead and plantar flexed
b. Externally rotated and dorsiflexed
c. Pointing straight ahead and dorsiflexed Correct
d. Internally rotated and plantar flexed
c. Pointing straight ahead and dorsiflexed Correct
61
During a workout, a personal trainer wants to increase the proprioceptive demand of a standard push-up exercise for his client. Which of the following would be a proper progression?
a. Hands on the floor, knees on the floor
b. Hands on the floor, feet on a stability ball Correct
c. Hands on a bench, feet on the floor
d. Hands on the wall, feet on the floor
b. Hands on the floor, feet on a stability ball Correct
62
A new client tells the personal trainer she is experiencing soreness following her first exercise session. Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome does this represent?
a. Alarm reaction Correct
b. Exhaustion
c. Resistance development
d. Amortization phase
a. Alarm reaction Correct
63
A client performs a ball squat, curl to overhead press followed by a push-up, a standing cable row, a single-leg scaption, and a single-leg squat in a circuit fashion. This is an example of which of the following resistance training systems?
a. Pyramid
b. Peripheral heart action
c. Vertical loading Correct
d. Split-routine
c. Vertical loading Correct
64
Which of the following is an example of a strength exercise during resistance training workouts?
a. Squat jump
b. Medicine ball chest pass
c. Step-up to balance
d. Bench press Correct
d. Bench press Correct
65
When performing a peripheral heart action workout for strength, which of the following exercises would you perform immediately after a barbell squat?
a. Squat jump
b. Seated row Correct
c. Single-leg cable row
d. Romanian deadlift
b. Seated row Correct
66
Which of the following is the appropriate rest interval when training in the Maximal Strength Phase?
a. 3 minutes Correct
b. 30 seconds
c. 60 seconds
d. 6 minutes
a. 3 minutes Correct
67
High-volume training with low intensity increases which of the following?
a. Motor unit synchronization
b. Motor unit recruitment
c. Metabolic rate Correct
d. Rate of force production
c. Metabolic rate Correct
68
When in Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance training of the OPT model, which of the following tempos should be used when performing resistance training exercises?
a. 4/2/1 Correct
b. X/X/X
c. 2/0/2
d. 1/1/1
a. 4/2/1 Correct
69
When working with loads exceeding 90 percent of maximum, a client would not exceed a workout volume of?
a. 30 reps Correct
b. 20 reps
c. 60 reps
d. 10 reps
a. 30 reps Correct
70
A fitness professional is training a beginner client who has never tried resistance training. How many exercises per body part is most appropriate?
a. 4
b. 1-2 Correct
c. 5-6
d. 3
b. 1-2 Correct
71
Which of the following exercises is a bodyweight exercise?
a. The barbell squat
b. Biceps curls
c. Lift and chop
d. Sit-ups Correct
d. Sit-ups Correct
72
Which of the following is the most appropriate spotting technique for a dumbbell chest press?
a. Place the hands just under the client’s elbows.
b. Place the hands just under the client’s dumbbells.
c. Place hands just under the client’s triceps.
d. Place the hands close to the client’s wrists. Correct
d. Place the hands close to the client’s wrists. Correc
73
Which of the following is a flat-bottomed cast iron ball with a handle?
a. Kettlebell Correct
b. Sandbell
c. Dumbbell
d. Barbell
a. Kettlebell Correct
74
What can be thrown, caught, and used to provide resistance for a variety of movements, in a variety of planes of motion, and at a variety of velocities?
a. Water balls
b. Stability balls
c. Kettlebells
d. Medicine balls Correct
d. Medicine balls Correct
75
Which of the following statements is correct regarding proper spotting technique for a client using a machine?
a. Spot at the client’s hands.
b. Spot at the client’s elbows.
c. Spot at the client’s axilla.
d. Never spot underneath the weight stack. Correct
d. Never spot underneath the weight stack. Correct
76
When training a client with arthritis who has never worked out before, it may be necessary to start out with how many minutes of exercise?
a. 5 Correct
b. 20
c. 15
d. 10
a. 5 Correct
77
An obese client who has been diagnosed with peripheral artery disease (PAD) should be advised to do which of the following?
a. Substitute self-myofascial release for static stretching.
b. Avoid aerobic exercise for lower extremities.
c. Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily. Correct
d. Focus on resistance training so leg pain will not limit exercise.
c. Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily. Correct
78
A client is taking prescription beta blockers for hypertension. Which of the following exercises is safe for him to perform?
a. Floor bridge
b. Knee-up
c. Reverse crunch
d. Standing cobra Correct
d. Standing cobra Correct
79
Which of the following is a correct training strategy for a client with osteoarthritis?
a. Limit the client to 10 to 12 repetitions per set for Phase 1 of the OPT model. Correct
b. Avoid balance training because a client who has osteoarthritis has a higher risk of falling.
c. Avoid cycling between 60% to 80% of maximal heart rate because it most likely will increase joint pain and stiffness of the lower extremities.
d. Perform self-myofascial release to reduce muscular tension during arthritic flare-ups.
a. Limit the client to 10 to 12 repetitions per set for Phase 1 of the OPT model. Correct
80
Which of the following physiological characteristics should a personal trainer be aware of when working with a senior client?
a. Decreased blood pressure
b. Increased connective tissue elasticity
c. Decreased lean body mass Correct
d. Decreased risk of arteriosclerosis
c. Decreased lean body mass Correct
81
Metabolic syndrome is a cluster of symptoms characterized by what conditions?
a. Osteoporosis, osteopenia, osteoarthritis, osteomyelitis
b. Hyperthyroidism, sarcoidosis, sarcopenia, hypotension
c. Plantar fasciitis, Achilles tendonitis, sciatica, biceps tendinopathy
d. Obesity, insulin resistance, hypertension, dyslipidemia Correct
d. Obesity, insulin resistance, hypertension, dyslipidemia Correct
82
What is a unit of expression of energy equal to 1,000 calories?
a. Decacalorie
b. Megacalorie
c. Microcalorie
d. Kilocalorie Correct
d. Kilocalorie Correct
83
What is a high-protein diet commonly associated with?
a. An increase in fiber intake
b. A decrease in urea production
c. A decrease in glycogen stores Correct
d. A decreased risk of dehydration
c. A decrease in glycogen stores Correct
84
Within how many minutes should a client consume 1.5 g/kg of carbohydrates to maximize glycogen replenishment after exercise?
a. 120 min
b. 180 min
c. 30 min Correct
d. 100 min
c. 30 min Correct
85
Which of the following actions falls outside a personal trainer’s scope of practice?
a. Counsel a client with anorexia about the health benefits of a well-balanced diet. Correct
b. Educate clients regarding nutrients contained in foods or supplements.
c. Develop an exercise program for an obese client with hypertension and medical clearance for exercise.
d. Perform various movement and postural assessments on a client to determine potential muscle imbalances.
a. Counsel a client with anorexia about the health benefits of a well-balanced diet. Correct
86
Which of the following is a common supplement that the body also makes internally from the amino acids methionine, glycine, and arginine?
a. Growth Hormone
b. Creatine Correct
c. Vitamin D
d. Glycogen
b. Creatine Correct
87
Which of the following is an example of a dietary supplement?
a. Tobacco
b. Kinesio tape
c. Ice pack
d. Multivitamin Correct
d. Multivitamin Correct
88
Which of the following micronutrients should be at low levels or absent in a multivitamin?
a. Biotin
b. Riboflavin
c. Vitamin B12
d. Calcium Correct
d. Calcium Correct
89
Which of the following classifies a product as a supplement?
a. Non-drug substance in a pill or powder form Correct
b. Represented as a conventional food
c. Regulated by the FDA
d. Includes drugs and biologics
a. Non-drug substance in a pill or powder form Correct
90
How much caffeine per kg of body weight is recommended about an hour before exercise to provide the most effective ergogenic response?
a. 3-6 mg Correct
b. 13 mg or more
c. 1 mg
d. 2-4 mg
a. 3-6 mg Correct
91
What are the two types of fitness goals?
a. Realistic and unrealistic
b. Process and product Correct
c. Smart and reliable
d. Physical and psychological
b. Process and product Correct
92
According to the stages of change model, what do trainers need to help clients overcome?
a. Injuries
b. Relapse Correct
c. Eating disorders
d. Progression
b. Relapse Correct
93
Which of the following stages in the stages of change model involves individuals intending to take action in the next month?
a. The precontemplation stage
b. The action stage
c. The maintenance stage
d. The preparation stage Correct
d. The preparation stage Correct
94
Which of the following is true about clients who exercise in a group exercise setting?
a. They are seeking exclusivity.
b. They are willing to spend large amounts of money.
c. They like working out alone.
d. They enjoy the social environment when working out. Correct
d. They enjoy the social environment when working out. Correct
95
In the stages of change model, which of the following corresponds to a stage where people do occasionally exercise but are planning to begin exercising regularly in the next month?
a. Precontemplation
b. Preparation Correct
c. Action
d. Contemplation
b. Preparation Correct
96
Louis drives interest in his club through social media channels. Which of the following four Ps of the marketing mix is Louis using?
a. Place
b. Promotion Correct
c. Planning
d. Planning
b. Promotion Correct
97
All buying decisions are based on which of the following?
a. Price
b. Pressure
c. Emotion Correct
d. Knowledge
c. Emotion Correct
98
The fitness professional asks the client, "Why do you want to lose weight?" This is an example of which of the following types of questions?
a. Dichotomous
b. Directive
c. Open-ended Correct
d. Contingency
c. Open-ended Correct
99
Which of the following is an advantage of working at a commercial fitness facility for a fitness professional who is looking to be financially successful?
a. Provided uniforms
b. Schedule flexibility
c. Robust group fitness schedules
d. Updated equipment is provided Correct
d. Updated equipment is provided Correct
100
Which of the following is a potential advantage to working in a commercial fitness facility?
a. In-house employee training Correct
b. Can work from home
c. Works only when required
d. No employer supervision
a. In-house employee training Correct
