Final exam ADVS 2200 Flashcards

(127 cards)

1
Q

What is the major building block of the cell membrane?

A

Phospholipids

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2
Q

To move a limb closer to the midline?

A

Adduction

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3
Q

____ connects muscles to bones

A

Tendons

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4
Q

What is the definition of plasma?

A

Fluid part of unclotted blood

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5
Q

What is the definition of serum?

A

Fluid part of clotted blood

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6
Q

What is the definition of lymph?

A

Like plasma but lacks large protein molecules

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7
Q

What organs are in the thoracic cavity?

A

Heart and lungs

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8
Q

What organs are in the pelvic cavity?

A

Uterus and rectum

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9
Q

What organs are in the abdominal cavity?

A

Stomach, liver, spleen

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10
Q

What are types of connective tissue?

A

Fat, cartilage (elastic), cartilage (fibrous), bone

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11
Q

Which sympathetic response refers with Autonomic Nervous System response?

A

Fight, flight or freeze

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12
Q

Ultrastructural anatomy imaging utilizes?

A

Electron microscopes

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13
Q

What organelles of the cell packages materials synthesized by the rough ER?

A

Golgi complex

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14
Q

Which cellular organelle is involved in the synthesis of ribosomal RNA?

A

Nucleolus

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15
Q

Which anatomical plane bisects the animal into top and bottom halves?

A

Frontal

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16
Q

What is the major building block of the cell membrane?

A

Phospholipids

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17
Q

What type of tissue covers surfaces?

A

Epithelium

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18
Q

“Origin”, “insertion”, and “action” are descriptive terms of what tissue?

A

Skeletal muscle

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19
Q

What substances can move freely across the cell membrane?

A

Oxygen, carbon dioxide, alcohol

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20
Q

What is the definition of Ionic Bond?

A

Elements with low electronegativity reacting with elements with high electronegativity with a complete transfer of electrons

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21
Q

What is the definition of Covalent Bonds?

A

Involves complete sharing of electrons with partially filled outer shells

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22
Q

What is the definition of Polar Covalent

A

Involves incomplete sharing of electrons where electrons spend more time on one atom vs the other

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23
Q

What is the definition of Hydrogen Bonds?

A

Bond involving attraction between a positive charge of one molecule and a negative charge of another molecule

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24
Q

What is the definition of a Peptide Bond?

A

Chemical bond formed by a carboxyl group reacts with an amino group of another molecule

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25
A positively charged ion is called a?
Cation
26
“Hydro” means?
Water
27
“Phobic” means?
Hating
28
“Philic” means?
Loving
29
“Micro” means?
Small
30
_____ is the driving force moving water from an area of low solute concentration to an area with a higher concentration across a membrane.
Osmotic pressure
31
Proteins within a cell have what functions?
Transport substances across the cell wall Binding site for extracellular substances Form cell to cell junction Identification by other cells
32
“The central purpose of physiology is to provide constancy of the internal environment” defines what term?
Homeostasis
33
What term describes where large amounts of material are brought into a cell?
Phagocytosis
34
What is the definition of Conjugated proteins?
Simple proteins combined with a component that is not an amino acid
35
What is the definition of DNA?
Deoxyribonucleic acid, self-replicating material containing information
36
What is the definition of RNA?
Ribonucleic acid, messenger from DNA controlling synthesis of proteins
37
What is the definition of rRNA?
RNA component of the ribosome
38
What is the definition of mRNA?
RNA material that conveys genetic material from DNA to ribosomes
39
What is the definition of tRNA?
RNA that helps decode messenger RNA
40
What are the general sensory receptors?
Mechanoreceptors Nociceptors Thermoreceptors Chemoreceptors
41
What is the function of acetylcholinesterase (ACHase)?
Deactivation of ACH
42
How does the common anesthetic lidocaine work?
Blocks sodium channels
43
Gray matter appears gray because it contains ____ whereas white matter contains nerve fibers with myelin sheaths.
Nerve cell bodies
44
Which layer of the epidermis contain dead keratinocytes?
Stratum corneum
45
What describes the area of the brain where the cerebellum and pons reside?
Metencephalon
46
Which ventricle is surrounded by the diencephalon?
Third
47
Where in the body is acetylcholine (ACH) and serotonin found?
At nerve synapses
48
Iodine is required for proper production of which hormone?
T3
49
Insulin and growth hormone are
Peptides/protein hormones
50
A negative feedback loop causes?
Decreased production of a hormone
51
Antagonistic muscle groups are best described as?
Groups of muscles working in opposition that provide movement
52
The functional unit of skeletal muscle is the
Sarcomere
53
Plasma differs from serum in that plasma contains what?
Clotting factors
54
If the heart rate of an animal was 40 beats/min, its rectal temp was 99.8, its stroke vol was 30 , mL/beat and it was noon, what would its cardiac output be in mL/min?
1200 (multiply beats/min by mL/beat)
55
Which part of the cardiac cycle refers to relaxation of the ventricles?
Diastole
56
What are the results of anemia?
Low production Clotting issues Blood loss due to bleeding or destruction
57
What are the types of blood vessels?
Arteries Veins Capillaries Coronary arteries
58
The formation of blood cells is called?
Hematopoiesis
59
Expiration occurs when?
Diaphragm relaxes and intercostal muscle contract decreasing the volume of the thoracic cavity
60
Warfarin inhibits which biological cascade?
Clot formation
61
The pleural cavity is/are?
Located between two serous membranes in the thoracic cavity providing lubrication for the lungs
62
What purpose do villi and microvilli serve?
Greatly enhances the surface area of the small intestine Serve as the primary site of absorption of nutrients and drugs
63
The esophageal is
A fold of skin found in the rumen of young ruminants allow milk to bypass the rumen
64
Hind gut fermenters have a highly developed ____ to aid in digestion
Cecum`
65
Anabolism refers to
A set of metabolic pathways that build up body components during times of energy excess
66
T/F Non-protein nitrogen, such as ammonia and urea can be utilized by non-ruminants to build proteins
False
67
The pancreas is located where?
Adjacent to the proximal small intestine
68
What term describes the continual eruption of a horses teeth that necessitates the floating of the teeth for the general heath of the animal?
Hypsodont
69
What is the name of the sphincter at the caudal end of the stomach?
Pyloric
70
Gluconegenesis is
The process of making glucose from non-carbon substrates and occurs in the liver
71
What is condensation?
Reactions that link monosaccharides together forming a disaccharide
72
What is the name of the matabolic cycle that occurs in mitochondria and utilizes acetyly-coenzyme-A as the starting material or substrate
Tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle
73
Amino acids are absorbed in the
Jejunum
74
Which two energy pathways are most utilized by the mammalian body to produce energy?
Glycolysis Tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle
75
Gluconeogenesis refers to
Process by which glucose is made from non-carbohydrate substances
76
What is the definition of Osteoblast?
Is a mononucleate cell that is responsible for bone formation
77
What is the definition of Osteoclast?
Is a large cell that is characterized by multiple nuclei and a cytoplasm with a homogeneous “foamy” appearance responsible for bone resorption
78
What is the definition of Parathyroid Hormone?
Hormone responsible to inhibit osteoblast activity
79
What is the definition of Calcitonin
Hormone reponsible to inhibit osteoclast activity
80
What is the function of the osteocyte?
Build bone tissue and facilitate calcium storage in bones
81
Which hormone causes “elongation” of long bones?
hGH
82
The structural unit of cortical bone is
Osteon
83
What is the hormonal change that initiates parturition?
Glucocorticoids from fetal adrenal gland
84
T/F The neural tube is derived from the ectoderm and develops into the spinal chord and brain
True
85
Which structure carries fully oxygenated blood to the fetus?
Umbilical vein
86
The outer cell layer is called ____ and developed into the _____?
Trophoblasts, extraembryonic tissue or placenta
87
T/F Cotyledonary placental connection occurs at placentomes, the fetal side referred to as cotyledon and the maternal side referred to as caruncle
True
88
T/F Cows and horses have good passive transfer of immunity across placental barriers
False
89
T/F The neural tube is derived from the ectoderm and developed into the spinal chord and brain
True
90
Normal fetal presentation of large animals during parturition is
Head between the front legs, front legs in the birth canal
91
Milk is produced in the ____ and collects in the ____
Alveolus/ gland cistern
92
The ideal lactation for a dairy cow is how many days?
305
93
T/F Pigs can have up to 14 teats to nurse piglets
True
94
The feather structure providing support and anchoring to the skin is the:
Calamus
95
Milk is made up of what components?
Lipids Carbohydrates Proteins Water
96
What is the action of the hormone Oxytocin?
Causes myoepithelial cells surrounding alveolus to contract causing milk let down
97
What is the action of the hormone Progesterone?
Promotes development of secretory alveoli
98
What is the action of the hormone Prolactin?
Stimulates development of secretory epithelium and milk production
99
What is the action of the growth hormone?
Increases milk production, lactation persistency
100
What is the site in the cell for protein synthesis?
Ribosome
101
T/F Lipids are organic compounds that are soluble in water
False
102
What is a chain of amino acids referred to as?
Polypeptide
103
T/F Conjugated proteins are simple proteins combined with a component that is not an amino acid
True
104
Fermentation primarily occurs in where in hind gut fermenters?
Cecum and large colon
105
A solution that has a lower concentration of solute of the outside of a cell than the inside of the cell is referred to as?
Hypotonic
106
The ventral root of the spinal cord peripheral nerves are?
Motor nerves
107
Which cranial nerve is the Trigeminal Nerve?
CN V
108
What are the products of fermentation within an animals digestive tract
VFA Fat Heat More bugs
109
What is the order of organization plan of anatomy from smallest to largest
Element, molecules, organelles, cells, tissue, organs, systems, whole animal
110
T/F Physiology is the study of how the body and all its parts function
True
111
Which two terms of orientation mean the same in the dog?
Posterior - caudal
112
What type of tissue covers surfaces
Epithelium
113
Which anatomical plane bisects the animal into top and bottom halves?
Frontal
114
What is the definition of Erythrocytes?
Red blood cell, carry oxygen
115
What is the definition of Leukocytes?
White blood cells, immune response
116
What is the definition of Thrombocytes?
Platelets, aid in blood coagulation
117
If epithelial cells are very flat, like those lining blood vessels, they are given what name?
Squamous
118
The functional unit of skeletal muscle is the ___?
Sarcomere
119
Saturated fatty acids contain carbon atoms with a single covalent bond while unsaturated fatty acids contain at least one carbon atom with a double covalent bond
True
120
T/F Fatty acids contain hydrocarbon chains and a terminal carboxyl group
True
121
What is a chain of amino acids referred to as?
Polypeptide
122
The Na-K pump is an example of?
Active transport
123
What are the building blocks of protein?
Amino acids
124
Which body tissue changes most with age, going from 2% in young animals to 41% in older animals?
Connective (fat)
125
What does hair provide?
Thermoregulation Insulation Sensory
126
What part of the motor nerve nerve has receptors for ACh (acetylcholine)
Dendrite
127