Final Exam (Cumulative): LE Kinesiology + Gait Flashcards

(127 cards)

1
Q

What is the angle of inclination at birth, and as an adult?

A

Birth: 140-150 degrees (coxa valga)
Adult: 125 degrees (angle reduces over time due to walking)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is femoral torsion? List the angle at birth and as an adult

A

The angle between the femoral neck and shaft

Birth: 40 degrees (excessive anteversion)
Adult: 15 degrees (normal anteversion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the arthrokinematics during hip flexion, extension, IR, ER, abduction, and adduction?

A

Flexion: Spin

Extension: Spin

IR: Anterior roll, posterior slide

ER: Posterior roll, anterior slide

Abduction: Superior roll, inferior slide

Adduction: Inferior roll, superior slide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

T or F? If you have less than 15 degrees of femoral torsion (anteversion), the patient is considered to have retroverted hip alignment

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

If a patient has 140 degrees angle of inclination at the hip, how is he/she likely to stand? why?

A

He/she will likely go into hip abduction because it needs to lower the femoral head when walking to promote stability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which structures influence joint motion and function at the hip?

A
  • Femoral head
  • Acetabulum
  • Acetabular labrum
  • Acetabular ligament
  • Acetabular alignment
  • Capsule and ligaments
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How is the acetabulum and femur aligned?

A

Anterior/Lateral orientation (20 degrees from lateral orientation)

This causes the femoral head to become slightly exposed (commonly dislocated anterior as a result)

  • femoral head is covered anteriorly by anterior capsule and iliopsoas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

T or F? In order for a posterior dislocation of the femoral head to happen, a fracture of the posterior acetabulum would need to occur

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Not enough coverage of the femoral head is called __________. Over coverage of the femoral head is called _____________

A

Dysplasia, Pincer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

List and describe the ligaments of the acetabulofemoral (hip) joint

A

Iliofemoral: Taut in extension/ER

Pubofemoral: Taut in abd/extension/ER

Ischiofemoral: Taut in IR/Extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Differentiate between open and close packed position

A

Open Packed:
- Least amount of joint surface congruency
- Capsule and ligaments are relaxed
- Joint movement is maximized

Close Packed:
- Most amount of joint surface congruency
- Capsule and supporting ligaments are maximally taut
- Joint movement is minimized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe the “close packed” position of the hip

A

Extension, Abduction, Internal Rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe Femur on Pelvis flexion

A

Spin

  • Slackens anterior capsule and iliofemoral ligament
  • Stretches inferior capsule and gluteus maximus
  • With knee extended during hip flexion, the hamstrings would limit ROM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe Femur on Pelvis Extension

A

Spin

  • Increase tension in all ligaments (especially iliofemoral) and ilipsoas
  • With knee flexed, motion is limited due to rectus femoris
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe Femur on Pelvis Abduction/Adduction

A

Abduction
- Superior roll, inferior slide
- Stretches pubofemoral ligament and adductors

Adduction
- Inferior roll, superior slide
- Stretches superior ischiofemoral ligament and abductors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe Femur on Pelvis IR/ER

A

Internal Rotation
- Anterior roll, posterior slide
- Stretches external rotators (piriformis/glute max) and ischiofemoral ligament

External Rotation
- Posterior roll, anterior slide
- Stretches iliofemoral ligament and internal rotators (TFL/glute min)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe Pelvis on Femur ant./post. tilt

A

Anterior Tilt
- Slackens most hip ligaments (especially iliofemoral)
- Limited by hip extensors
- Increase lumbar extension (lordosis)

Posterior Tilt
- Taut iliofemoral ligament and rectus femoris
- Decrease lumbar extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe Pelvis on Femur abduction/adduction

A

Abduction
- “Hip hike” on non weight bearing leg
- Limited by pubofemoral ligament and adductors of weight bearing limb

Adduction
- Lowering of non weight bearing limb
- Limited by IT band, abductors of weight bearing limb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe Pelvis on Femur IR/ER

A

Internal Rotation
- Iliac crest rotates forward on non weight bearing limb
- Lumbar rotation in opposite direction to keep stable trunk

External Rotation
- Iliac crest rotates backward on non weight bearing limb
- Lumbar rotation in opposite direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which muscles are used to anteriorly tilt the pelvis (anterior force couple)

A

Erector spinae, sartorius, iliopsoas (MAYBE????)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which muscles are used to posteriorly tilt the pelvis (posterior force couple)

A

Rectus abdominis, hamstrings, glute max

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The abdominals prevent the pelvis from tilting ________, which promotes “core stability”

A

Anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

T or F? When the spine is in a fixed position, the iliopsoas works on the pelvis. When the lower extremities are in a fixed position, the iliopsoas works on the L-spine

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

List the primary and secondary hip extensor muscles

A

Primary:
- Glute max
- Biceps femoris
- Semitendinosus
- Semimembranosus
- Adductor magnus

Secondary:
- Glute med
- Adductor magnus (anterior part)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
List the primary and secondary hip flexor muscles
Primary: - Iliopsoas - Sartorius - TFL - Rectus femoris - Adductor longus Secondary: - Adductor brevis - Gracilis - Glute min
26
List the primary and secondary hip internal rotation muscles
Primary: - None Secondary: - Glute min - Glute med - TFL - Adductor longus - Adductor brevis - Pectineus
27
List the primary and secondary hip external rotation muscles
Primary: - Glute max - Smaller ER muscles Secondary: - Glute med - Glute min - Obturator externus - Sartorius - Biceps femoris
28
T or F? Torque potential increases when hip flexion approaches 90 degrees
True
29
T or F? When internally rotating at the hip, the anterior fibers of glute med/min go from parallel to perpendicular to longitudinal axis of rotation
True
30
T or F? The moment arm increases 8x when the hip is flexed 90 degrees
True
31
T or F? Some external rotators become internal rotators and create 50% greater torque when the hip is flexed
True
32
List the primary and secondary adductor muscles of the hip
Primary: - Pectineus - Adductor longus - Gracilis - Adductor brevis - Adductor magnus Secondary: - Biceps femoris - Glute max - Quadratus femoris
33
List the primary and secondary abductor muscles of the hip
Primary: - Glute med (greatest moment arm and CSA) - Glute min - TFL Secondary: - Piriformis - Sartorius
34
T or F? Posterior adductor magnus is a powerful extensor regardless of hip angle
True
35
T or F? Adductor longus/brevis and pectineus are hip flexors while adductor magnus is an extensor
True
36
If someone has weak hip abductors while standing on one leg, the _______________ hip will drop, and the patient will likely lean _____________
contralateral, ipsilateral
37
T or F? Using a cane in the contralateral hand will reduce joint reaction forces by 36%
True
38
T or F? If someone has right hip abductor weakness, the load should be held on the ipsilateral side to balance out bodyweight
True
39
T or F? 15% bodyweight load can cause almost 4x body weight compressive force
True
40
T or F? Most individuals have slight genu valgus (5-10 degrees)
True
41
Genu valgum causes increased joint stress in the __________ tibiofemoral joint while Genu varum increases joint stress in the ___________ tibiofemoral joint
Lateral, medial
42
List the norms for knee hyperextension and genu recurvatum
Hyperextension: 5-10 degrees Genu Recurvatum: >10 degrees
43
Which motions can occur at the knee?
- Sagittal - Transverse (knee needs to be slightly flexed) - Frontal
44
T or F? Hip IR and ER increases with greater angles of flexion
True
45
At 90 degrees of knee flexion, ER to IR (of tibia on femur) is __:__
2:1
46
Describe "screw home rotation"
- Locking knee in full extension (last 30 degrees) - 10 degrees of ER - Cannot be performed independently - External Rotation and extension maximizes contact area and joint stability - To initiate knee flexion, popliteus "unlocks" the knee
47
MCL limits _______ stress, LCL limits ________ stress
Valgus, Varus
48
T or F? The collateral ligaments are taut in full extension
True
49
Superficial fibers of MCL are most taut in ___ of the knee
ER
50
Knee extension increases the length of the lateral ligaments by _____ in comparison to full flexion
20%
51
T or F? The cruciate ligaments of the knee are intracapsular and covered in synovium
True
52
Describe the ACL
- Runs in a superior, lateral, posterior direction - Most fibers become taut as knee approaches full extension - A taut ACL will limit anterior slide (knee extension) - Most common ligament injured - 70% of injuries are non contact - Occurs with landing, cutting, decelerating
53
Describe the arthrokinematics of the knee joint during flexion/extension
Flexion (open chain): Posterior roll and slide Flexion (closed chain): Posterior roll, anterior slide Extension (open chain): Anterior roll and slide Extension (closed chain): Anterior roll, posterior slide
54
Describe the PCL
- Runs in a superior, medial, anterior direction - Most fibers become taut as knee approaches knee flexion (peak tension 90-120) - Elongates 20% between full extension and 90 degrees (3% per 10 degrees) - Posterior slide of tibia is limited by PCL during open chain flexion - Limits anterior slide of femur on tibia in closed chain flexion - Occurs with falling on a flexed knee, dashboard injury
55
How is the patellofemoral joint (PFJ) stabilized?
- Quadricep muscle force - Joint congruency - Passive restraint from retinaculum and capsule
56
T or F? Patellofemoral joint (PFJ) osteoarthritis is more common than tibiofemoral joint (TFJ) osteoarthritis
True
57
Describe the kinematics of the patellofemoral joint (PFJ) during open and closed chain movement
Open Chain: - Patella slides on the trochlea - Follows tibia during extension Closed Chain: - Trochlea slides relative to the fixed patella/tibia
58
When is the patellofemoral joint (PFJ) most stable?
Maximum stability: - Partially flexed (60-90 degrees), bony structure provides the patella with stability Minimal stability: - Minimally flexed (20 degrees)
59
Describe the knee extensors
- Vastus medialis/lateralis produce 80% of the torque - Rectus femoris produces 20% of the torque - Collectively generate 66% more force than knee flexors
60
Describe the quadriceps torque/angle relationship at the knee
Tibial on Femoral Movement: - Progressively increases from 90 to 0 degrees of knee flexion - Largest from 45 to 0 degrees of knee flexion - Smallest from 90 to 45 degrees of knee flexion Femoral on Tibial Movement: - Progressively decreases from 90 to 0 degrees of knee flexion - Largest from 90 to 45 degrees of knee flexion - Smallest from 45 to 0 degrees
61
Why is knee extension torque limited at the end range of motion (full extension)?
- Short moment arm - Muscle shortening (active insufficiency)
62
Which factors can affect patellar tracking?
- Q angle - Abnormal trochlear morphology - VMO - Retinaculum - Femur kinematics - Hip strength - Foot pronation
63
Which factors affect the length of the internal moment arm (IMA)?
- Shape and position of patella - Shape of distal femur (depth of intercondylar groove)
64
Describe the Q angle
- The angle between the ASIS, Patella, and Tibial tuberosity (13-15 degree average) - Quadriceps pull the patella in a superior/lateral direction (more lateral pull due to the vastus lateralis being stronger than vastus medialis) - VMO provides compressive forces from 20 to 0 degrees of knee flexion
65
List the compressive forces of the patellofemoral joint (PFJ) during walking, straight leg raise, climbing stairs, and squatting
1.3x bodyweight during walking 2.6x bodyweight during straight leg raises 3.3x bodyweight when climbing stairs 7.8x bodyweight during a full squat (Note: The force occurs during quadricep activation, but the magnitude is influenced by the joint angle)
66
Which factors affect patellofemoral joint (PFJ) kinematics?
Local factors: - Q-angle - Abnormal trochlea of femur - VMO - Retinaculum (connective tissue) Global factors: - Femur kinematics - Hip strength - Foot pronation - Muscle strength
67
Which two forces create the "bowstring force" on the patella?
IT band and the lateral patellar retinacular fibers (Resultant force pulls patella lateral causing decreased contact area and increased joint stress + risk of dislocation)
68
T or F? A flattened trochlea of the femur will cause trochlear dysplasia
True
69
T or F? Excessive genu valgum (knee valgus) increases lateral forces which leads to cartilage damage, eventually causing osteoarthritis
True... this can also be caused by an MCL injury
70
T or F? The knee can be externally rotated even if the femur is internally rotated
True
71
T or F? External rotation of the knee can be caused by a valgus force and lead to an increased Q angle
True
72
T or F? Subtalar joint pronation can cause tibial internal rotation
True
73
List the knee flexors/rotators and their function
Hamstrings - Semimembranosus: IR - Semitendinosus: IR - Biceps Femoris: ER (All do hip extension, knee flexion) Sartorius/Gracilis - Hip flexion - Knee IR Pes Anserine Tendons - Dynamic stability to medial knee - Resist valgus and ER Popliteus - Unlocks the knee
74
T or F? Knee flexors can accelerate or decelerate the lower leg during swing phase
True
75
T or F? Knee flexor torque production is at its greatest when the hip is extended with slight knee flexion
True
76
T or F? The knee flexor (hamstrings) moment arm is greatest at 50-90 degrees of knee flexion
True
77
T or F? Muscle length plays a more important role in knee flexion torque generation in comparison to leverage
True
78
What are the two main goals of the foot?
- Foot needs to be flexible to absorb stress - Also needs to be rigid to withstand large propulsive forces
79
Which bones make up the talocrural joint (TCJ)?
Fibula, Tibia, Talus
80
Which bones make up the rearfoot, midfoot, and forefoot?
Rear/hind foot: - Talus - Calcaneus - Subtalar joint Midfoot: - Navicular - Cuboid - Cuneiforms (+ transverse tarsal joints, distal intertarsal joints) Forefoot: - Metatarsals - Phalanges (+ tarsometatarsal joint)
81
List the planes and axis of dorsiflexion, plantarflexion, eversion, inversion, abduction, adduction
Dorsiflexion/Plantarflexion - Sagittal plane - Media/Lateral axis Eversion/Inversion - Frontal plane - Anterior/Posterior axis Abduction/Adduction - Transverse plane - Vertical axis
82
Which movements make up pronation and supination of the ankle?
Pronation: - Dorsiflexion - Abduction - Eversion Supination: - Plantarflexion - Adduction - Inversion
83
T or F? Pronation and supination are triplanar motions
True
84
Describe the Talocrural joint (TCJ)
- "Mortise" joint - Convex talus, Concave tibia/fibula - 90% of forces pass through tibia and talus - 3mm of articular cartilage
85
Describe the Talocrural joint osteokinematics
- Oblique axis due to lateral malleolus inferior and posterior to medial - 1 degree of dorsiflexion with pronation - 1 degree of plantarflexion with supination
86
T or F? Ankle rolls while plantarflexed causes soft tissue injuries whereas ankle rolls while dorsiflexed causes a fracture
True
87
At the subtalar joint, the talus is _________, the calcaneus is __________
Concave, Convex
88
When dorsiflexing in a closed chain position at the talocrural joint, the roll is _________ and the slide is __________. When dorsiflexing in an open chain position at the talocrural joint, the roll is __________ and the slide is __________
Anterior, Anterior Anterior, Posterior
89
Describe the subtalar joint (STJ)
- The joint between the talus and calcaneus - Can perform dorsiflexion, plantarflexion, abduction, adduction, inversion, and eversion - Axis goes through from posterior/lateral to anterior/medial
90
Subtalar joint (STJ) varus consists of ________ and _________, valgus consists of _________ and ________
Inversion, Adduction Eversion, Abduction
91
T or F? Subtalar joint (STJ) supination raises the medial arch of the foot while pronation flattens it
True
92
Describe open and closed chain pronation at the subtalar joint (STJ)
Open Chain: - Calcaneus abduction, dorsiflexion, eversion Closed Chain: - Calcaneus eversion - Talus plantarflexion and adduction - Foot abduction and dorsiflexion - Tibia IR
93
Describe open and closed chain supination at the subtalar joint (STJ)
Open Chain: - Calcaneus adduction, inversion, plantarflexion Closed Chain: - Calcaneus inversion - Talus dorsiflexion and abduction - Foot adduction and inversion - Tibia ER
94
Describe the function of the subtalar joint (STJ)
- Shock absorption (pronation) during gait - Supination in late stance offers rigid lever for push off
95
List the two transverse (mid) tarsal joints (TTJ) and the bones that make them up
Talonavicular joint (Talus and navicular bones) Calcaneocuboid joint (Calcaneus and cuboid bones)
96
What are the functions of the transverse (mid) tarsal joints (TTJ)
- Connect rearfoot to midfoot - Allows the foot to adapt to a variety of surfaces (standing on rocks, sand, etc.)
97
Describe the talonavicular joint
- Convex talus, concave navicular - Provides mobility to the medial column of the foot - Plantar calcaneonavicular ligament supports head of talus
98
Describe the calcaneocuboid joint
- Anterior/distal calcaneus and proximal cuboid - Each surface has a convex and concave curvature (minimal movement) - Provides lateral foot stability Ligaments - Dorsal calcaneocuboid ligament (dorsal lateral stability) - Bifurcated ligament (dorsal stability) - Long and short plantar ligament (plantar stability)
99
T or F? The transverse tarsal joint (TTJ) moves in conjunction with the subtalar joint to produce pronation and supination movements
True
100
List the axes of rotation at the transverse tarsal joint (TTJ)
- Longitudinal (inversion/eversion) - Oblique (Abduction/Dorsiflexion and Adduction/Plantarflexion) Both axes are used to produce pronation/supination
101
Which position makes the foot more mobile? Which position makes it more rigid?
Mobile - Pronation - Talonavicular and calcaneocuboid joint align parallel Rigid - Supination - Talonavicular and calcaneocuboid align perpendicular
102
T or F? The calcaneocuboid joint basically has the same function/movement as the talocrural joint
True
103
Which joints connect the rearfoot to midfoot?
Talonavicular and calcaneocuboid
104
Which structures make up the medial longitudinal arch?
- 1st metatarsal - Medial cuneiform - Navicular - Talus - Sustentaculum tali - Calcaneus
105
Which structures make up the lateral longitudinal arch?
- 5th metatarsal - Cuboid - Calcaneus
106
Which structures make up the transverse arch?
- Medial cuneiform - Intermediate cuneiform - Lateral cuneiform
107
Describe the medial longitudinal arch
- Talonavicular joint is the "keystone" - Medial instep is concave - Is the "shock absorber" of the foot and supports the foot when standing
108
How is the medial longitudinal arch supported?
- Plantar fascia stretches when toe extends, leading to more support - When standing, the arch distributes the load anterior and posterior from the talonavicular joint (Note: not much activation is needed from intrinsic or extrinsic muscles)
109
T of F? If the plantar fascia becomes elongated, then stability will decrease... meaning the lower the arch, the harder it is to stabilize the foot
True
110
What is the windlass mechanism?
Basically a pulley system 1st MTP joint flexion/extension controls the movement of the plantar fascia When the 1st MTP extends, plantar fascia is tightened and a higher arch is achieved, allowing for more support and stability
111
Describe "pes planus" feet
Flat feet with no arch Caused by: Overstretched fascia and spring ligament or weak posterior tibialis - During stance, subtalar joint (STJ) pronates/everts causing calcaneal eversion - Will not be able to dissipate loads properly with flat feet (which will require intrinsic and extrinsic muscles to activate as a compensation)
112
Describe "pes cavus" feet"
Pes Cavus - neutral calcaneus - forefoot is plantarflexed Severe Pes Cavus - varus calcaneus - 1st metatarsal plantarflexion - claw toes
113
Which factors influence excessive pronation of the foot?
Hip: - Internal rotation - Flexion - Adduction Knee: - Valgus Tibia: - Internal rotation Forefoot and midfoot supination
114
Which factors influence to excessive supination of the foot?
Hip: - External rotation - Extension - Abduction Knee: - Varus Tibia: - External rotation Forefoot and midfoot pronation
115
List the muscles that dorsiflex/invert, dorsiflex/evert, plantarflex/invert, and plantarflex/evert
Dorsiflexion/Inversion - Extensor hallucis longus - Anterior tib Dorsiflexion/Eversion - Extensor digitorum longus - Fibularis tertius Plantarflexion/Inversion - Posterior tib - Flexor digitorum longus - Flexor hallucis longus - Achilles tendon Plantarflexion/Eversion - Fibularis brevis - Fibularis longus
116
T or F? Anterior tib inverts the subtalar joint and supports the medial arch
True
117
Which muscles evert the subtalar joint?
Extensor digitorum longus and fibularis tertius
118
What is the function of the anterior compartment of the ankle?
- Allow for a soft landing - Keep toes off the ground during swing phase
119
T or F? Tibialis anterior paralysis will still allow the ankle to dorsiflex, but will evert rather than invert
True
120
What is the function of the lateral compartment of the ankle?
- Provides the lateral ankle with active stability - Decelerate the rate of supination at the subtalar joint during mid/late stance of gait - Assists with plantarflexion and balances the inversion pull of the posterior tibialis during the late stance of gait
121
What is the function of the posterior compartment of the ankle?
- All of the muscles plantarflex and supinate - Decelerates dorsiflexion when loading, and concentrically contracts before swing phase
122
List the functions of the posterior tib
- Greatest supination torque - Resist/decelerate pronation (slowly lowers medial arch of foot) - Active supination in late stance
123
T or F? The plantarflexors generate the most isometric torque of the ankle muscle groups
True (but greatest torque at full dorsiflexion and least at full plantarflexion) (eversion muscles generate the least isometric torque)
124
T or F? When plantarflexed, the knee should be extended to prevent over shortening of the gastroc
True
125
Which muscle is better suited for control of slow and subtle postural sway... gastroc or soleus
Soleus
126
What is the role of the intrinsic foot muscles?
- Not for dexterity like the hand is - Provides stability to foot and medial arch during push off (active in late stance)
127
T or F? Knee flexor torque (hamstrings) is greatest at what angle?
5 degrees of knee flexion